Why in the News?
The Centre will bring a motion of removal against a Judge of the Allahabad High Court and has initiated the process of building an all-party consensus for this action.
Qualifications of Judges of High Court:
- Article 217(2) of the Constitution states that a person is qualified if:
- They have held judicial office in India for at least 10 years, or
- Have been an advocate in a High Court (or more than one in succession) for at least 10 years.
- Tenure: As per Article 217(1), a High Court judge holds office till the age of 62 years.
- Disputes over Age: Under Article 217(3), if a question arises regarding a judge’s age, the President, in consultation with the CJI, makes the final decision.
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Appointment Process of High Court Judges:
- Constitutional Basis: The Article 217 of the Constitution provides that High Court judges are appointed by the President of India after consultation with the Chief Justice of India (CJI), the Governor of the state, and, in the case of judges (not Chief Justices), the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned.
- Role of the Collegium System: The Collegium, comprising the CJI and 2 senior-most judges of the Supreme Court, plays a key role in recommending names for appointments. It ensures collaborative decision-making and maintains the independence of the judiciary.
- Procedure:
-
- The Chief Justice of the High Court initiates the recommendation.
- The proposal is forwarded to the Chief Minister, who advises the Governor.
- The Governor sends it to the Union Law Minister, who places it before the Prime Minister, and then the President for final approval.
- Policy for Chief Justices: To prevent local bias, Chief Justices of High Courts are generally appointed from outside the state.
- Appointments and Transfers: The CJI and senior judges of the Supreme Court also decide on transfers of High Court judges, ensuring judicial autonomy and minimizing executive influence.
Removal:
- Process: Judges of the High Court (and Supreme Court) can only be removed through removal, not by executive action.
- Requires a motion signed by at least 100 Lok Sabha MPs or 50 Rajya Sabha MPs.
- The motion is examined by a three-member committee.
- If the committee finds grounds, the motion is debated and must be passed by a two-thirds majority in both Houses of Parliament.
- Legal Framework: The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 outlines the detailed procedure for investigating and acting upon misconduct by judges.
- In-House Inquiry Mechanism: For internal disciplinary matters:
- The CJI may order a preliminary inquiry based on credible complaints.
- A three-judge panel is constituted if allegations are serious.
- If the committee confirms misconduct, the CJI may ask the judge to resign.
- If the judge refuses, the judicial work is withdrawn, and removal may be considered.
Historical Removal Efforts:
- No judge has been impeached in India, though attempts have been made, including the failed motions against Justice V Ramaswami (1993) and Justice Soumitra Sen (2011).
- Justice V Ramaswami (1993): Faced removal for financial misconduct, but the motion failed in the Lok Sabha.
- Justice Soumitra Sen (2011): Resigned after removal proceedings for misappropriating funds.
- Justice K Veeraswamy: Chief Justice of Madras HC, investigated for corruption but challenged the investigation. The case remained unresolved until his death in 2010.
- Justice Shamit Mukherjee (2003), Justice Nirmal Yadav (2008), and Justice SN Shukla (2017): Faced criminal charges for corruption after in-house inquiries found substantial evidence against them.
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| [UPSC 2007] Consider the following statements:
1. The mode of removal of a Judge of a High Court in India is the same as that of the removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court. 2. After retirement from office, a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) 1 only* (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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Why in the News?
The Hon’ble Supreme Court has ruled that any law passed by Parliament or a State Legislature cannot be considered an act of contempt of court.
Supreme Court’s Verdict on the Issue:
- Context: The Court heard a 2012 contempt plea, alleging that the Chhattisgarh government violated its 2011 ruling against supporting Salwa Judum and arming tribals as SPOs.
- Disputed Law: Petitioners argued the Chhattisgarh Auxiliary Armed Police Force Act, 2011 violated the earlier ruling.
- Court’s Clarification: Passing a new law is within the plenary powers of legislatures and cannot be treated as contempt unless declared unconstitutional.
- Proper Remedy: The correct approach is to challenge the law’s validity, not to file for contempt.
- Separation of Powers: The Court upheld that legislature can modify or override judgments through new laws, if they respect constitutional boundaries.
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About Contempt of Court:
- Purpose: Contempt of court refers to actions or behaviors that are disrespectful to, or that obstruct or interfere with, the administration of justice by a court. It protects the authority and dignity of the judiciary from acts that obstruct or interfere with justice.
- Constitutional Basis:
- Article 129 allows the Supreme Court to punish for its own contempt.
- Article 215 grants the same power to High Courts.
- Article 19(2) permits reasonable speech restrictions for contempt cases.
- Legal Definition: The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 defines contempt; the 2006 amendment allows truth and good faith as defences.
- Types:
- Civil Contempt is the wilful disobedience of court orders.
- Criminal Contempt involves actions that scandalise the court, interfere with proceedings, or obstruct justice.
- Punishment: Offenders may face up to 6 months imprisonment, or a ₹2,000 fine, or both.
- What Is Not Contempt: Fair reporting and genuine criticism of judgments after disposal are not considered contempt.
| [UPSC 2022] Consider the following statements:
1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4* (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 3 only |
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Why in the News?
The Indian government has proposed a phased winding down of the National Polio Surveillance Network (NPSN), a WHO-established network critical to tracking and eliminating polio in India.
About National Polio Surveillance Network (NPSN):
- Launch : The NPSN was established in 1997 as a collaboration between the World Health Organization (WHO) and the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW), Government of India.
- Objective: Its main goal is to detect and monitor the poliovirus in India to enable quick response and containment.
- Operational Structure: The network functions under the National Polio Surveillance Project (NPSP) and includes over 200 field surveillance units across the country.
- Methodology: The core method is Acute Flaccid Paralysis (AFP) surveillance, which tracks sudden paralysis in children under 15 — a key indicator of polio.
- Environmental Surveillance: The NPSN also tests sewage and water samples to detect silent circulation of the virus.
- Laboratory Support: A network of WHO-accredited laboratories confirms virus presence through testing of stool and water samples.
- Rapid Response: Every suspected case is quickly investigated, and public health teams are deployed for control and containment.
- Expanded Role: Over time, NPSN has also supported surveillance for measles, rubella, DPT, and helped train health workers on new vaccines.
Polio and Its Eradication in India:
- About: Polio is a highly infectious viral disease primarily affecting children under 5, potentially causing paralysis or death.
- Transmission: The disease spreads via the faecal-oral route, mostly through contaminated water or food.
- Types of Polioviruses:
- WPV1 still exists in Pakistan and Afghanistan.
- WPV2 and WPV3 have been eradicated globally.
- Infection Mechanism: Once inside the body, the virus multiplies in the intestines and may attack the nervous system, causing permanent paralysis.
- Prevention through Vaccination:
- Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) is given at birth, 6, 10, and 14 weeks, with a booster at 16–24 months.
- Injectable Polio Vaccine (IPV) is administered with the third DPT dose under the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP).
- Pulse Polio Campaign (1995): India launched the Pulse Polio Immunization Campaign, providing oral polio drops to all children under 5.
- Eradication Milestones: The last wild polio case in India was reported in 2011, and in 2014, WHO officially declared India polio-free.
- Role of NPSN: The success was enabled by strong surveillance, mass immunization, and dedicated work by NPSN and its partners.
| [UPSC 2016] ‘Mission Indradhanush’ launched by the Government of India pertains to:
(a) Immunization of children and pregnant women*
(b) Construction of smart cities across the country
(c) India’s own search for the Earth-like planets in outer space
(d) New Educational Policy |
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Why in the News?
Researchers from the Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT) have discovered antibiotic-producing bacteria in the Rajgir hot spring in Nalanda, Bihar.
What are Thermophilic Bacteria?
- About: Thermophilic bacteria, or thermophiles (meaning “heat lovers”), are microorganisms that thrive in high-temperature environments ranging from 45°C to 70°C.
- Adaptation: These temperatures can cause third-degree burns in humans, but thermophiles are biologically adapted to survive and grow in such conditions.
- Habitats: They are commonly found in hot springs, deep-sea hydrothermal vents, and compost piles, which are mineral-rich and have low microbial competition.
- Advantages: Some thermophiles produce potent antibiotics to outcompete other microbes and dominate their niche.
- Global Example: Thermophiles from hot springs in Saudi Arabia have shown antibacterial activity against gram-positive pathogens.
Key Findings from India:
- Sampling Challenge: Samples were collected from water and soil at 43°C–45°C, making fieldwork difficult.
- Microbial Analysis: In the sample, Actinobacteria made up 40–43% of the microbial population, double the typical amount in hot springs.
- Significance: Actinobacteria are well known for producing key antibiotics like streptomycin and tetracycline.
- AMR Context: The findings are crucial in the fight against antimicrobial resistance (AMR), which could cost $1 trillion globally by 2050, according to the WHO.
- Antibiotic Potential:
- Lab Testing: Seven Actinobacteria strains were found to inhibit pathogens such as E. coli, Salmonella, Klebsiella, Pseudomonas, and Staphylococcus aureus.
- Compound Discovery: Scientists identified diethyl phthalate using GC-MS, which showed effectiveness against Listeria monocytogenes, a deadly foodborne pathogen.
- Future Scope: The compound has potential for antibiotic development, but not all thermophiles produce antibiotics, so screening is essential.
- Uses:
- Industrial Use: The enzyme Taq polymerase, used in PCR tests (including during COVID-19), is derived from a thermophile called Thermus aquaticus.
- Agricultural Use: A 2018 BHU study showed thermophiles from Chumathang hot springs (Leh) promote plant growth, revealing wider industrial and ecological value.
| [UPSC 2023] Consider the following statements:
1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water.
2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water.
3. Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3. How many of the above statements are correct?
Options: (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three* (d) All four |
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Why in the News?
A high-powered committee chaired by Principal Scientific Advisor (PSA) Ajay Sood has proposed that India should discontinue the mandatory use of Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) units in most coal-fired Thermal Power Plants (TPPs).
Why mandatory FGDs are opposed?
- Low SO₂ Levels: India’s SO₂ levels (10–20 µg/m³) are already below the permissible limit of 80 µg/m³.
- Low Sulphur Coal: Indian coal naturally has low sulphur content.
- Minimal Impact: Studies show no major air quality difference between plants with and without FGDs.
- Limited PM Reduction: FGDs have minimal effect on particulate matter levels.
- Environmental Trade-Offs:
- CO₂ Increase: Installing FGDs would add 69 million tonnes of CO₂ emissions (2025–2030).
- SO₂ Reduction: Emissions would fall by 17 million tonnes, but the climate cost outweighs the benefit.
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About Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD):
- Purpose: FGD is a technology used to remove sulphur dioxide (SO₂) from flue gases produced by burning coal and oil, especially in thermal power plants.
- Environmental Benefit: It helps prevent acid rain, which harms crops, buildings, soils, and aquatic ecosystems.
- Chemicals Used: Common absorbents include limestone (CaCO₃), lime (CaO), and ammonia (NH₃).
- Types of Systems:
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- Dry Sorbent Injection: Cost-effective, but less efficient.
- Wet Limestone-Based: Effective and used in large plants, produces gypsum.
- Seawater-Based: Uses alkaline seawater, ideal for coastal areas.
FGD Mandate in India:
- Current Status: FGD units are being installed in 537 coal-based thermal power units, but 92% of India’s 600 plants still lack them.
- Committee Recommendation: An expert panel advised exempting 80% of plants from FGD requirements due to feasibility issues.
- Implementation Barriers: Limited vendors available; High costs and risk of increased electricity tariffs.
| [UPSC 2023] Consider the following:
1. Carbon monoxide 2. Nitrogen oxide 3. Ozone 4. Sulphur dioxide Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain?
Options: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 only* (c) 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 |
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Why in the News?
On June 5, World Environment Day, Prime Minister Narendra Modi is expected to launch the Aravalli Green Wall Project.
About the Aravallis:
- Geology: The Aravalli Range is one of the oldest fold mountain ranges in the world, formed during the Proterozoic era.
- Spread: It stretches for about 692 km, from Gujarat to Delhi, passing through Rajasthan and Haryana.
- State-Wise Coverage: Around 80% of the range lies in Rajasthan, with the rest spread across Haryana, Delhi, and Gujarat.
- Highest Peak: The tallest point is Guru Shikhar in Mount Abu, Rajasthan, with an elevation of 1,722 meters.
- Natural Barrier Function: Acts as a green wall, preventing the spread of the Thar Desert into eastern Rajasthan and the Gangetic plains.
- River Origins: Important rivers such as the Banas, Sahibi and Luni originate from the Aravallis.
- Minerals: Rich in minerals like copper, zinc, lead, and marble.
- Biodiversity: Home to 300+ bird species and key wildlife such as leopards, hyenas, jackals, wolves, civets, and Nilgai.
- Prehistoric Significance: Contains cave art and tools from the Lower Palaeolithic period.
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What is the Aravalli Green Wall Project?
- Project Goal: To build a green corridor from Delhi to Gujarat combating desertification and ecological degradation.
- States Involved: Includes Delhi, Rajasthan, Haryana, and Gujarat, focusing on restoring degraded landscapes.
- Vegetation Strategy: Focus on removing Prosopis juliflora (invasive species) and planting native trees like:
- Khair (Indian Gum Arabic)
- Ronjh (White-barked Acacia)
- Dhau (Axlewood)
- Salai (Indian Frankincense)
- Pilkhan, Neem, Amaltas, Goolar, Peepal
- Buffer Zone Creation: A 6.45 million hectare buffer zone will be established around the Aravallis.
- Phase 1 Focus:
- Delhi: 3,010 ha in South Delhi
- Haryana: 25,000 ha in Gurugram, Faridabad, Mahendragarh
- Global Commitments supported:
- Paris Agreement: Target to create 2.5–3 billion tonnes CO₂ sink
- Bonn Challenge: Restore 26 million hectares of land by 2030
| [UPSC 2001] The approximate age of the Aravallis range is.
Options: (a) 370 million years (b) 470 million years (c) 570 million years* (d) 670 million years |
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Why in the News?
Union Minister of State for Science & Technology has launched ‘Bharat Gen’, India’s first indigenously developed AI-based Large Language Model (LLM) tailored for Indian languages.
About Bharat Gen:
- What is it: Bharat Gen is India’s first homegrown AI-based multimodal large language model (LLM) supporting 22 Indian languages.
- Developed By: Created under the National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS) and implemented by the TIH Foundation for IoT and IoE at IIT Bombay.
- Key Features:
- Understands text, speech, and image inputs.
- Works across India’s diverse languages and cultures.
- Designed to be ethical, inclusive, and culturally rooted.
- Support and Collaboration: Backed by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) and developed in collaboration with top academic and AI institutions.
- Bharat Data Sagar: A national effort to collect language data for lesser-known Indian languages to train future AI tools.
- Real-World Use: In places like Udhampur, an AI doctor powered by Bharat Gen is helping patients in their native language.
What are Large Language Models (LLMs)?
- LLMs are computer programs that can read, understand, and write language like humans. They can answer questions, explain topics, write stories, translate languages, and more.
- Why are they called “large”?
- They are trained using a huge amount of text from books, websites, newspapers, etc.
- They also have billions of settings (called parameters) that help them understand words and sentences better.
- How do they work?
- LLMs break your sentence into small parts (called tokens).
- They guess the next word in the sentence, one by one, using what they’ve learned.
- This is how they create full and meaningful answers.
- How are they trained?
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- Step 1 – Pre-training: The LLM reads lots of text and learns how language works.
- Step 2 – Fine-tuning: It is then taught how to do specific tasks like summarising or translating.
- Step 3 – Human Help: People check the answers and give feedback, so the LLM learns to give better responses.
- How do LLMs understand language so well? They use a special model called a transformer, which has tools to:
- Focus on important words in a sentence (self-attention).
- Understand the order of words (positional encoding).
- Learn patterns and meaning using neural networks (like a brain made of computer code).
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| [UPSC 2020] With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following?
(1) Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units (2) Create meaningful short stories and songs (3) Disease diagnosis (4) Text-to-Speech Conversion (5) Wireless transmission of electrical energy Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Options: (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only* (c) 2, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 |
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Why in the News?
The recent terror attack in Pahalgam has led to lower turnout at the annual Jyestha Ashtami festival at the Kheer Bhawani temple in Kashmir.
About the Kheer Bhawani Festival:
- What is it: The Kheer Bhawani Festival, also called Mela Kheer Bhawani, is celebrated every year on Jyestha Ashtami by the Kashmiri Pandit community.
- Location of Celebration: It takes place at the Kheer Bhawani Temple in Tulmulla village, Ganderbal district, Jammu and Kashmir.
- Deity Worshipped: The temple is dedicated to Goddess Ragnya Devi, an important deity in the Kashmiri Hindu tradition.
- Sacred Spring and Ritual: The temple sits over a natural spring. Devotees offer kheer (rice and milk pudding) as a sacred offering.
- Largest Kashmiri Hindu Gathering: It is the biggest Hindu religious gathering in the Kashmir Valley after the Amarnath Yatra.
- Beliefs about Water Color: Devotees believe that the spring’s color changes based on the region’s condition:
- Light colors mean good times.
- Black water is a warning sign (reportedly turned black in 1990, just before the Kashmiri Pandit Massacre).
- Historical Legacy: The temple structure was built by Maharaja Pratap Singh and later renovated by Maharaja Hari Singh in the early 1900s.
- Ancient Mentions: References to the site are found in Kalhana’s Rajtarangini, Bhrigu Samhita, and Abu’l-Fazl’s Ain-i-Akbari, which also mentions flooding in Tula Mula.
Significance of the Festival and Temple:
- Cultural Importance: The temple serves as a symbol of faith and identity for Kashmiri Pandits, especially those displaced.
- Communal Harmony: Local Muslim communities assist in festival arrangements, showcasing communal unity and harmony.
- Spiritual Symbolism: The temple spring, called Syandh, holds spiritual meaning and is not connected to the Sindhu (Indus) River.
| [UPSC 2018] Consider the following pairs:
Tradition – State
1. Chapchar Kut festival — Mizoram
2. Khongjom Parba ballad — Manipur
3. Thong-To dance — Sikkim
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2* (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 |
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Why in the News?
Flowering plants appeared around 130 million years ago and rapidly diversified, puzzling scientists including Charles Darwin, who called it an “abominable mystery”.
A new study by CSIR-CCMB, Hyderabad, has identified the SHUKR gene, which controls pollen development in flowering plants.
About the SHUKR Gene in Flowering Plants
- What is SHUKR? It is a newly discovered gene found in flowering plants like Arabidopsis thaliana. It plays a key role in forming pollen, which plants need to reproduce.
- Function in the Plant Life Cycle: SHUKR is active during the sporophyte phase (the main plant body stage) and helps in producing healthy, viable pollen.
- Effect of Gene Loss: If SHUKR is missing or not working, the plant fails to make good pollen, leading to poor or no reproduction.
- How SHUKR Works: It controls F-box genes, which remove old proteins and replace them with new ones to help pollen grow well.
- Adaptive Advantage: SHUKR and F-box genes evolve quickly, allowing plants to adjust to harsh conditions like heat, cold, or drought.
- Evolutionary Origin: This gene first appeared 125 million years ago in eudicots, a plant group that now includes three-fourths of all flowering plants.
- Why it matters: SHUKR shows that pollen-making is closely linked with the rest of the plant, challenging the earlier belief that these processes were separate.
- Significance: Climate change causes heat-induced pollen damage in flowering plants, but genes like SHUKR could help develop climate-resilient crops.
Back2Basics: Darwin’s “Abominable Mystery”
- Darwin’s Confusion: Charles Darwin was puzzled by the sudden appearance and rapid spread of flowering plants about 130 million years ago — calling it an “abominable mystery”.
- Mismatch with Evolutionary Pace: According to standard evolution theory, species change slowly over time, but flowering plants diversified very quickly, showing great variety.
- Genetic Explanation: The SHUKR gene may solve this mystery by showing how flowering plants gained molecular tools to adapt and reproduce faster.
- New Insight: This discovery offers a genetic explanation for the rapid rise of flowering plants and helps clarify Darwin’s long-standing puzzle.
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| [UPSC 2017] Consider the following statements:
1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants.
2. This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants.
3. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops.
Select the correct- answer using the code given below:
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only* (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
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Why in the News?
Assam CM Himanta Biswa Sarma dismissed Pakistan’s claim about China blocking the Brahmaputra’s water as a baseless panic tactic with no scientific substance.
Sarma’s Clarification on the Brahmaputra Issue:
- Brahmaputra is an Indian river and not fully controlled by China.
- Only about 30–35% of the river’s flow comes from China, mainly through glacial melt and rainfall on the Tibetan Plateau.
- A major 65–70% of the river’s volume is generated within India, especially from monsoon rains and Indian tributaries.
- He explained that the river’s flow increases from 2,000–3,000 cubic metres/second at the Indo-China border to 15,000–20,000 m³/s in Assam during the monsoon.
- This proves that India plays a dominant role in sustaining the river, not China.
- Even if China tried to restrict the river’s flow, it could help reduce annual floods in Assam that displace thousands of people.
- He confirmed that China has never threatened to weaponize the Brahmaputra.
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About Brahmaputra River System:
- The Brahmaputra River System is one of the major Himalayan drainage systems, along with the Ganga and Indus.
- Stretch: It stretches over 2,900 kilometres, making it one of the longest rivers in Asia.
- Origin: It originates in the Chemayungdung glacier in southwestern Tibet, where it is known as the Tsangpo River.
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- The river flows through Tibet, India (Arunachal Pradesh and Assam), and Bangladesh.
- In Tibet, the river flows slowly with a wide, navigable channel for about 640 km.
- Upon entering India through Arunachal Pradesh, it becomes the Dihang, and later merges with Lohit and Dibang rivers to be called the Brahmaputra.
- In Bangladesh, it is called the Jamuna, which merges with the Ganga (Padma) and Meghna before flowing into the Bay of Bengal.
- The world’s largest and smallest river islands, Majuli and Umananda, are located on the Brahmaputra in Assam.
- Important Tributaries:
- Left-bank tributaries: Lhasa, Nyang, Parlung Zangbo, Lohit, Dhanashri, Kolong
- Right-bank tributaries: Kameng, Manas, Beki, Raidak, Jaldhaka, Teesta, Subansiri
- States the River Flows Through in India: Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Meghalaya, Nagaland, West Bengal, and Sikkim.
- Major Cities on the River: Dibrugarh, Pasighat, Neamati, Tezpur, and Guwahati.
- Major Hydel Projects:
- Arunachal Pradesh: Subansiri, Kameng, Ranganadi, etc.
- Assam: Kopili
- Sikkim: Teesta, Rangit
- Meghalaya, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram: Multiple local hydropower stations
| [UPSC 2016] With reference to the Brahmaputra River, which of the following is/are tributary/ tributaries of Brahmaputra?
1. Dibang
2. Kameng
3. Lohit
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d)1, 2 and 3* |
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Why in the News?
D Gukesh, the reigning World Chess Champion, achieved a milestone by defeating world No. 1 Magnus Carlsen for the first time in a classical game during Round 6 of Norway Chess.
Who is D. Gukesh?
- About: D Gukesh is an Indian chess grandmaster (born on May 29, 2006) and the current World Chess Champion.
- Early Start: He started playing chess at the age of seven and quickly rose to fame due to his extraordinary skill.
- Topmost Indian Player: In September 2023, he became India’s highest-rated chess player, ending Viswanathan Anand’s 37-year reign.
- Global Recognition: He is considered one of the most talented chess prodigies in the world today.
His Accomplishments:
- FIDE Master Title: In 2015, he became a FIDE Master after winning the Under-9 Asian School Chess Championship.
- International Master: In March 2018, he became an International Master at the age of 11.
- Grandmaster Milestone: At 12 years and 7 months, he became the second-youngest Grandmaster in history.
- World Youth Champion: He won the Under-12 World Youth Chess Championship in 2018.
- Asian Youth Success: He won five gold medals at the 2018 Asian Youth Championships in classical, rapid, blitz, and team events.
- Chess Olympiad 2022: In the 44th Chess Olympiad, he won individual gold on board one and helped India win team bronze.
- Victory Over Carlsen: In 2022, he defeated Magnus Carlsen in rapid chess at the Aimchess Rapid tournament.
- Crossed 2700 Elo: He crossed the 2700 Elo rating in 2022, becoming the third-youngest to achieve it.
- Broke Carlsen’s Record: In August 2023, he crossed 2750 Elo, becoming the youngest ever to do so.
- Candidates Tournament: He won the 2024 Candidates Tournament, becoming the youngest player to ever win it.
- World Champion Title: On December 12, 2024, at 18 years and 195 days, he defeated Ding Liren to become the youngest undisputed World Chess Champion.
- Indian Chess Legacy: He became only the second Indian after Viswanathan Anand to win the world title.
- Chess Olympiad 2024: At the 45th Chess Olympiad, he helped India win team gold and secured individual gold.
- National Honour: In January 2025, he received the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award, India’s highest sporting honour.
| [UPSC 2025] Consider the following statements:
I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world’s youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Ian Nepomniachtchi.
II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world’s youngest ever Grandmaster.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: a) I only b) II only* c) Both I and II d) Neither I nor II |
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Why in the News?
The aftermath of Operation Sindoor highlights India’s strategic concerns over the proposed Zangezur Corridor in Armenia backed by Azerbaijan and Turkiye.
About the Zangezur Corridor:
- What it is: The Zangezur Corridor is a proposed land route through Armenia’s Syunik Province that would connect Azerbaijan to its Nakhchivan region, cutting across Armenian land.
- Who supports it: Azerbaijan and Turkiye back the project. They want a direct link without Armenian border checks or customs interference.
- Route Details: The corridor would be about 43–44 km long and pass near the Iran-Armenia border, giving it high geopolitical value.
- Why it’s controversial:
- Azerbaijan sees it as a post-war right after its win in the 2020 Nagorno-Karabakh conflict.
- Armenia insists it must have full control and sovereignty over any transport through its territory.
- Turkiye’s Interest: It wants to use this corridor as part of its Middle Corridor project to connect with Central Asia and Europe via land routes.
- Opposition: Iran and Armenia oppose the corridor, fearing it could:
- Isolate Armenia,
- Weaken Iranian access, and
- Threaten Armenia’s territorial integrity.
How it concerns India?
- Strategic Ties: India is a key defence partner for Armenia and supports regional stability in the South Caucasus.
- Trade Ambitions: India is:
- Developing Chabahar Port in Iran,
- Working on a transport route via Iran–Armenia–Georgia to Europe, bypassing Pakistan and the Suez Canal.
- Concerns: If the Zangezur Corridor bypasses Armenian control, it could:
-
- Disrupt India’s land trade route to Europe,
- Reduce Iran’s regional access,
- Weaken India’s strategic reach.
- Larger Geo-Politics: Turkiye and Azerbaijan’s growing influence in the region is worrying for India, especially since Turkiye opposes India’s IMEC (India-Middle East-Europe Corridor).
- India’s Stand: India supports Armenia’s sovereignty and opposes unilateral moves, aiming to:
- Protect its trade routes,
- Preserve strategic balance, and
- Counter regional encirclement.
| [UPSC 2023] Consider the following pairs:
Regions often mentioned in news : Reason for being in news
1. North Kivu and Ituri : War between Armenia an Azerbaijan
2. Nagorno-Karabakh : Insurgency in Mozambique
3. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia : Dispute between Israel and Lebanon How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Options: (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None * |
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Why in the news?
As of May 17, Iran holds 408.6 kg of enriched uranium (near to the weapons-grade level) up to 60%, up sharply from 274.8 kg in February 2024, according to the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA).
About the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA):
- What it is: The IAEA is an international organization that promotes the peaceful use of nuclear energy and ensures it is not used for making nuclear weapons.
- Establishment: It was created in 1957 following U.S. President Dwight Eisenhower’s “Atoms for Peace” speech. It is autonomous but reports to the UN General Assembly and Security Council.
- Where it is based: Its headquarters is in Vienna, Austria, at the UN Office.
- Members: The IAEA has 178 member countries, including India, which was a founding member.
-
- Promote peaceful nuclear technology use.
- Prevent nuclear weapon development through safeguards.
- Set safety and security standards for nuclear plants and materials.
-
- It monitors the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) to make sure countries don’t misuse nuclear materials.
- It performs inspections, gives training, and supports countries in nuclear emergencies.
- Recognition: In 2005, the IAEA won the Nobel Peace Prize for stopping the spread of nuclear weapons.
IAEA and India:
- India is a founding member: It supports the IAEA’s mission for peaceful nuclear development.
- Nuclear Reactors Monitoring: Out of 22 nuclear reactors, 14 are monitored by the IAEA. These reactors use imported uranium from Russia, Kazakhstan, and Canada.
- Obligations imposed: In 2014, under the Indo-U.S. Civil Nuclear Agreement, India accepted IAEA safeguards to show transparency.
| [UPSC 2020] In India, why are some nuclear reactors kept “IAEA Safeguards” while others are not?
Options: (a) Some use uranium and others use thorium (b) Some use imported uranium, and others use domestic supplies* (c) Some are operated by foreign enterprises and others are operated by domestic (d) Some are State-owned and others are privately-owned |
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Why in the News?
A recent archaeological survey has confirmed that Daojali Hading, located in Assam’s Dima Hasao district, was a Neolithic habitation zone over 2,700 years ago.
About Daojali Hading Neolithic Site:
- Location: It is an important Neolithic archaeological site located in Dima Hasao district, Assam, within the Langting-Mupa Reserve Forest.
- How old is it: Recent surveys by a multidisciplinary team have confirmed the site as a settled Neolithic habitation zone, over 2,700 years old.
- Key discoveries:
- Furnace remains and iron slag, indicating early metallurgical activity.
- Cord-marked pottery, grinding stones, mortars and pestles, and polished stone tools such as arrowheads, celts, and adzes.
- Significance: These findings suggest that Daojali Hading was not just a tool-making site, but a functioning settlement where people lived, cooked, crafted tools, and worked with metals.
Back2Basics: Neolithic Period in India
- The Neolithic Age in India began around 7,000 B.C. and lasted until 1,000 B.C. It is the final phase of the Stone Age, following the Palaeolithic and Mesolithic Ages.
- This period is marked by:
- The beginning of settled agriculture andthe domestication of animals.
- Use of polished stone tools like axes, celts, and chisels.
- Construction of mud and reed houses, sometimes using mud bricks.
- Introduction of pottery in forms like grey ware, black burnished ware, and mat-impressed ware.
- A community lifestyle with shared ownership of land and tools.
- Neolithic people in India grew wheat, barley, rice, cotton, horse gram, and ragi, and domesticated cattle, goats, and sheep.
- They lived in circular or rectangular houses, near rivers and lakes, and relied on hunting, fishing, and early farming.
Major Neolithic Sites in India:
| Region |
Site |
Key Features |
| North-Western India |
Burzahom (Kashmir) |
Pit dwellings, stone tools, and animal domestication |
| Gufkral (Kashmir) |
Early agriculture and handmade pottery |
| North India |
Chirand (Bihar) |
Polished tools, fishing economy |
| North-East India |
Daojali Hading (Assam) |
Discussed above. |
| South India |
Utnur (Andhra Pradesh) |
Large stone structures, farming tools |
| Pakistan (Indian Subcontinent) |
Mehrgarh (Balochistan) |
Earliest Neolithic site, settled farming, and granaries |
| [UPSC 2021] Question: Consider the following pairs:
Historical place: Well known for
1. Burzahom : Rock cut shrines
2. Chandraketugarh : Terracotta art
3. Ganeshwar: Copper artefacts
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3* |
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Why in the News?
The Valley of Flowers in Uttarakhand opened to tourists on June 1 for its annual four-month window.
About the Valley of Flowers National Park:
- Location: The park is in Chamoli district, Uttarakhand, within the Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve.
- Altitude and Size: It covers 87 square kilometres and lies at 3,352 to 3,658 metres above sea level.
- Protected Status: Declared a National Park in 1980 and became a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1988.
- Natural Features: Known for its colourful meadows, dense forests, waterfalls, and snow-capped mountains.
- Mountain Range: Lies in the transition zone between the Zanskar and Great Himalaya ranges.
- River System: The Pushpawati River, from the Tipra Glacier, flows through the valley into the Alaknanda River.
- Ecosystem: It is part of the Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve, which was named a UNESCO Man and Biosphere (MAB) Reserve in 2004.
Flora and Fauna of the Valley:
- Plant Diversity: The valley has over 520–650 species of flowers like orchids, primulas, poppies, daisies, and the sacred brahmakamal.
- Flora by Altitude Zones:
-
- Sub-alpine (3,200–3,500 m): Trees like maple, fir, birch, and rhododendron.
- Lower alpine (3,500–3,700 m): Shrubs like junipers, willows, and geraniums.
- Higher alpine (above 3,700 m): Mosses, lichens, and the blue Himalayan poppy.
- Animal Life: Includes rare species like the Asiatic black bear, snow leopard, musk deer, brown bear, red fox, and the Himalayan monal bird.
| [UPSC 2019] Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?
Options: (a) Manas National Park (b) Namdapha National Park (c) Neora Valley National Park (d) Valley of Flowers National Park* |
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Why in the News?
The Jharkhand government has announced to establish its first tiger safari in the fringe area of the Barwadih Western Forest Range in Latehar district, which is part of the Palamau Tiger Reserve (PTR).
What is a Tiger Safari?
- About: A tiger safari is a tourist activity where visitors observe tigers in natural-like habitats, usually around tiger reserves.
- Legal Status: The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 does NOT define tiger safaris but restricts construction in protected areas unless approved by the National Board for Wildlife.
- Policy Origin: The idea was formally introduced in 2012 by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) under its tourism guidelines.
- Rules on Tiger Inclusion (2016): Initially, safaris were allowed only in buffer or fringe zones and could host rescued or conflict tigers, not zoo-bred ones.
- Amended Rules (2019): The NTCA later allowed even zoo-bred tigers, with Central Zoo Authority (CZA) in charge of animal welfare.
- Supreme Court Ruling (2024): The court ordered that safaris must be built outside core and buffer zones to protect wild habitats.
About Jharkhand’s Tiger Safari Project:
- Location: Planned in the Barwadih Western Range, outside core and buffer zones of Palamau Tiger Reserve (PTR), in line with the Supreme Court’s order.
- Animal Inclusion: Will house only rescued, injured, or orphaned tigers from various reserves and zoos — not wild tigers from PTR.
- Tourism and Employment: The project aims to boost tourism and create jobs for around 200 locals as guides and staff.
- Approval Process: The plan is still in early stages. After state Forest Department approval, a Detailed Project Report (DPR) will go to NTCA and CZA.
Back2Basics: Palamu Tiger Reserve
- It is located in Jharkhand’s Latehar and Garhwa districts, is one of India’s oldest tiger reserves, established under Project Tiger in 1973.
- Spanning over 1,014 sq. km, it features a diverse landscape of valleys, hills, plains and is nourished by rivers like the North Koel, Auranga, and Burha.
- The reserve is rich in moist and dry deciduous forests, dominated by Sal and bamboo.
- It is home to key wildlife species, including tigers, Asiatic elephants, leopards, and sloth bears.
|
| [UPSC 2020] Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”?
Options: (a) Corbett (b) Ranthambore (c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam* (d) Sunderbans |
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Why in the News?
Prime Minister paid tributes to Lokmata Ahilyabai Holkar on her 300th birth anniversary.
About Ahilyabai Holkar:
- Early Life: Born on May 31, 1725, in Chondi village, (in erstwhile Ahilyanagar District) Maharashtra, Ahilyabai belonged to the Shephard community. Her father, a village head, taught her to read and write—rare for girls then.
- Marriage and Loss: Married to Khande Rao Holkar in 1733, she was widowed in 1754. Her father-in-law, Malhar Rao Holkar, saw her potential and stopped her from committing sati.
- Rise to power: After the deaths of her husband, father-in-law, and son, she became ruler of Malwa in 1765 with support from the Peshwa and her army.
- Capital and Leadership: She moved the capital to Maheshwar, making it a centre of culture, governance, and trade.
- Military and Administration: Ahilyabai personally led armies and appointed Tukoji Rao Holkar as military commander. She promoted justice, welfare, and agricultural growth.
Legacy and Contributions:
- Temple Restoration: Rebuilt presend-day Kashi Vishwanath Temple in 1780 and renovated shrines across India, including in Somnath, Haridwar, Pushkar, and Rameswaram.
- Pilgrim Support: Built rest houses, pilgrim shelters, and ghats to support religious travellers.
- Maheshwari Sari and Weavers: Promoted the handloom industry, empowering local weavers and women economically.
- Social Reforms: Protected widows’ rights, supported tribal communities, and ran a secular and inclusive administration.
- Cultural Patronage: Her court welcomed poets and scholars, including Moropant and Khushali Ram, making Maheshwar an intellectual hub.
- Peaceful Rule: Her 30-year reign was free from war, making Malwa a rare place of peace and prosperity in a chaotic era.
- Recognition: Jawaharlal Nehru called her an able ruler; British historian John Keay called her “The Philosopher Queen”.
- Ongoing Honour: A proposal exists to rename Ahmednagar in Maharashtra as Punyashlok Ahilyadevi Nagar in her memory.
| [UPSC 2009] With reference to Stree Shakti Puraskar, for which of the following is ‘Devi Ahilya Bai Holkar Award’ given?
Options: (a) Administrative skills (b) Achievements in Scientific Research (c) Achievements in Sports and Games (d) Courage and valour* |
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Why in the News?
Scientists at Jawaharlal Nehru Centre for Advanced Scientific Research (JNCASR), Bengaluru have developed a super-fast charging Sodium-ion battery.
About Sodium-Ion Battery and Its Working:
- What it is: Sodium-ion batteries are rechargeable batteries that use sodium (Na⁺) ions to carry electric charge, instead of lithium.
- How it works: During charging and discharging, sodium ions move between the anode (negative) and cathode (positive) — similar to how lithium-ion batteries function.
- Innovation: A sodium-ion battery developed by JNCASR uses NASICON-type chemistry, a special material structure that ensures fast ion movement and stability.
- Performance Boost: The team used nano-particles, added a carbon coating, and used aluminium doping to improve charging speed and battery life.
- Fast Charging & Long Life: The battery can charge up to 80% in 6 minutes and last over 3,000 charge-discharge cycles.
- Tested for Safety: The battery passed tests using electrochemical cycling and quantum simulations, proving it is safe and durable.
Advantages over Lithium-Ion Batteries:
- Sodium is abundant and cheaper than lithium, and it can be extracted from seawater.
- Sodium-ion batteries are safer, as they can be transported at zero voltage and used in high temperatures without risk of fire.
- They are more eco-friendly, with less environmental damage during extraction compared to lithium.
- Material costs are lower because they use aluminium instead of copper.
- India can reduce its dependence on China, which controls much of the lithium battery supply chain.
- These batteries are ideal for renewable energy applications, such as solar grids, electric vehicles, drones, and rural electrification in extreme climates.
| [UPSC 2025] In the context of electric vehicles, consider the following elements:
I. Cobalt II. Graphite III. Lithium IV. Nickel
How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?
(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three * (d) All the four |
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Why in the News?
The Minister of State for Commerce and Industry inaugurated the new unified headquarters of the Quality Council of India (QCI) at the World Trade Centre in New Delhi.
About Quality Council of India (QCI):
- Establishment: QCI was set up in 1997 as an autonomous, non-profit body through a public-private partnership between the GoI and industry associations ASSOCHAM, CII, and FICCI.
- Legal Status: It is registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860.
- Leadership: Ratan Tata was QCI’s first Chairman; the current chairman is appointed by Prime Minister.
- Parent Department: QCI works under the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
- Role: Acts as India’s national accreditation body, offering independent assessments of products, services, and processes.
- Mission: To improve quality standards in key areas like education, healthcare, environment, governance, and infrastructure.
- Financial Model: It is a self-sustaining organisation, generating its own revenue without regular government funding.
Structure, Divisions, and Key Functions:
- Governing Council: A 38-member council with equal representation from government, industry, and stakeholders oversees QCI.
- Key Divisions: QCI operates through 5 major boards, each focusing on a different sector:
-
- National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories
- National Accreditation Board for Hospitals and Healthcare Providers
- National Accreditation Board for Education and Training
- National Accreditation Board for Certification Bodies
- National Board for Quality Promotion
- Core Activities:
- Develops accreditation systems and quality frameworks.
- Conducts third-party audits for schemes like Swachh Bharat Abhiyan and Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana.
- Runs the National Quality Campaign to build a culture of quality across sectors.
- Helps boost India’s global competitiveness through quality certification and awareness initiatives.
| [UPSC 2017] With reference to Quality Council of India (QCI), consider the following statements:
1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry.
2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2* (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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Why in the News?
The 17th edition of the India–Mongolia Joint Military Exercise NOMADIC ELEPHANT is being held in Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia from May 31 to June 13, 2025.
About Exercise NOMADIC ELEPHANT:
- About: It is a bilateral military exercise between the Indian Army and the Mongolian Armed Forces.
- Launch Year: It was first conducted in 2004 in Mongolia, followed by the second edition in 2005 in Vairengte, Mizoram.
- Frequency and Hosting: The exercise is held annually, with India and Mongolia alternating as hosts.
- Recent Editions: The 15th edition was conducted in Ulaanbaatar in July 2023, and the 16th edition was held at Umroi, Meghalaya in July 2024.
Objectives and Focus:
- Interoperability: The main goal is to improve joint operational coordination between the two-armed forces.
- Terrain Focus: It trains troops for task force operations in semi-urban and mountainous regions under a UN peacekeeping mandate.
- Counter-Terrorism Training: The exercise enhances capabilities in counter-terrorism and counter-insurgency operations.
- Regional Cooperation: It helps build mutual trust, encourages regional peace, and supports strategic cooperation.
| [UPSC 2008] ‘Hand-in-Hand 2007’, a joint anti-terrorism military training was held by the officers of the Indian Army and officers of the Army of which one of the following countries?
Options: (a) China (b) Japan (c) Russia (d) USA* |
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