💥UPSC 2026, 2027, 2028 UAP Mentorship (March Batch) + Access XFactor Notes & Microthemes PDF

Type: Prelims Only

  • Electoral Reforms In India

    Postal Ballot Voting: Eligibility and Process for Lok Sabha elections 2024

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Postal Ballot Voting

    Mains level: NA

    Why in the news?

    The Election Commission of India (ECI) announced that media persons covering “polling day activities” are now eligible to vote in the upcoming Lok Sabha elections 2024 and state Assembly polls through postal ballots.

    What are Postal Ballots?

    • Postal ballots, also known as mail-in ballots, allow registered voters to cast their votes by mail instead of physically going to a polling station.
    • It is governed by the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961.
    • This system serves as a convenient alternative for individuals unable to vote in person due to various circumstances, such as being away from their home constituency, facing a disability, or performing essential services on Election Day.

    Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System (ETPBS)

     

    • The Conduct of Election Rules, 1961 was amended in 2016 to allow service voters to use the ETPBS. Under this system, postal ballots are sent electronically to registered service voters.
    • The service voter can then download the ETPB (along with a declaration form and covers), register their mandate on the ballot and send it to the returning officer of the constituency via ordinary mail.
    • The post will include an attested declaration form (after being signed by the voter in the presence of an appointed senior officer who will attest it).

    Who is eligible to cast their vote through postal ballots?

    Eligible electors who can opt to vote through postal ballots include:

    • Special voters: It includes President of India, Vice President, Governors, and Union Cabinet ministers, Speaker of the House and government officers on poll duty.
    • Service voters: Members of the armed forces, paramilitary forces, and government employees deployed on election duty far from their home constituencies.
    • Absentee voters: Individuals unable to vote in person due to reasons like work commitments, illness, or disability. Senior citizens above 80 years are also included.
    • Electors on election duty: Government officials and polling staff assigned duties at polling stations other than their own.
    • Electors under preventive detention: Individuals detained under preventive custody orders during the election period.
    • Divyangjans: In October 2019, the Ministry of Law and Justice amended the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, lowered the age from 85 to 80 and allowed Persons with Disabilities (PwDs) to cast votes through postal ballots in the 2020 Delhi Assembly polls.
    • Essential services covering polling day activities: Media persons with authorisation letters from the EC and those involved in essential services such as metros, railways, and healthcare have the option to vote using postal ballots in Lok Sabha and four state Assembly polls.

    Applying for a postal ballot

    • To apply for a postal ballot, eligible voters must apply, Form 12 D, to the returning officer (RO) of their respective constituency.
    • The application typically requires personal details, voter identification information, and the reason for seeking a postal ballot.
    • For service voters, the RO sends the postal ballot paper through the record office, directly or through the Ministry of External Affairs for service voters serving outside India.
    • For senior citizens, a team of two polling officials, a videographer, and security personnel will visit the residence of the elector to facilitate this process.

    What is the process of postal voting?

    • Receiving the postal ballot: Once approved, the RO sends the postal ballot to the voter’s registered address, including the ballot paper, declaration form, secrecy sleeve, and pre-paid return envelope.
    • Marking the ballot: Voters mark their preferred candidate(s) on the ballot paper in the secrecy sleeve to ensure confidentiality.
    • Completing the declaration form: Voters fill out the declaration form, providing their signature and other relevant details.
    • Sealing the envelope: Voters seal the marked ballot paper and declaration form inside the secrecy sleeve and place it into the pre-paid return envelope.
    • Returning the postal ballot: Voters affix the postage stamp and mail the return envelope to the designated address within the specified time.

    Counting of postal ballots

    • Postal ballots are counted separately from votes cast at polling stations.
    • On the designated counting day, postal ballots are collected by postal authorities and brought to the counting centre.
    • The RO and election officials scrutinise postal ballots for validity and integrity, adding valid ballots to the respective candidate’s vote count.

     


    PYQ:

    Q.For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by-

    1. Anyone residing in India.
    2. A resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
    3. Any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
    4. Any citizen of India.

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Q.Consider the following statements:

    1. The right to cast vote is not a fundamental right
    2. NRI settled in foreign land can become an elector in the electoral roll in India
    3. Individuals in lawful custody of the police and those serving a sentence of imprisonment after conviction cannot vote

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 1 and 3
    4. 1,2 and 3
  • Tuberculosis Elimination Strategy

    Clinical Trials for MTBVAC Tuberculosis Vaccine in India

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: MTBVAC, TB, DOTS Regimen, Nikshay Poshan Yojana

    Mains level: NA

    What is the news?

    • Bharat Biotech, in collaboration with Spanish biopharmaceutical company Biofabri, has initiated clinical trials for the Mycobacterium Tuberculosis Vaccine (MTBVAC) in India, marking a significant milestone in TB vaccine development.
    • The only currently available TB vaccine, the Bacillus Calmette-Guérin vaccine (BCG), was developed 100 years ago and is less effective.

    About MTBVAC

    • MTBVAC is a unique TB vaccine based on a genetically modified form of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, containing all antigens present in human-infecting strains, unlike the BCG vaccine.
    • It is developed in the laboratory of the University of Zaragoza with contributions from Dr. Brigitte Gicquel of the Pasteur Institute, Paris.
    • MTBVAC is designed to offer superior and potentially longer-lasting protection compared to the BCG vaccine, particularly for newborns and in preventing TB in adults and adolescents.

    Objectives of Clinical Trials in India

    • Safety and Immunogenicity: The ongoing trials in India aim to evaluate the safety and immunogenicity of MTBVAC, with plans for a pivotal Phase 3 trial in 2025.
    • Population Significance: Studying the vaccine’s efficacy in India, with its high TB burden, is crucial for advancing TB vaccine research and addressing the global TB epidemic.

    What is Tuberculosis?

    • Tuberculosis is an infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
    • Robert Koch discovered Mycobacterium tuberculosis which causes TB, and his discovery opened the way towards diagnosing and curing this disease.
    • It can practically affect any organ of the body.
    • The most common ones are lungs, pleura (lining around the lungs), lymph nodes, intestines, spine, and brain.

    Transmission:

    It is an airborne infection that spreads through close contact with the infected, especially in densely populated spaces with poor ventilation.

    Symptoms:

    Common symptoms of active lung TB are cough with sputum and blood at times, chest pains, weakness, weight loss, fever and night sweats.

    Treatment Facilities in India:

    • DOTS (Directly Observed Treatment, Short-Course) regimen: It is the recommended treatment approach for TB by the WHO. Patients receive a combination of four antibiotics: isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. These drugs are usually administered daily for the first two months of treatment, followed by a continuation phase with isoniazid and rifampicin for an additional four to seven months.
    • Nikshay Poshan Yojana (2018): It was launched to support every Tuberculosis (TB) Patient by providing a Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) of Rs 500 per month for nutritional needs.

    Issues in TB Treatment: Drug Resistance

    Drug resistance emerges when anti-TB medicines are used inappropriately, through incorrect prescription by health care providers, poor quality drugs, and patients stopping treatment prematurely.

    1. Multidrug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB): Itis a form of TB caused by bacteria that do not respond to isoniazid and rifampicin, the 2 most powerful, first-line anti-TB drugs. MDR-TB is treatable and curable by using second-line drugs such as
    2. Extensively drug-resistant TB (XDR-TB): Itis a more serious form of MDR-TB caused by bacteria that do not respond to the most effective second-line anti-TB drugs, often leaving patients without any further treatment options.

     


    PYQ:

    2014: Can overuse and free availability of antibiotics without Doctor’s prescription, be contributors to the emergence of drug-resistant diseases in India? What are the available mechanisms for monitoring and control? Critically discuss the various issues involved.

     

    Practice MCQ:

    With reference to the Tuberculosis (TB), consider the following statements:

    1. TB is an infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
    2. It only targets Lungs.
    3. Nikshay Poshan Yojana aims for TB support is essentially a Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT).

    How many of the given statements is/are correct?

    1. One
    2. Two
    3. Three
    4. None
  • ISRO Missions and Discoveries

    ISRO successfully conducts ‘Pushpak’ Reusable Landing Vehicle Landing

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Pushpak Reusable Landing Vehicle (RLV), Low Earth Orbits, Gaganyaan

    Mains level: NA

    What is the news?

    • The ISRO has conducted the Pushpak Reusable Landing Vehicle (RLV) LEX 02 landing experiment at the Aeronautical Test Range in Chitradurga. It was lifted by an Indian Air Force Chinook helicopter and released from an altitude of 4.5 km.
    • This experiment marks a significant milestone in ISRO’s pursuit of reusable space technology.

    About Pushpak Reusable Landing Vehicle (RLV)

    • The Pushpak RLV is a winged vehicle, equipped with aerodynamic surfaces that enable controlled flight during re-entry into the Earth’s atmosphere.
    • The RLV is designed to autonomously land on a designated runway after completing its mission in space, thereby demonstrating India’s capability in autonomous space vehicle landing.
    • It is equipped with sophisticated navigation, control, and landing gear systems that allow it to autonomously navigate and land on a predefined runway.

    Key Features

    1. The RLV is a space plane with a low lift-to-drag ratio, requiring an approach at high glide angles that necessitates landing at high velocities of 350 km/h.
    2. This design allows it to transport payloads to Low Earth orbits and return to Earth for future use.

    Future Prospects

    • Iterative Testing: ISRO conducts a series of experiments, such as the RLV LEX 02 landing experiment, to test and validate the performance of the RLV in various scenarios.
    • Orbital Re-entry Missions: The successful demonstration of the Pushpak RLV’s capabilities paves the way for future orbital re-entry missions, where reusable vehicles can be deployed for various scientific and commercial purposes.

    PYQ:

    2018: With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:

    1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
    2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
    3. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch l vehicle with the first and third stages l using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 1 and 2
    4. 3 only

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Consider the following statements about the ‘Pushpak’ Reusable Landing Vehicle (RLV):

    1. It is a winged vehicle.
    2. It can transport payloads to Low Earth orbits and return to Earth with the help of a parachute.

    Which of the given statements are correct?

    1. Only 1
    2. Only 2
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
  • Wildlife Conservation Efforts

    A turf war with the wild

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Forest in Kerala and comparison with forest in other states

    Mains level: Measures to address human-wildlife conflict

    Why in the news?

    • Instances of human-animal conflict are on the rise in Kerala with the summer heat, scarcity of food, and loss of habitat forcing wild animals to stray into human habitations for sustenance.

    Context-

    • Vulnerability of tribal communities living in such areas. While they have intricate knowledge of the forest and its resources, they lack the protective measures and resources available to more urbanized populations, leaving them more susceptible to the dangers of wildlife encounters.

    Human-animal conflict in Kerala-

    • Surge in Incidents: Kerala has experienced a significant increase in human-animal conflict incidents across its districts, attributed to the state’s significant forest cover and densely populated settlements near wildlife habitats.
    • Human Casualties: Human-wildlife conflicts have resulted in a substantial loss of human lives, with 93 reported deaths in 2023-24. The previous year recorded 98 human casualties.
    • Hotspot District: Wayanad stands out as a hotspot for human-animal conflicts, with 69 reported deaths between 2011 and 2024. Incidents involve encounters with wild elephants and, in one case, a tiger attack.
    • Diverse Wildlife Involved: Human-animal conflicts in Kerala involve various species, including elephants, tigers, leopards, bears, wild gaurs, wild boars, and monkeys. This diversity underscores the complexity of managing conflicts across different ecosystems and habitats.
    • Impact on Livelihoods: The conflicts have severe repercussions on people’s livelihoods, particularly those dependent on agriculture and farming. Attacks by wild animals prevent farmers from cultivating their land, leading to economic hardship and food insecurity.
    • Vulnerable Communities: Vulnerable communities like tribal groups and small-scale farmers are disproportionately affected by human-animal conflicts. Limited resources and infrastructure exacerbate their vulnerability to wildlife attacks, as seen in the case of Abraham Palatt and his family.

    Steps taken by Government to deal these issues – 

    • State-Specific Disaster: The Kerala government declared human-animal conflict as a state-specific disaster in March, becoming the first state to do so. This decision signifies the severity and urgency of addressing the issue.
    • Responsibility Shift: Management of human-animal conflicts now falls under the purview of the Kerala State Disaster Management Authority (KSDMA), with a committee headed by the Chief Minister established for this purpose.
    • Community Involvement: The government plans to involve local communities through neighborhood groups to enhance surveillance on forest fringes. These groups will collaborate with government agencies and elected representatives to disseminate alerts about wildlife presence.
    • Recruitment and Equipment: The government aims to strengthen surveillance by recruiting more forest watchers and establishing rapid response teams equipped with firearms, surveillance devices, drones, tranquilizing guns, and advance warning systems.
    • Inter-State Collaboration: An inter-State coordination committee involving the Forest departments of Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu has been formed to address human-wildlife conflicts collectively. This initiative aims to share intelligence and resources to mitigate conflicts, particularly along interstate borders.

    Measures to address human-wildlife conflict-

    • Forest Quality Improvement: Improving the quality of forests through measures such as reducing fragmentation and patchiness can help create healthier ecosystems that support a more balanced coexistence between humans and wildlife.
    • Conservation Mission with Tribal Communities: Involving tribal communities in conservation efforts ensures their participation and traditional knowledge is valued. Collaborative conservation initiatives can promote sustainable practices and protect both biodiversity and livelihoods.
    • Rejuvenation of Natural Forest Streams: Restoring natural water sources in forests is crucial for wildlife habitat and can help mitigate conflicts by providing essential resources within their natural environment.
    • Removal of Invasive Plants and Replanting Indigenous Species: Removing invasive plant species and replanting indigenous ones can restore ecological balance and support native wildlife populations, reducing their reliance on human-impacted areas.
    • Utilization of MGNREGS: Leveraging government schemes like the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) to support conservation efforts can provide employment opportunities while simultaneously contributing to environmental restoration projects.
    • Awareness Programs on Responsible Tourism: Educating tourists about responsible behavior around wildlife can minimize human-wildlife conflicts caused by human disturbance. This includes emphasizing the importance of maintaining a safe distance and respecting wildlife habitats.
    • Effective Institutional Framework: Establishing a robust institutional framework at various levels of governance, from local to inter-state, is essential for coordinated action in managing human-wildlife conflicts. This involves collaboration between different government departments, wildlife authorities, and local communities.

    Conclusion-

    Human-wildlife conflicts surge in Kerala, endangering lives and livelihoods. Government initiatives, community involvement, and conservation efforts are crucial for mitigating conflicts and fostering coexistence, ensuring a sustainable future for both humans and wildlife.

  • Global Geological And Climatic Events

    Subduction Zone discovered beneath Gibraltar Strait

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Gibraltar Strait, Tectonic Plate Boundaries, Subduction Zones

    Mains level: Read the attached story

    What is the news?

    • Scientists in Portugal have uncovered a concerning revelation about the fate of the Atlantic Ocean, highlighting a potential ‘Ring of Fire’ (a Subduction Zone).
    • Researchers caution that the Atlantic may be on the brink of closure due to subduction activity.

    Why discuss this?

     

    • Closure of Gibraltar Strait: Computer simulations project the subduction zone’s expansion over the next 20 million years, forming the ‘Ring of Fire’ in the Atlantic leading to the closure of Gibraltar Strait.
    • Geological Parallel: This process mirrors the Pacific Ocean’s Ring of Fire, reshaping the ocean basin through gradual subduction of the ocean floor beneath continents.

     

    About Gibraltar Strait

    Details
    Location
    • Connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea;
    • Separating the southern tip of the Iberian Peninsula of Europe from the northern coast of Africa.
    Width Approximately 13 km (8.1 miles) at its narrowest point.
    Depth Varies, with the deepest point reaching around 300 meters (984 feet).
    Formation
    • Convergence point for the Eurasian Plate and the African Plate.
    • Formed around 5.33 million years ago during the Messinian salinity crisis when the Atlantic Ocean breached the barrier separating it from the Mediterranean Sea, resulting in a catastrophic flood known as the Zanclean flood.
    • The strait’s current shape and depth were further influenced by tectonic movements and erosional processes over geological time.
    Historical Significance Serves as a key maritime passage for trade and military purposes.
    Disputes
    • Subject of contention between Spain and the United Kingdom;
    • Gibraltar Overseas Territory under British control.

     

    What are Subduction Zones?

    • Subduction zones occur at convergent plate boundaries, where two tectonic plates move toward each other.
    • This convergence is often between an oceanic plate and a continental plate or between two oceanic plates.
    • Subduction Process:
    1. Collision of Tectonic Plates: When two tectonic plates collide, the denser oceanic plate is forced beneath the less dense continental plate or another oceanic plate.
    2. Partial Melting: As the oceanic plate descends into the mantle, it generates intense heat and pressure, causing partial melting of the mantle material.
    3. Volcanic Activity: The molten material formed by the subduction process rises through the Earth’s crust, leading to volcanic eruptions at the surface.
    4. Formation of Volcanic Arcs: These eruptions often occur in chains known as volcanic arcs, which parallel the subduction zone. Ex. Andes in S. America; Cascade Range in North America.

    Implications of this Activity

    • Earthquakes: Subduction zone earthquakes can be particularly destructive and may trigger tsunamis due to the displacement of large volumes of water.
    • Trench Formation: The surface expression of a subduction zone is often a deep oceanic trench, where the descending plate bends and plunges into the mantle.
    • Mountain Building: Over time, the continuous subduction of oceanic crust can lead to the uplift and deformation of the overriding plate, resulting in the formation of mountain ranges adjacent to the subduction zone. These mountains may exhibit complex geological structures, including folds and faults.
    • Recycling of Oceanic Crust: As oceanic plates are subducted, they are gradually consumed by the mantle, releasing minerals and elements that are eventually returned to the surface through volcanic activity.

    PYQ:

    2010: Which one of the following can one come across if one travels through the Strait of Malacca?

    1. Bali
    2. Brunei
    3. Java
    4. Singapore

     

    2011: Between India and East Asia, the navigation time and distance can be greatly reduced by which of the following?

    1. Deepening the Malacca straits between Malaysia and Indonesia.
    2. Opening a new canal across the Kra Isthmus between the Gulf of Siam and Andaman sea.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Which of the given statement about the Gibraltar Strait is NOT correct?

    1. It connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea.
    2. It is approximately 13 kilometers wide at its narrowest point.
    3. The deepest point of the Gibraltar Strait reaches around 300 meters.
    4. It was formed around 5.33 million years ago during the Holocene Epoch due to tectonic movements.
  • Coal and Mining Sector

    What are Critical Minerals?

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Critical Minerals

    Mains level: NA

    Why in the news?

    • India is looking for cobalt and other critical minerals in Zambia, Namibia, Congo, Ghana and Mozambique. It is still engaging with Australia for lithium blocks.
    • Critical minerals, including lithium and cobalt, are crucial for technology, manufacturing and other industries.

    What are Critical Minerals?

    • Critical minerals are elements that are crucial to modern-day technologies and are at risk of supply chain disruptions.
    • These minerals are mostly used in making electronic equipment such as mobile phones, computers, batteries, electric vehicles, and green technologies like solar panels and wind turbines.
    • Many of these are required to meet the manufacturing needs of green technologies, high-tech equipment, aviation, and national defence.

    List of critical minerals includes:

    The centre has released a list of 30 critical minerals for India in 2023:

    1. Identified Minerals: Antimony, Beryllium, Bismuth, Cobalt, Copper, Gallium, Germanium, Graphite, Hafnium, Indium, Lithium, Molybdenum, Niobium, Nickel, Platinum Group elements (PGE), Phosphorous, Potash, Rare Earth Elements (REE), Rhenium, Silicon, Strontium, Tantalum, Tellurium, Tin, Titanium, Tungsten, Vanadium, Zirconium, Selenium and Cadmium.
    2. Fertilizer Minerals: Two minerals critical for fertilizer production, phosphorous and potash, are also included in the above list.

    Critical Mineral Blocks in India

    • Distribution: There are 20 blocks spread across eight states, including Tamil Nadu, Odisha, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, and Jammu & Kashmir.
    • Types of Licenses: Four blocks are for a Mining License (ML), allowing immediate mining post-clearance. The remaining 16 blocks are for a Composite License (CL), permitting further exploration before potentially converting to an ML.
    • Approvals Required: Licensees must obtain various approvals, including forest clearance and environmental clearance.
    • Forest Land: Approximately 17% of the total concession area, or 1,234 hectares, is forest land.

    India’s Critical Mineral Imports

    • Lithium Imports: In FY23, India imported 2,145 tonnes of lithium carbonate and lithium oxide, costing Rs 732 crore.
    • Nickel and Copper Imports: The country imported 32,000 tonnes of unwrought nickel and 1.2 million tonnes of copper ore, costing Rs 6,549 crore and Rs 27,374 crore, respectively.
    • Import Dependence: India relies entirely on imports for lithium and nickel, and 93% for copper.

    Country-wise dependence:

    1. China: India heavily relies on China for the import of critical minerals like lithium, cobalt, nickel, and graphite.
    2. Australia: India is actively engaged with Australia for acquiring mineral assets, particularly lithium and cobalt, to secure its supply chain for critical minerals.
    3. Argentina, Bolivia, and Chile: India is engaging with these countries, known for their reserves of battery metals like lithium and cobalt, to diversify its sources for critical minerals.

     


    PYQ:

    2019: With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:

    1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country.
    2. State governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
    3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 3
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Consider the following statements:

    1. Critical minerals are those elements which are crucial to modern-day technologies and are at risk of supply chain disruptions.
    2. India has notified 30 elements in the Critical Minerals List.
    3. Fertilizer minerals Phosphorous and potash are also included in the Critical Minerals List.

    How many of the given statements is/are correct?

    1. One
    2. Two
    3. Three
    4. None
  • Freedom of Speech – Defamation, Sedition, etc.

    Hate Speech: Interpreting Section 153A IPC

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Section 153A , IPC, Freedom of Speech and Reasonable Restrictions

    Mains level: NA

    What is the news?

    • The Supreme Court reiterated that to constitute an offence under Section 153A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), the essential ingredient is to create a sense of enmity and disharmony amongst two or more groups or communities.
    • Quite often, politicians are arrested under section 153 A of IPC for alleged hate speech.

    Section 153A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC)

    • Section 153A of the IPC deals with the offence of promoting enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc.
    • The primary is to prevent the promotion of disharmony or feelings of enmity, hatred, or ill-will between different groups in society.
    • It was enacted in 1898 and was not in the original penal code.

    Prohibited Acts:

    The section prohibits several acts:

    1. Engaging in activities that promote or attempt to promote feelings of enmity or hatred between different religious, racial, linguistic, or regional groups.
    2. Committing acts prejudicial to the maintenance of harmony between different groups or communities.
    3. Doing anything that disturbs or disrupts public tranquillity or creates unrest among various groups.

    Essential Elements:

    To constitute an offence under Section 153A, the following essential elements must be established:

    1. Promotion of enmity or hatred between different groups.
    2. Such promotion must be based on religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc.
    3. The intention behind the act must be to disrupt public tranquillity or to create disharmony among groups.

    Punishment:

    • Jail Term: Any individual found guilty of committing an offence under Section 153A may be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to 3 years, or with a fine, or with both.
    • Cognizable and Non-Bailable: The offence is a cognizable offence and the punishment for the same may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both. Further, the offence is non-bailable in nature, wherein the accused is tried by the magistrate of the first class.
    • Burden of Proof: It lies with the prosecution to demonstrate that the accused’s words, actions, or conduct were aimed at promoting enmity or hatred between different groups based on the specified grounds.

    PYQ:

    2014: What do understand by the concept “freedom of speech and expression”? Does it cover hate speech also? Why do the films in India stand on a slightly different plane from other forms of expression? Discuss.

     

    2022: With reference to India, consider the following statements:

    1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
    2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Q.The Section 153A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) essentially deals with:

    1. Fake News
    2. Hate Speech
    3. Protest without permission
    4. Encroachment
  • Modern Indian History-Events and Personalities

    Story of Usha Mehta and the Secret Congress Radio

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Congress Radio, Usha Mehta and other personalities mentioned

    Mains level: NA

    Why in the news?

    Who was Usha Mehta (1920-2000)?

    • Usha Mehta was born on March 25, 1920, in Mumbai, India.
    • Inspired by Mahatma Gandhi’s principles of nonviolent resistance and civil disobedience, Usha Mehta became actively involved in the Indian independence movement from a young age.
    • One of Usha Mehta’s most notable contributions to the freedom struggle was her involvement in the radio broadcasting network known as the “Secret Congress Radio.”
    • She was conferred the Padma Vibhushan, one of India’s highest civilian honours in 1998.

    The Secret ‘Congress Radio’

    • On August 8, 1942, the historic Quit India Resolution was passed during the All India Congress Committee meeting in Bombay.
    • In this response, the idea of an underground radio station, known by various names such as the Freedom Radio, the Ghost Radio, or the Congress Radio, was conceived to counter the British-controlled AIR.
    • Usha Mehta, a 22 YO master’s student at Wilson College, became the voice of the Congress Radio.
    • The radio was an expensive endeavour, but funds were procured through various means, including contributions from Mehta’s colleague, Babubhai Khakhar.
    • Radio engineering expert Nariman Abarbad Printer constructed the Congress Radio transmission set.
    • Their first broadcast was on 14 August 1942.
    • Welcome line in her voice: This is the Congress Radio calling on 42.34 from somewhere in India.”
    • In the beginning, they were broadcasting twice a day, in Hindi and English. But they reduced it to just once in the evening between 30 and 8.30 pm.
    • On 12th November 1942, the police raided the radio while Vande Mataram was being played and arrested Mehta and others.

    PYQ:

    2011: With reference to Indian freedom struggle, Usha Mehta is well-known for-

    1. Running the secret Congress Radio in the wake of Quit India Movement
    2. Participating in the Second Round Table Conference
    3. Leading a contingent of Indian National Army
    4. Assisting in the formation of Interim Government under Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

     

    2021: With reference to 8th August, 1942 in Indian history, which one of the following statements is correct?

    1. The Quit India Resolution was adopted by the AICC.
    2. The Viceroy’s Executive Council was expanded to include more Indians.
    3. The Congress ministries resigned in seven provinces.
    4. Cripps proposed an Indian Union with full Dominion Status once the Second World War was over

    Practice MCQ:

    In context to the Secret ‘Congress Radio’ in modern Indian history, consider the following statements:

    1. It was established to supplement the Civil Disobedience Movement of 1930s.
    2. Usha Mehta was the voice of Congress Radio.
    3. It was broadcasted twice a day, in Hindi and English

    How many of the given statements is/are correct?

    1. One
    2. Two
    3. Three
    4. None
  • Wildlife Conservation Efforts

    Supreme Court forms panel for Great Indian Bustard Conservation

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Great Indian Bustard (GIB)

    Mains level: NA

    bustard

    What is the news?

    • The Supreme Court has taken a decisive step by forming an expert committee to address the pressing issue of conserving the endangered Great Indian Bustard.

    About Great Indian Bustard (GIB)

    • GIBs are the largest among the four bustard species found in India, the other three being MacQueen’s bustard, lesser florican, and the Bengal florican.
    • It is state bird of Rajasthan.
    • It is considered the flagship bird species of grassland.
    • Protection Status:
    1. Birdlife International: Uplisted from Endangered to Critically Endangered (2011)
    2. Protection under CITES: Appendix I
    3. IUCN status: Critically Endangered
    4. Protection under Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I

    Threats to GIBs

    • Overhead power transmission: Due to their poor frontal vision, can’t detect powerlines in time and their weight makes in-flight quick maneuvers difficult.
    • Windmills: Coincidentally, Kutch and Thar desert are the places that have witnessed the creation of huge renewable energy infrastructure.
    • Noise pollution: Noise affects the mating and courtship practices of the GIB.
    • Changes in the landscape: by way of farmers cultivating their land, which otherwise used to remain fallow due to frequent droughts in Kutch.
    • Cultivation changes: Cultivation of cotton and wheat instead of pulses and fodder are also cited as reasons for falling GIB numbers.

    PYQ:

    2014: Consider the following pairs:

    Protected Area: Well-known for

    1. Bhitarkanika, Odisha — Salt Water Crocodile
    2. Desert National Park, Rajasthan — Great Indian Bustard
    3. Eravikulam, Kerala — Hoolock Gibbon

    Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2
    3. 2 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    Practice MCQ:

    With reference to the Great Indian Bustard (GIB), consider the following statements:

    1. It is the largest among the bustard species found in India.
    2. It is state bird of Rajasthan as well as Gujarat.
    3. It is considered the flagship bird species of deserts.

    How many of the given statements is/are correct?

    1. One
    2. Two
    3. Three
    4. None
  • Indian Navy Updates

    [pib] Exercise IMT TRILAT- 2024

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Exercise IMT TRILAT- 2024

    Mains level: NA

    Why in the news-

    • INS Tir and INS Sujata are set to participate in the second edition of the India-Mozambique-Tanzania (IMT) Tri-Lateral (TRILAT) Exercise.

    Exercise IMT TRILAT- 2024

    • It is a biennial exercise conducted by the navies of India, Mozambique and Tanzania.
    • The first edition of the exercise took place in October 2022.
    • It seeks to enhance India’s commitment to maritime security and cooperation in the Indian Ocean Region.
    • Through this joint exercise, the Indian Navy aims to foster mutual trust and understanding with its maritime partners in Mozambique and Tanzania.

    Phases of the Exercise

    • Harbour Phase: Activities include joint harbour training such as Damage Control, Fire Fighting, Visit Board Search and Seizure procedures, Medical Lectures, Casualty Evacuation, and Diving operations.
    • Sea Phase: Focuses on countering asymmetric threats, Visit Board Search and Seizure procedures, boat handling, manoeuvres, firing exercises, and joint EEZ surveillance.

    PYQ:

    2017: Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS):

    1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy.
    2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Consider the following statements about Exercise IMT TRILAT:

    1. It is an annual exercise conducted by the navies of India, Mozambique and Tanzania.
    2. The first edition of the exercise took place in October 2022.

    Which of the given statements is/are correct?

    1. Only 1
    2. Only 2
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2