Why in the News?
In a recent breakthrough at CERN’s ALICE (A Large Ion Collider Experiment), scientists observed that near-collisions of lead ions in the Large Hadron Collider (LHC) can result in the formation of gold atoms and other novel nuclei.
How was Lead converted into Gold?
- In ultra-peripheral collisions at the Large Hadron Collider, lead atoms passed close without touching, creating strong electromagnetic fields.
- These fields released photons that caused some lead atoms to lose 3 protons and 2 neutrons, transforming them into gold-203.
- Between 2015–2018, 86 billion gold atoms were created—just 29 picograms—scientifically important but not commercially valuable.
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About the Large Hadron Collider (LHC):
- The LHC has been working since September 2008 and is the world’s largest particle accelerator.
- Development: Between 1998 and 2008 in collaboration with over 10,000 scientists, and hundreds of universities and laboratories across more than 100 countries.
- Location: It lies in a 27-kilometre tunnel under the France–Switzerland border, near Geneva, and is operated by CERN.
- Purpose: It smashes protons or lead atoms together to help scientists study the smallest building blocks of the universe.
- Working Mechanism: About 9,600 magnets guide particles in a circle using strong magnetic fields.
- Speed: Particles travel at 99.999999% the speed of light, creating conditions like the Big Bang.
- Particles Studied: The LHC focuses on quarks (which come in six types) and gluons, which hold quarks together using the strong nuclear force.
- Members: 24 countries spans across the Europe. Japan and US are Observer.
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- India signed a cooperation agreement with CERN in 1991 and joined its Large Hadron Collider project in 1996; it became an Associate Member in 2016 after gaining Observer status in 2002.
- India also helped design LHC components such as superconducting magnets, cryogenic systems, and accelerator protection systems.
About the ALICE Experiment:
- ALICE is designed to study heavy-ion collisions, mainly using lead atoms.
- Objective: It recreates matter similar to that formed just after the Big Bang, helping us understand the early universe.
- Detection Range: ALICE can study both large particle blasts and rare, low-energy events with high precision.
- Size and Setup: It weighs 10,000 tons, measures 26 × 16 × 16 metres, and sits 56 metres underground.
- Members: As of 2024, ALICE includes over 1,900 scientists from 174 institutes across 39 countries, including India.
- India’s Contribution: Key instruments like the Photon Multiplicity Detector for ALICE and the Hadron Outer Calorimeter for CMS.
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| [UPSC 2009] In the year 2008, which one of the following conducted a complex scientific experiment in which sub-atomic particles were accelerated to nearly the speed of light?
Options: (a) European Space Agency (b) European Organization for Nuclear Research* (c) International Atomic Energy Agency (d) National Aeronautics and Space administration |
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Why in the News?
Justice B.R. Gavai has been sworn in as the 52nd Chief Justice of India (CJI).
About the Chief Justice of India:
- The CJI is the head of the Supreme Court and the highest-ranking judicial officer in the country.
- As the “Master of the Roster,” the CJI has the exclusive authority to:
- Constitute benches
- Allocate cases among judges
- Decide the schedule of hearings
- The CJI leads the judicial and administrative functions of the Supreme Court.
- Holds administrative control as recognised in State of Rajasthan v. Prakash Chand (1997).
- The CJI is referred to as “first among equals” among Supreme Court judges.
Powers and functions of the CJI:
-
- Assigns judges to the Constitution Benches. (Article 145)
- Handles interpretation of important legal and constitutional matters. (Article 145)
- Exercises judicial leadership by steering jurisprudential direction. (Article 145)
- Exercises judicial authority in matters of national significance. (Article 136)
- Protects fundamental rights through the Supreme Court’s original and appellate jurisdiction. (Article 32)
- Administrative Functions:
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- Maintains court roster and case listing. (Derived from judicial precedent and administrative conventions)
- Supervises court staff and administration. (Based on administrative authority of the CJI)
- Ensures smooth functioning of the Supreme Court. (Supreme Court Rules, 2013)
- Holds disciplinary authority over subordinate judicial officers. (Administrative powers acknowledged in precedents)
- Engages in administration of justice at the highest level. (Overarching responsibility under Article 145)
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- Provides advisory input when consulted by the President. (Article 143)
Appointment and Terms:
- Article 124 of the Constitution empowers the President of India to appoint the CJI.
- Traditionally, the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court is appointed.
- Exceptions to this practice:
- 1973: Justice A.N. Ray appointed over 3 senior judges.
- 1977: Justice M.H. Beg appointed over Justice H.R. Khanna.
- Qualifications as outlined in Article 124(3):
- Must be a citizen of India, and:
- Served at least five years as a High Court judge, or
- Practised at least ten years as a High Court advocate, or
- Deemed a distinguished jurist by the President.
Selection Procedure:
- Governed by the Memorandum of Procedure for Appointment of Supreme Court Judges.
- The Union Law Minister seeks the outgoing CJI’s recommendation.
- The recommendation is processed as follows:
- Sent to the Prime Minister by the Law Ministry.
- Prime Minister advises the President.
- President of India appoints the new CJI.
- No specific timeline is defined — the recommendation must be made at the “appropriate time”.
Tenure and Removal:
- CJI serves until the age of 65 years.
- Can only be removed through removal under Article 124(4):
- Requires approval by both Houses of Parliament.
- Must be supported by:
- A majority of total membership, and
- A two-thirds majority of members present and voting.
- Grounds for removal: Proven misbehavior or incapacity.
[UPSC 2021] With reference to the Indian judiciary, consider the following statements:
- Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with the prior permission of the President of India.
- A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgment as the Supreme Court does
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 * (d) Neither I nor 2 |
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Why in the News?
In October 2022, 75 Digital Banking Units were launched across remote districts to commemorate India’s 75th Independence Day, but their momentum has declined from past 2 years.
About Digital Banking Units (DBUs):
- DBUs are specialized, fixed-location banking hubs designed to deliver a wide range of digital financial services using modern infrastructure.
- They operate in both self-service and assisted modes, offering customers 24/7 access to banking in a paperless, secure, and cost-effective environment.
- The RBI permits commercial banks with digital banking experience to establish DBUs in Tier I to Tier VI cities, without prior approval unless restricted.
- RRBs, payment banks, and local area banks are not eligible.
- In October 2022, as part of India’s 75th independence anniversary, 75 DBUs were launched across 75 remote districts to promote financial inclusion and bring banking services closer to citizens in semi-urban and rural areas.
Services and Features:
- DBUs offer digital services such as account opening, internet and mobile banking kits, debit and credit card applications, and UPI QR-based merchant solutions.
- Customers can apply online for retail loans, MSME loans, and government-sponsored schemes, with the entire process—from application to disbursal—handled digitally.
- Each DBU operates independently from existing branches and must follow RBI guidelines, including housing in separate premises with automated-only cash services.
- They are equipped with interactive teller machines, cash recyclers, document upload systems, and video KYC facilities.
- A senior bank executive is appointed as Chief Operating Officer (COO) to manage each unit.
Benefits Offered:
- DBUs offer a convenient, paperless banking experience, reducing the need to visit traditional branches.
- They support inclusive banking by expanding access to financial services in underserved regions.
- Customers in remote areas benefit from both automated and assisted service options.
- For banks, DBUs help optimize costs while improving service delivery and outreach.
| [UPSC 2024] Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee:
1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy. 2. It appears as a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet. 3. It is insured against inflation by its very design. 4. It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Options: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4* |
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Why in the News?
The Centre for Earth Sciences and Himalayan Studies (CESHS) has successfully drilled India’s first geothermal production well in Dirang, located in Arunachal Pradesh’s West Kameng district.
This could potentially make Dirang the first geothermal-powered town in the country.
What is Geothermal Energy?
- Geothermal energy is derived from heat stored in the Earth’s interior, primarily from the decay of radioactive elements.
- It can be utilised for electricity generation, heating, and industrial applications.
- It is considered a renewable energy source as the Earth continuously generates heat.
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About Dirang Geothermal Project:
- This project in West Kameng, Arunachal Pradesh, is the first successful geothermal drilling site in Northeast India.
- It is led by CESHS under the Arunachal Pradesh Department of Science and Technology, with support from the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
- It is a medium-to-high enthalpy zone (~115°C), with a fault between quartzite and schist, enabling efficient, low-impact drilling.
- The site was selected after two years of geochemical and structural surveys, and can support applications like agricultural drying, space heating, and controlled storage.
- International partners include the Norwegian Geotechnical Institute, Geotropy ehf (Iceland), and Guwahati Boring Service for execution.
India’s Geothermal Landscape:
- The Geothermal Atlas of India (2022) identifies 381 thermally anomalous sites across the country.
- India has an estimated geothermal potential of 10,600 MW, enough to power over 10 million homes.
- Geothermal energy offers base load power, unlike intermittent solar and wind sources.
- The first operational plant was a 20 kW binary cycle pilot in Manuguru, Telangana, developed by SCCL.
- A 25 MW project in Khammam remains stalled due to tariff issues with the Andhra Pradesh Electricity Regulatory Commission.
- In Puga Valley, Ladakh, ONGC resumed work in 2024 on a 1 MW pilot plant, after a 2022 hot water leak raised safety concerns.
- In Dholera, Gujarat, geothermal energy is used for cooking and air conditioning at a temple, showing direct-use feasibility.
- India has signed MoUs with Iceland (2007) and Saudi Arabia (2019), and included geothermal energy in the 2023 RETAP agreement with the United States.
| [UPSC 2013] Consider the following: (1). Electromagnetic radiation (2). Geothermal energy (3). Gravitational force (4). Plate movements (5). Rotation of the earth (6). Revolution of the earth
Which of the above are responsible for bringing dynamic changes on the surface of the earth?
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None* |
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Why in the News?
India extended critical financial assistance to the Maldives by rolling over a $50 million Treasury Bill, continuing its support under a government-to-government arrangement since 2019.
About Treasury Bill:
- A T-Bill is a short-term debt instrument issued by the GoI through the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
- They are part of Government Securities (G-Secs) and are used to raise short-term funds.
- They are zero-coupon securities, meaning they do not carry periodic interest payments.
- Instead, they are issued at a discount and redeemed at face value upon maturity.
- They were first introduced in India in 1917.
- They are ideal for investors seeking safety and liquidity over short periods.
Features of the T-Bills:
- Tenures Available: 91-day, 182-day, and 364-day maturity periods.
- Issued at a Discount: T-Bills are sold at a lower price than their face value. The return (yield) is the difference between purchase price and face value.
- Minimum Investment: Starts at ₹25,000, and in multiples of ₹25,000 thereafter.
- Zero-Coupon Nature: No interest payments during the tenure. Investors earn via the discounted purchase price.
- Risk-Free Investment: Backed by the Government of India, making it virtually risk-free.
- High Liquidity: Due to short tenure, T-Bills can be easily converted to cash.
- Auction Mechanism: Sold through competitive and non-competitive bidding at RBI auctions.
- Taxable Gains: Returns are treated as short-term capital gains and are taxable.
- Sensitive to Inflation: Fixed returns can be impacted by rising inflation, reducing real returns.
| [UPSC 2018] Consider the following statements:
1.The Reserve Bank of India manages and services GoI Securities but not any State Government Securities.
2.Treasury bills are issued by the GoI and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.
3.Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only * (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
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Why in the News?
Asteroid YR4, discovered in December 2024 via Chile’s ATLAS telescope, was first thought to threaten Earth but was later ruled out. Scientists now focus on its potential Moon impact in 2032.
About Asteroid 2024 YR4:
- Asteroid 2024 YR4 was discovered in December 2024 by the ATLAS telescope located in Chile.
- It is a near-Earth asteroid (NEA) whose orbit brings it within 1.3 AU (Earth-Sun distances) of Earth.
- It is estimated to be 65 metres wide, roughly the size of a 10-storey building.
- Initially, it was suspected to have a 3.1% chance of impacting Earth in 2032, triggering NASA’s highest-ever asteroid impact alert.
- Subsequent tracking ruled out an Earth impact but indicated a 3.8% chance of hitting the Moon on December 22, 2032.
- A Moon impact would create a 500 to 2,000-metre-wide crater and release energy 340 times more powerful than the Hiroshima bomb.
- Despite being smaller than the 140m threshold for “potentially hazardous asteroids,” its unusual trajectory drew global scientific attention.
- Scientists continue to observe YR4, including during a close approach in 2028, to refine its orbital predictions.
Back2Basics: ATLAS Telescope
- ATLAS (Asteroid Terrestrial-impact Last Alert System) is a NASA-funded early warning project for detecting small near-Earth objects (NEOs).
- It is developed and operated by the University of Hawaii’s Institute for Astronomy.
- As of 2025, ATLAS operates five telescopes in Hawaii, South Africa, Chile, and the Canary Islands.
- Each telescope has a 0.5-meter Wright-Schmidt design, a 1-meter focal length, and a 110 MP CCD detector with a 7.4° field of view.
- The system scans 20,000 square degrees of sky three times per night and provides 1–3 week warnings for asteroids 45–120 meters wide.
- In addition to asteroids, ATLAS also discovers supernovae, comets, dwarf planets, and variable stars.
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| [UPSC 2011] Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while asteroids do not. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only* (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
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Why in the News?
India’s briefing on Operation Sindoor was opened with lines from poet Ramdhari Singh Dinkar and concluded with a reference to the Ramcharitmanas (by Tulsidas) by the IAF spokesperson.
About Tulsidas:
- Tulsidas, born as Ram Bola Dubey, was a Brahmin poet-saint believed to have been born in Rajapur (present-day Banda district, Uttar Pradesh).
- He composed the Ramcharitmanas on the banks of the Ganga in Varanasi.
- Writing began on Ram Navami in 1574, and the composition was completed over the following years.
- Tulsidas lived during the time of Emperor Akbar, and some sources suggest he had contact with Abdurrahim Khan-e-Khanan, son of Akbar’s general Bairam Khan.
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About the Ramcharitmanas:
- Ramcharitmanas was written in the 16th century in the Awadhi dialect and is spoken across Lucknow, Prayagraj, and Ayodhya regions.
- It is a retelling of Valmiki’s Ramayana in a vernacular language accessible to the common people.
- It is divided into seven chapters (Kand), covering Lord Ram’s life from birth to his coronation.
- It is referred to simply as “Ramayan” across the Hindi heartland.
- It is regarded as the holiest text in the Indo-Gangetic region.
- Geeta Press (Gorakhpur) has reportedly sold nearly 7 crore copies.
| [UPSC 2002] Who among the following was the first Bhakti saint to use Hindi for the propagation of his message?
Options: (a) Dadu (b) Kabir (c) Ramananda* (d) Tulsidas |
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Why in the News?
A new study by Columbia University, suggests that the universe may have an alternate mechanism for producing gold — not just in neutron star collisions, as previously believed, but also in magnetar flares.
What are Magnetars?
- Magnetars are a rare type of neutron star with immensely strong magnetic fields, among the most powerful in the universe.
- They are formed when a massive star collapses during a supernova, leaving a highly dense stellar core.
- Due to magnetic instability, magnetars sometimes release intense flares of X-rays and gamma rays.
- These flares can be millions of times stronger than typical solar flares.
- A magnetar’s magnetic field is estimated to be about a thousand times stronger than that of ordinary neutron stars.
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r-Process in a Magnetar Flare:
- The r-process (rapid neutron-capture process) forms heavy elements like gold, platinum, and uranium by rapidly attaching neutrons to atomic nuclei.
- It was earlier believed to occur mainly in neutron star mergers.
- In a 2024 study, scientists analysed a 2004 magnetar flare followed by delayed gamma-ray emissions, recorded by NASA’s Compton Gamma Ray Observatory.
- The radiation patterns matched those of radioactive decay from r-process elements, suggesting neutron-rich nuclei were produced.
- Around 1.9 septillion kilograms of matter was ejected at near-light speeds, marking the first direct evidence of r-process nucleosynthesis in a magnetar flare.
Implications for Gold Formation:
- The study shows that magnetar flares may also produce gold and other heavy elements, not just neutron star collisions.
- This implies such elements could have formed earlier in the universe than previously believed.
- The findings broaden our understanding of the origins of chemical elements in space.
- It confirms that multiple astrophysical events contribute to the formation of heavy elements.
- It also offers a new perspective on cosmic gamma-ray bursts and ancient stellar compositions.
| [UPSC 2012] Consider the following is/are cited by the scientists as evidence/evidences for the continued expansion of the universe?
1. Detection of microwaves in space
2. Observation of redshift phenomenon in space
3. Movement of asteroids in space
4. Occurrence of supernova explosions in space
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
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Why in the News?
Chinese researchers has developed a first-of-its-kind rice pangenome by integrating genetic data from 144 wild and cultivated rice varieties from Asia (similar to the Human Genome Project).
About the Rice Pangenome:
- A pangenome includes both the core genes shared by all members of a species and the unique genes found in specific varieties, offering a complete view of genetic diversity.
- The rice pangenome was built using data from 144 wild and cultivated rice varieties across Asia, making it the first comprehensive genomic resource for rice.
- Researchers led the project from the Chinese Academy of Sciences to explore rice evolution and domestication.
- Researchers used PacBio HiFi sequencing and advanced computational tools to detect variations, uncovering 3.87 billion base pairs of genetic material previously missing from the standard rice genome.
Key Findings:
- The study identified 69,531 genes, including 28,907 core genes common to all varieties and 13,728 genes unique to wild rice.
- About 20% of all genes were exclusive to wild rice, offering potential for trait improvement in cultivated varieties.
- The study confirmed that all Asian cultivated rice (Oryza sativa L.) originated from Or-IIIa, a subgroup of Oryza rufipogon.
- Japonica rice was first domesticated in China, while indica rice arose later via hybridization as japonica spread across Asia.
- Wild-specific genes were linked to environmental adaptation, phenotypic flexibility, and regenerative traits, offering insights for future crop resilience.
- Bridging the genetic gap between wild and cultivated rice could lead to climate-resilient and high-yield varieties.
India’s Contribution:
- Rice is India’s staple food and the main monsoon crop, grown from June to September.
- In 2024–25, India produced a record 220 million tonnes of rice over 51,000 hectares, with an average yield of 4.2 tonnes per hectare.
- The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has developed two genome-edited rice varieties — Samba Mahsuri and MTU 1010 — known for higher yields and drought resistance; these are currently under testing.
| [UPSC 2001] Assertion (A): Scientists can cut apart and paste together DNA molecules at will, regardless of the source of the molecules. Reason (R): DNA fragments can be manipulated using restriction endonucleases and DNA ligases.
Options: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A * (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is fasle but R is true |
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Why in the News?
The Supreme Court notified civic officials of allegedly violating its 1996 directive in the M.C. Mehta vs Union of India case (1996) by approving a private housing project in Delhi’s ecologically sensitive Morphological Ridge area.
About Delhi Morphological Ridge:
- The Delhi Ridge is the northern extension of the ancient Aravalli Range, stretching approximately 35 km from Tughlaqabad to Wazirabad, along the Yamuna River.
- It is composed mainly of quartzite rock, is over 1.5 billion years old, and significantly older than the Himalayas.
- It functions as Delhi’s green lungs, aiding in carbon sequestration, temperature regulation, and air pollution reduction.
- It acts as a natural barrier against desert winds from Rajasthan and supports rich biodiversity, making Delhi one of the world’s most bird-rich capitals.
- It is divided into four zones: Northern Ridge, Central Ridge, South-Central Ridge, and Southern Ridge.
- Key conservation areas include the Northern Ridge Biodiversity Park and the Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary.
Land Use Regulation in the Ridge:
- Although the area shares ecological features with the Delhi Ridge, it is NOT officially notified as forest land, but it enjoys judicial protection.
- A 1966 directive prohibits any NON-forest use or encroachment without court approval.
- Any change in land use must be cleared by the Ridge Management Board (RMB) and the Supreme Court-appointed Central Empowered Committee (CEC).
- The area is mapped using data from the Delhi Forest Department and the 2006 Seismic Zonation Map.
- Formal notification as a Reserved Forest under the Indian Forest Act, 1927, is pending due to the absence of ground-truthing.
- In revenue records, it is often marked as “gair mumkin pahad”, meaning uncultivable rocky hill.
- The terrain is ecologically fragile, with shallow soil and rocky outcrops, making it unsuitable for construction.
| [UPSC 2001] The approximate age of the Aravalli range is-
Options: (a) 370 million years (b) 470 million years (c) 570 million years (d) 670 million years |
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Why in the News?
The BrahMos supersonic cruise missile has garnered global attention as it was reportedly used for the first time in a combat scenario during Operation Sindoor.
About the BrahMos Missile:
- BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile jointly developed by India and Russia through BrahMos Aerospace.
- The name is derived from the Brahmaputra River (India) and the Moskva River (Russia).
- It is one of the world’s fastest cruise missiles, reaching speeds up to Mach 3.
- It was first successfully tested on June 12, 2001, from Chandipur, Odisha.
- It is a ‘fire and forget’ missile, requiring no further guidance after launch.
- It can be launched from land, sea, air, and submarine platforms.
- It has been inducted into the Indian Navy (2005), Army (2007), and Air Force (2017).
- Key Features:
- Classified as a stand-off weapon, it can be launched from a safe distance, avoiding enemy defences.
- The original range was 290 km, now extended to 350–400 km, with future variants targeting 800 km and hypersonic speeds (Mach 5).
- It offers high accuracy, extended seeker range, and 9 times more kinetic energy than subsonic missiles.
- It operates in all weather conditions, day or night, and strikes both land and sea targets with precision.
Anatomy of the BrahMos Missile:
- BrahMos is a two-stage missile with advanced propulsion and stealth capabilities.
- The first stage is a solid-propellant booster that accelerates the missile to supersonic speed.
- The second stage uses a liquid-fuelled ramjet engine to sustain high-speed cruise up to Mach 3.
- The ramjet is an air-breathing engine that combines liquid fuel with incoming air for efficient thrust.
- It features stealth technologies, such as low radar cross-section and special materials.
- The missile can cruise at up to 15 km altitude and descend to 10 metres in the terminal phase for pinpoint accuracy.
- It supports multiple launch platforms, including mobile launchers, naval ships, Sukhoi-30 MKI aircraft, and submarines.
Key Weapons and Systems used by India in Operation SINDOOR:
| Type |
Name |
Features & Role in Operation SINDOOR |
| Air-Launched Missile |
SCALP (Storm Shadow) |
Long-range missile launched from Rafale jets; used for deep strikes on terror camps with minimal collateral damage. |
| Precision-Guided Bomb |
HAMMER |
Modular weapon with 15–70 km range; delivered from aircraft to hit mid-range targets with high accuracy. |
| Surface-to-Air Missile |
Akash |
Indigenous system that can engage multiple aerial targets simultaneously; intercepted enemy drones and missiles. |
| Air Defence System |
SAMAR |
Rapid-response missile system for low-flying threats like UAVs and drones; bolstered India’s layered air defence. |
| Anti-Drone System |
D-4 (Detect, Deter, Destroy) |
Uses radar, jammers, and laser weapons to disable or destroy hostile drones and UCAVs. |
| Loitering Munition |
SkyStriker |
Kamikaze drone that hovers over targets before striking; used for precision attacks on enemy assets. |
| Satellite Systems |
Cartosat, RISAT, EOS Series |
Provided real-time surveillance and intelligence for target tracking and mission planning. |
| Navigation System |
NavIC |
India’s satellite-based navigation system; enabled sub-metre precision for missile and drone targeting. |
| Anti-Aircraft Gun |
Upgraded L-70 (Bofors) |
Equipped with radar and auto-tracking; used to shoot down low-flying drones in conflict zones. |
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| [UPSC 2023] Consider the following statements:
1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their fights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight.
2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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Why in the News?
India participated in the 20th session of the United Nations Forum on Forests (UNFF20) held at the UN Headquarters, New York, reaffirming its commitment to the United Nations Strategic Plan for Forests (UNSPF) 2017–2030.
About United Nations Forum on Forests (UNFF):
- UNFF was established in 2000 by the UN Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC).
- It aims to promote sustainable forest management and global forest policy coordination.
- It holds annual sessions at UN Headquarters:
- Technical discussions in odd years
- Policy-level dialogues in even years
- It has universal membership — includes all UN Member States and relevant forest-related agencies.
- India is a founding member and plays an active role in shaping forest policies.
- The UN Strategic Plan for Forests (UNSPF) is the guiding framework for achieving global forest goals by 2030.
- The 19th UNFF Declaration secured high-level political commitment for forest conservation.
Key Highlights of UNFF20:
- India reaffirmed its commitment to Voluntary National Contributions (VNCs) under the UNSPF (2017–2030).
- It reported an increase in forest and tree cover to 25.17% of its geographical area.
- National efforts included the Aravalli Green Wall, a 7.86% rise in mangrove cover, 1.55 lakh hectares afforested under the Green India Mission, and 1.4 billion seedlings planted under the Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam campaign.
- India invited countries to join the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) for big cat conservation.
- It urged support for outcomes of the Country-Led Initiative (CLI) on forest fire management held in Dehradun (2023).
- In a high-level panel, India presented findings on carbon sequestration, water services, biodiversity, and tools like System of Environmental Economic Accounting (SEEA) and Millennium Ecosystem Assessment (MEA).
- It stressed the need to mainstream ecosystem valuation in forest policy.
| [UPSC 2021] With reference to the ‘New York Declaration on Forests’, which of the following statements are correct?
1. It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014.
2. It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests.
3. It is a legally binding international declaration.
4. It is endorsed by governments, big companies, and indigenous communities.
5. India was one of the signatories at its inception.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Options: (a) 1, 2, and 4* (b) 1, 3, and 5 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 5 |
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Why in the News?
The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has introduced new Cost Regulations 2025 to check if companies are selling below cost to unfairly drive out competitors.
About Competition Commission of India (CCI):
- The CCI was established on 14 October 2003 and became fully operational in May 2009.
- It aims to eliminate anti-competitive practices, prevent abuse of dominant positions, and promote fair competition.
- It was formed under the Competition Act, 2002, later amended in 2007, replacing the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969 based on Raghavan Committee recommendations.
- The headquarters is located in Kidwai Nagar (East), New Delhi, and the Commission includes 1 Chairperson and up to 6 Members, all appointed by the Central Government.
- Members must have at least 15 years of experience in areas such as law, economics, business, finance, or public administration.
- Jurisdiction of CCI:
- It is a quasi-judicial statutory body under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
- It has the authority to initiate cases suo motu or respond to public/institutional complaints, and can impose penalties for violations.
- Its jurisdiction spans all sectors across India, and it is empowered to frame its own regulations under the Act.
New Cost Definitions under Cost Regulations, 2025:
- Under the Cost Regulations 2025, Average Variable Cost (AVC) is used to measure cost, calculated by dividing total variable costs by total output.
- Variable cost excludes fixed costs and overheads and varies with production.
- Although a sector-specific approach was considered, the CCI adopted a case-by-case evaluation after stakeholder feedback.
- The new framework is sector-agnostic, allowing flexibility for diverse industries, including the digital economy, and supports better adaptation to market dynamics.
| [UPSC 2020] With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited. 2. They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services. 3. They are not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Options: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only* (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
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Why in the News?
A 500-kg piece of a Soviet spacecraft, part of the Kosmos 482 mission launched in 1972, is expected to crash back to Earth.
About Kosmos 482 Mission:
- Kosmos 482 was a Soviet space probe launched on March 31, 1972 as part of the Venera Program, aimed at exploring Venus.
- It was launched just four days after its twin mission, Venera 8, which successfully landed on Venus 117 days later.
- The mission’s goal was to:
- Study Venus’s atmosphere and surface
- Demonstrate technological and scientific superiority during the Cold War
- Kosmos 482 was equipped with instruments to measure:
- Temperature, pressure, and wind speed
- Atmospheric gases and rock composition
- Capable of transmitting data back to Earth
- Venus was a target due to:
- Speculation about life beneath its thick clouds
- Its strategic importance in space exploration rivalry
- Under the broader Venera Program (1961–1984):
- 28 missions were launched toward Venus
- 13 probes entered the atmosphere
- 10 probes landed, but could only function for 23 minutes to 2 hours due to harsh surface conditions
| [UPSC 2014] Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Spacecraft: Purpose
1. Cassini-Huygens : Orbiting the Venus and transmitting data to the Earth.
2. Messenger : Mapping and investigating.
3. Voyager 1 and 2 : Exploring the outer solar system.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only* (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only |
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Why in the News?
To channel investments into clean-energy projects and climate-resilient infrastructure, the Finance Ministry has released a draft document titled ‘Framework of India’s Climate Finance Taxonomy’.
What is a Climate Finance Taxonomy?
- A CFT is a classification system that defines which economic activities qualify as climate-friendly or sustainable investments.
- It helps investors, financial institutions, and policymakers channel funds into low-emission and climate-resilient projects.
- It acts as a safeguard against green-washing, where non-sustainable initiatives are falsely labelled as green.
- It supports the mobilization of finance necessary to achieve global climate goals, including Net Zero targets.
- It offers a structured decision-making framework to ensure that investments deliver measurable environmental benefits.
About India’s Draft ‘Climate Taxonomy’ (May 2025)
- The Finance Ministry released the draft ‘Framework of India’s Climate Finance Taxonomy’ to help meet India’s Net Zero by 2070 goal while maintaining energy access.
- It categorizes activities as:
- Climate Supportive Activities: Those that reduce GHG emissions, enable adaptation, or promote clean tech R&D.
- Climate Transition Activities: Those that encourage gradual progress, especially in hard-to-abate sectors like steel, iron, and cement.
- It aligns with the national vision of ‘Viksit Bharat 2047’.
- It includes key sectors such as power, mobility, buildings, agriculture, food, and water security.
- The framework was first announced in the Union Budget 2025.
Global Context and Negotiation Relevance:
- A standard taxonomy is critical in global forums like the Conference of Parties (COP) to resolve disputes over climate finance commitments.
- Developing nations, including India, advocate for grants and technology transfers, while developed countries often include private investments in their finance counts.
- At the Baku Climate Conference, developed countries pledged $300 billion annually by 2035, far below the $1.35 trillion required.
- India’s taxonomy aims to provide a clear benchmark for climate-related financial flows, promoting transparency, credibility, and trust in international climate funding.
| [UPSC 2015] With reference to ‘Green Climate Fund’ is/are correct?
1. It is intended to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change.
2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and World Bank.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Options: (a) 1 only* (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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Why in the News?
The Art Deco style, first showcased at the Paris Exposition on April 29, 1925, took a decade to arrive in Madras. It spread to India via Bombay, where the country’s first Art Deco structure — the Syndicate Bank building — was completed in 1932.
About Art Deco Style of Architecture:
- Art Deco Style is a design style that emerged in the 1920s and 30s, characterized by sleek, geometric shapes, luxurious materials, and a focus on manufactured goods.
- It signified a break from older styles like Neo-classical, Indo-Saracenic, and Bombay Gothic.
- The style was embraced by Indian banks, insurance companies, cinemas, studios, and business houses to symbolize modernity and cultural identity.
- In Madras, Art Deco became visible in cinema theatres like Casino (1941), preview halls of Gemini, AVM, and Vijaya-Vauhini studios, commercial buildings like Dare House (1938), hotels such as Oceanic and Dasaprakash, and residential areas including T. Nagar, Mylapore, Alwarpet, and Adyar.
- Art Deco influenced furniture design, silverware, and even fonts in print.
- By the 1950s, it was gradually replaced by Modernist/Brutalist styles, aligned with Socialist ideology.
Contributions of Laxman Mahadeo Chitale:
- Chitale (1892–1960) was a prominent architect who introduced Art Deco to Madras.
- Recognized for his drawing skills by Maharaja Sayaji Rao Gaekwad III of Baroda.
- He trained under H.V. Lanchester, a British architect associated with New Delhi‘s early planning.
- He worked on the Umaid Bhavan Palace in Jodhpur, a grand Art Deco residence.
- After returning from England, Chitale settled in Madras and joined the PWD.
- In 1932, he started his independent practice, marking the beginning of Art Deco architecture in the city.
- His major works included the Oriental Insurance Building on Armenian Street, the National Insurance Building (1938) on China Bazaar Road, and the Andhra Insurance Building (1939).
- His architectural style often included corner entrances and street-facing facades, inspired by Sir Edwin Lutyens.
| [UPSC 2007] Which one of the following was the first fort constructed by the British in India?
Options: (a) Fort William (b) Fort St. George* (c) Fort St. David (d) Fort St. Angelo |
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Why in the News?
India and the United Kingdom signed a Free Trade Agreement (FTA), ending nearly 3 years of negotiations, with an aim to boost trade and investment between the two nations.
What is Free Trade Agreement (FTA)?
- An FTA is an agreement between two or more countries to reduce or eliminate customs tariffs and non-tariff barriers on trade between them.
- Objective: To promote trade by making it easier and more cost-effective for businesses to import and export goods and services.
- FTAs can cover goods, services, investment, and intellectual property rights.
- By reducing trade barriers, FTAs also benefit consumers by offering a wider range of products at lower prices.
- FTAs play a key role in boosting economic growth and job creation by facilitating trade between countries.
- India’s FTAs:
- India has signed FTAs with 16 countries or regional blocs as of May 2025.
- These FTAs cover major partners such as Sri Lanka, Bhutan, Thailand, Singapore, Malaysia, South Korea, Japan, Australia, UAE, Mauritius, ASEAN (10 countries), and EFTA (4 countries).
Key terms of the UK-India FTA:
- Trade Growth: Expected to boost bilateral trade by £25.5 billion annually by 2040.
- Whisky and Gin Tariffs: Tariffs reduced from 150% to 75%, eventually to 40% over 10 years.
- Automobile Tariffs: India to reduce automotive tariffs from over 100% to 10%.
- Other Goods: Tariffs reduced on cosmetics, aerospace, medical devices, chocolate, and more.
- Services and Work Permits: Increased quotas for Indian workers in IT and healthcare, with 100 new visas annually for professionals.
- Carbon Tax: Dispute over UK’s proposed carbon tax on metal imports.
- Supply Chain Resilience: FTA aims to reduce reliance on China and improve supply chain security.
| [UPSC 2017] The term ‘Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and:
Options: (a) European Union* (b) Gulf Cooperation Council (c) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (d) Shanghai Cooperation Organization. |
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Why in the News?
The Union Home Ministry directed all states and Union Territories to conduct a Civil Defence Mock Drill, aimed at assessing and enhancing the readiness of India’s civil defence mechanisms.
About Civil Defence under the Civil Defence Act, 1968
- The Civil Defence Act, 1968 was enacted to ensure measures for civil defence to protect citizens, properties, and establishments from hostile attacks or natural disasters.
- It aims to prepare the population to respond to emergencies such as military attacks, terrorist activities, and natural calamities.
- Civil Defence Corps is formed at both national and state levels. Volunteers from various sectors are enlisted and trained.
- The corps operates under the Central Government’s rules for civil defence.
- Key functions include- Evacuation of civilians; Protection from danger and destruction; Salvage of property; Managing hazardous materials.
- The Central Government has the authority to:
- Make rules for civil defence across India.
- Enforce evacuation procedures, control over dangerous substances, and manage disaster relief.
- Penalties for non-compliance with the civil defence regulations.
Recent Context: Civil Defence Mock Drill on 7th May
- This exercise assesses and enhances the readiness of India’s civil defence systems to respond promptly during emergencies.
- The drills will occur across nearly 300 civil defence districts, including sensitive locations like Mumbai, Uran (Jawaharlal Nehru Port), and Tarapur (nuclear power plant).
- The mock drill aims to improve response time for rescue and relief operations, focusing on critical situations in the first few minutes of an emergency.
| [UPSC 2010] With reference to the National Rehabilitation and Resettlement Policy, 2007, consider the following statements:
1. This policy is applicable only to the persons affected by the acquisition of land for projects and not to the involuntary displacement due to any other reason.
2. This policy has been formulated by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2* |
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Why in the News?
Recent research has uncovered evidence of ancient wildfires (palaeofires) in the Godavari Basin, shedding light on Earth’s geological and climatic history from over 250 million years ago.
What are Palaeofires?
- Palaeofires refer to ancient wildfires that occurred in the Earth’s past, influencing the vegetation, climate, and even the formation of coal.
- These fires, spanning from the Late Silurian (419.2 to 443.8 million years ago) to the Quaternary (2.58 million years ago), left their mark across various landscapes.
|
Ancient Palaeofires in the Godavari Basin:
- Palaeofires, traced back to the Permian period, provide evidence of how fires influenced prehistoric landscapes.
- Advanced techniques like Raman Spectroscopy and FTIR Spectroscopy were used to differentiate between in situ (on-site) and ex situ (transported) charcoal.
- The research also highlighted how sea level changes impacted charcoal deposition, with well-preserved fire signatures during regressive phases and more oxidized charcoal during transgressive phases.
- These findings contribute to understanding carbon storage in the Earth’s crust and provide insights into past climate dynamics and fire behavior.
Role of Palaeofires in Earth’s Past:
- Palaeofires were crucial in shaping Earth’s climate, vegetation, and contributing to coal formation across various geological periods.
- During the Permian period, palaeofires were widespread in Gondwana, affecting plant life and coal deposits.
- Fossil charcoal found in coal-bearing formations like the Raniganj Coalfield suggested a connection between seasonal droughts and wildfires.
- These wildfires influenced vegetation patterns and led to the accumulation of carbon-rich deposits.
- High atmospheric oxygen levels likely intensified these wildfires, significantly affecting both climate and ecosystem changes.
- Understanding palaeofires helps in grasping long-term carbon sequestration processes.
| [UPSC 2001] The approximate age of the Aravalli range is:
Options: (a) 370 million years (b) 470 million years (c) 570 million years* (d) 670 million years |
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Why in the News?
A recent legal dispute between the US and Russia has brought the issue of Total Allowable Catch (TAC) into the spotlight.
About Total Allowable Catch (TAC):
- TAC refers to the maximum quantity of a specific fish species that can be legally harvested in a defined period.
- It is established to prevent overfishing and ensure sustainable fish populations.
- These limits are essential for maintaining ecological balance and supporting long-term fishing industries.
Various Laws Governing TAC:
- TACs are set by international fisheries management organizations like:
- FAO (Food and Agriculture Organization).
- RFMOs (Regional Fisheries Management Organizations) for shared or migratory fish stocks.
- European Union (EU): TACs are managed under the Common Fisheries Policy (CFP), which sets quotas for member states based on scientific advice. Landing obligations ensure that all catches are counted against quotas, preventing waste.
- India: India enforces a seasonal fishing ban in its Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) for 61 days to protect breeding fish. This ban serves as a TAC equivalent of zero for specific periods, supporting fish stock regeneration.
- New Zealand: The Fisheries Act sets TACs for various stocks and specifies catch limits in terms of weight or numbers, updated by official notices.
| [UPSC 2013] The most important fishing grounds of the world are found in the regions where:
Options: (a) Warm and cold atmospheric currents meet (b) Rivers drain out large amounts of freshwater into the sea (c) Warm and cold oceanic currents meet* (d) continental shelf is undulating. |
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