💥Join UPSC 2027,2028 Mentorship (July Batch) + XFactor Notes & Microthemes PDF
Talk to Mentor

Civilsdaily

Login

Type: Prelims Only

  • Sarhul Festival Celebrations in Jharkhand

    Why in the News?

    On April 1, 2025, tribals in Jharkhand and the larger Chhotanagpur region will celebrate Sarhul, marking both the New Year and the arrival of spring.

    About Sarhul Festival

    • Sarhul is a significant Adivasi festival celebrated in Jharkhand and the Chhotanagpur region, covering parts of Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and Bihar.
    • It is celebrated in the Hindu month of Chaitra, typically three days after the appearance of the new moon.
      • It marks the new year and celebrates the arrival of spring.
    • It is celebrated by various tribes, including Oraon, Munda, Santal, Khadia, and Ho, each with its own unique customs.
    • The Sal tree (Shorea robusta) is venerated as the abode of Sarna Maa, the deity who protects the village from natural calamities and misfortunes.
    • The festival symbolizes the union of the Sun and Earth.
      • The pahan (male priest) represents the Sun, while his wife, the pahen, symbolizes the Earth. This union is essential for sustaining life, emphasizing the connection between sunlight and soil.
    • It also marks the renewal of life.
    • After the rituals, Adivasis begin ploughing their fields, sowing crops, or gathering produce from the forest.

    Cultural Significance of Sarhul

    • Sarhul evolved from a hunting festival to one that celebrates agriculture, reflecting the changing lifestyle of the Adivasi communities.
    • Sarhul is a cultural movement to preserve Adivasi heritage amidst urbanization and modernization, helping reinforce tribal identity.
    • Over time, Sarhul has become a platform for Adivasi political assertion, with some groups using the festival to demand the recognition of Sarna religion and its inclusion in India’s caste census.
    • Sarhul has also become a means for advocating tribal rights and social justice, particularly through the leadership of Baba Karthik Oraon.
    [UPSC 2018] Consider the following pairs: Tradition State

    1. Chapchar Kut festival — Mizoram

    2. Khongjom Parba ballad — Manipur

    3. Thong-To dance — Sikkim

    Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3

     

  • India’s Coal Dependence rose to 79%

    Why in the News?

    According to MoSPI’s Energy Statistics in India 2025, coal contributed 79% to India’s total energy generation, amounting to 16,906 petajoules (PJ), marking a 2% increase from the previous year.

    Share of Coal in India’s Energy Basket:

    • Dominance: As of 2023-24, coal contributed 79% to India’s total energy generation, amounting to 16,906 petajoules (PJ), marking a 2% increase from the previous year.
    • Production Growth: In 2023-24, India saw a 12% increase in coal production, continuing a strong growth trajectory from the 15% growth in 2022-23, marking one of the fastest growth rates in the past decade.
    • Dependence on Imports: Despite a surge in domestic production, India remains 26% dependent on coal imports, although this has decreased from 31% in 2019-20.

    India’s Total Energy Basket:

    • Coal: Discussed above.
    • Nuclear Energy: Nuclear power contributes approximately 1.7% to the total electricity generation capacity, with an installed capacity of about 8,180 MW as of late 2024.
    • Crude Oil: The share of crude oil has decreased from 11% in 2014-15 to 6% in 2023-24, indicating a long-term decline in its contribution to India’s energy mix.
    • Natural Gas: Similarly, natural gas’s share has decreased from 9% in 2014-15 to 7% in 2023-24, reflecting a shift away from natural gas in the energy mix.
    • Renewable Energy: Despite significant investments and efforts by the government, renewable energy sources (solar, wind, hydro, and nuclear) contribute only 7% to the total energy mix in 2023-24, showing slow but steady growth over the past decade.

    Shift Towards Renewable Energy:

    • Total Contribution: Renewable sources contributed 7% of India’s total energy production in 2023-24, a modest increase from 6% in 2014-15. While this share remains small, the absolute production from renewables has grown at a 6.76% CAGR over the past 10 years.
    • Growth in Solar and Wind Energy:
      • The generation from solar, wind, and other renewable sources (excluding large hydro) has surged by 210% over the last decade, increasing from 6,555 KToE in FY15 to 20,279 KToE in FY24.
    • Key Renewable Energy Potential:
      • Wind energy holds the largest share of India’s renewable potential at 55.17%, with an estimated potential of 11,63,856 MW.
      • Solar energy is the second-largest contributor at 35.50%, with a potential of 7,48,990 MW.
      • Large hydro contributes 6.32% of the renewable energy potential with 1,33,410 MW.
    • Future Targets:
      • India added 3.4 GW of new wind capacity in 2024, with Gujarat (1,250 MW), Karnataka (1,135 MW), and Tamil Nadu (980 MW) leading the way.
      • India is aiming for 500 GW of non-fossil fuel-based energy capacity by 2030, which would significantly boost the share of renewables in the energy mix, reducing the reliance on coal and crude oil over the coming years.
    [UPSC 2020] Consider the following statements:

    1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury.

    2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment.

    3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and

     

  • What are the Norms for Disclosure of Judges’ Assets?

    Why in the News?

    The discovery of large sums of cash at Delhi High Court judges’ residence has raised concerns about corruption in India’s judiciary and reignited the debate over the public disclosure of judges’ assets and liabilities.

    Current Stance on Judges’ Asset Disclosure

    • Supreme Court’s Historical Approach:
      • 1997 Resolution: The Supreme Court, under Chief Justice J.S. Verma, resolved that judges should disclose their assets to the Chief Justice of India (CJI), but this did not involve public disclosure.
      • 2009 Resolution: The full Bench of the Supreme Court agreed to publish judges’ asset declarations on the court’s website, though this was done voluntarily. However, the website has not been updated since 2018, and the assets of current judges are not publicly available.
      • 2019 Ruling: The Supreme Court ruled that judges’ personal assets and liabilities are not private information, making them subject to the Right to Information (RTI) Act.
    • High Court’s Position:
      • As of March 2024, only 13% of High Court judges have publicly disclosed their assets and liabilities. Many High Courts, including Uttarakhand and Allahabad, have opposed public disclosure and argued that such information is outside the scope of the RTI Act.
    • Resistance to Full Disclosure:
      • The Uttarakhand High Court (2012) passed a resolution opposing the disclosure of judges’ assets under the RTI Act. Similarly, many High Courts have rejected RTI applications seeking information about judges’ assets.

    Parliament’s Role – Proposed Reforms

    • Committee Recommendation (2023):
      • The Parliamentary Committee on Personnel, Public Grievances, and Law and Justice recommended that legislation be introduced to make the disclosure of judges’ assets and liabilities mandatory for Supreme Court and High Court judges.
      • However, there has been no progress on implementing this recommendation as of now.
    • Need for Legislation:
      • Despite the RTI Act requiring public servants to disclose their assets, judges have largely remained exempt from such transparency.
      • Legislative action is seen as essential to ensure accountability and transparency within the judiciary, with several advocating for mandatory public disclosure similar to other public officials.
    [UPSC 2017] With reference to the appointment of the High Court Judges, consider the following statements:

    1. Chief Justice of India is consulted by the President in the appointment.

    2. Governor of the State is consulted by the Chief Justice of India in the appointment.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    [UPSC 2021] An independent and empowered social audit mechanism is an absolute must in every sphere of public service, including judiciary, to ensure performance, accountability and ethical conduct. Elaborate.

     

  • Tribhuvandas Patel: the Father of Cooperative Movement

    Why in the News?

    The Lok Sabha recently passed a Bill to establish Tribhuvan Sahkari University in Anand, Gujarat, in honour of Tribhuvandas Kishibhai Patel, a visionary leader known as the “father of the cooperative movement” in India, particularly in dairy farming.

    Tribhuvandas Patel the Father of Cooperative Movement

    Who was Tribhuvandas Patel?

    • Patel was born in 1903 to Kishibhai Patel and Lakhiba in Anand, Gujarat. He was an alumnus of Gujarat Vidyapith and was deeply influenced by Mahatma Gandhi.
    • A dedicated freedom fighter, Patel participated in the civil disobedience movement, campaigns against untouchability, and the salt satyagraha.
    • He was jailed in 1930 for his participation in the Salt Movement.
    • He is widely recognized as the “father of the cooperative movement” in India, particularly for his transformative work in the dairy industry.

    Patel’s Contribution to the Cooperative Movement

    • In 1946, Patel founded the Kaira District Cooperative Milk Producers’ Union Limited (KDCMPUL), known later as Amul, to empower farmers and challenge the monopoly of the Polson Dairy in Anand, Gujarat.
    • Patel collaborated with Verghese Kurien, a mechanical engineer, to modernize the dairy plant and increase milk production. This collaboration eventually led to the White Revolution in India.
    • Patel was also instrumental in setting up the Gujarat Cooperative Milk Marketing Federation (GCMMF), the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB), and the Institute of Rural Management Anand (IRMA), which played a pivotal role in cooperative dairy farming and rural development.
    • After his retirement, Patel used funds from the cooperative community to establish the Tribhuvandas Foundation, focused on community health and welfare.

    Cooperative Movement in India:

    • Pre-Independence Era:
      • The cooperative movement originated from informal local initiatives like Chit Funds and Mutual-Loan Associations in places like Madras Presidency and Punjab.
      • The 1904 Cooperative Credit Societies Act formally recognized cooperatives.
      • The Government of India Act, 1919 empowered provinces to legislate on cooperatives, leading to the Bombay Cooperative Society Act of 1925.
    • Post-Independence Developments:
      • Cooperatives became central to India’s economic strategies, particularly for rural development and social justice.
      • The National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) (1963) and NABARD (1982) supported rural cooperatives and provided credit to farmers.
      • The 97th Constitutional Amendment (2011) granted the right to form cooperatives under Article 19.
      • The Ministry of Cooperation was formed in 2021 to strengthen the cooperative framework.
      • The MSCS Amendment Act 2023 aims to improve governance and operational efficiency of cooperatives.

    Key Types of Cooperatives in India:

    1. Consumers’ Cooperatives: Provide affordable goods by removing intermediaries (e.g., Kendriya Bhandar).
    2. Producers’ Cooperatives: Support small producers by supplying essential materials.
    3. Cooperative Marketing Societies: Help producers market products collectively (e.g., Amul).

     

    [UPSC 2011] In India, which of the following have the highest share in the disbursement of credit to agriculture and allied activities?

    (a) Commercial Banks (b) Cooperative Banks (c) Regional Rural Banks (d) Microfinance Institutions

     

  • [pib] Exercise INIOCHOS 25

    Why in the News?

    The Indian Air Force will participate in Exercise INIOCHOS-25 hosted by the Hellenic Air Force at Andravida Air Base, Greece.

    About Exercise INIOCHOS

    • INIOCHOS is a biennial multinational air exercise that provides air forces with a platform to enhance their operational readiness.
    • It is hosted by the Hellenic (Greek) Air Force and brings together military aviation units from various countries, promoting international cooperation.
    • It was first conducted in the late 1980s, as a small-scale tactical level exercise.
    • Objective: To allow air forces to practice Combined Air Operations and share tactical knowledge through realistic combat scenarios.

    Key Features of Exercise INIOCHOS:

    • It integrates air and surface assets from fifteen countries, promoting multinational cooperation in air warfare.
    • It will simulate modern-day air warfare challenges, providing a real-world training environment for participating air forces.
    • It will be placed on planning and executing Combined Air operations, refining tactics in complex air warfare scenarios.

    Strategic Importance for India:

    • India’s participation in INIOCHOS-25 underlines its commitment to global defence cooperation and showcases its ability to work seamlessly in joint operations.
    • The exercise will reinforce India’s strategic partnerships with other nations and further enhance its readiness for joint operations in complex and dynamic air warfare environments.

  • Massive Earthquake hits Myanmar and Thailand

    Why in the News?

    A powerful 7.7 magnitude earthquake struck Myanmar, with its epicentre near Mandalay, the country’s second-largest city.

    Massive Earthquake hits Myanmar and Thailand

    What caused the Earthquake in Myanmar?

    • Myanmar is situated between the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate, which makes the region seismically active.
      • The Sagaing Fault, running from north to south through Myanmar, marks the boundary of these plates.
      • It is an active fault line that has caused significant earthquakes in the past, including a 7.9 magnitude earthquake in 1912 and a 6.9 magnitude earthquake in 2016.
    • The Indian Plate was moving northward along the Sagaing Fault relative to the Eurasian Plate. The friction and stress built up along this fault led to a sudden release of energy, resulting in the earthquake.
    • The earthquake’s epicentres was located 17.2 km from Mandalay, Myanmar’s second-largest city, at a depth of just 10 km.

    Why are Shallow Earthquakes more destructive?

    • Proximity to the Surface: Shallow earthquakes (less than 70 km deep) cause intense shaking. For example, the Myanmar earthquake occurred at 10 km, leading to rapid, forceful seismic waves and extensive damage.
    • Energy Release: Shallow earthquakes retain more energy in seismic waves, causing stronger surface shaking and greater destruction.
    • Higher Intensity: Shallow quakes produce higher intensity shaking, resulting in more structural damage compared to deeper quakes, where seismic waves lose energy.
    • Aftershocks: Shallow earthquakes often lead to more intense aftershocks, further damaging already weakened structures. The Myanmar earthquake had aftershocks, including one with magnitude 6.4.

    Back2Basics: Earthquake and Related Terminologies

    • Earthquake is a sudden shaking of the ground caused by energy release from tectonic plate movements or volcanic activity, generating seismic waves.
    • Key Terminologies:
      • Focus (Hypocenter): The point inside the Earth where the earthquake originates, deep beneath the surface.
      • Epicenter: The point on the Earth’s surface directly above the focus, usually the most affected area.
      • Seismic Waves: Waves that carry the energy released during an earthquake and cause ground shaking.
      • Fault: A crack or fracture in the Earth’s crust where movement occurs, often causing earthquakes.
      • Magnitude: A measure of the earthquake’s size or energy, commonly measured on the Richter scale.
      • Intensity: The strength of shaking at specific locations, measured by the Modified Mercalli Intensity (MMI) scale.

    Types of Earthquake Waves:

    • Body Waves: Travel through the Earth’s interior, detected first by seismographs.
      • Primary Waves (P-Waves): Fastest, compression waves that move through solids and liquids.
      • Secondary Waves (S-Waves): Shear waves, slower than P-waves, that move through solids only.
    • Surface Waves: Travel along the Earth’s surface, slower but cause more damage.
      • Love Waves: Move side-to-side horizontally, causing significant damage.
      • Rayleigh Waves: Cause elliptical ground motion, similar to ocean waves, very destructive.

     

    [UPSC 2021] Consider the following statements:

    1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves.

    2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of waves propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

     

  • Centre hikes MGNREGS wages by 2-7% for FY26

    Why in the News?

    The Centre has announced a hike in the wages under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) for the financial year 2025-26, with an increase ranging from 2-7%.

    Wage Revision Under MGNREGS:

    • 2025-26 Wage Hike:
      • Wage increase: 2.33%-7.48%, with ₹7 to ₹26 rise.
      • Haryana records the largest hike of ₹26, bringing the wage to ₹400 per day (highest in India).
    • Wage Calculation:
      • Wages are linked to the Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL).
    • Previous Hikes:
      • Goa had the largest hike of 10.56% in 2024-25.
      • Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand had the smallest at 3.04%.

    About MGNREGS

    • The MGNREGS, launched in 2005, guarantees 100 days of wage employment annually for rural households.
    • It provides a legal right to work, focusing on unskilled manual labour.
    • Unique Features:
      • 100 days of employment for rural households, with adult members volunteering for unskilled work.
      • If employment isn’t provided within 15 days, an unemployment allowance is paid.
      • Work must be offered within 5 km of the applicant’s residence.
      • The Centre funds 100% of unskilled labour costs, 75% of skilled labour and materials, and 6% of administrative costs.
    • Key Provisions under MGNREGS
      • Rural households are entitled to 100 days of employment. Additional days are allowed during natural calamities or for Scheduled Tribe households.
      • Citizens can conduct social audits to ensure transparency, with all records open to public scrutiny.
      • Worksites must provide crèches, drinking water, and first aid.
      • Workers more than 5 km from the worksite receive a travel allowance of 10% of the wage rate.

    Recent Challenges surrounding MGNREGS:

    • Delayed Payments: ₹11,423 crore owed for wages and administrative costs as of January 2025, with workers facing delays of weeks or months.
    • Inadequate Wage Rates: Wage rates are not linked to inflation, with the highest wage for 2024-25 at ₹374 in Haryana, below the national minimum wage.
    • Technological Challenges: Issues with Aadhaar-based payments and mobile monitoring systems have led to non-payment or misdirected funds.
    • Budget Constraints: Budget allocations have decreased from 0.4% of GDP in FY22 to 0.2% in FY25, impacting workdays and payments.
    • Social Audit Irregularities: Irregular audits by Gram Sabhas raise concerns about accountability and transparency.

     

    [UPSC 2011] Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the “Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act”?

    (a) Adult members of only the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households

    (b) Adult members of below poverty line (BPL) households

    (c) Adult members of households of all backward communities

    (d) Adult members of any household

     

  • Tri-services Exercise Prachand Prahaar

    Why in the News?

    The Indian Army conducted a Tri-Service integrated multi-domain warfare exercise, called ‘Prachand Prahaar’, in the high-altitude terrain of Arunachal Pradesh.

    About Exercise Prachand Prahaar

    • It is a tri-service integrated multi-domain warfare exercise involving the Army, Indian Air Force (IAF), and Indian Navy.
    • It is conducted in the high-altitude terrain of Arunachal Pradesh, near the Line of Actual Control (LAC), which spans 3,488 km.
    • The exercise was carried out under the aegis of the Eastern Army Command.
    • The primary objective was to validate a fully integrated approach to surveillance, command and control, and precision firepower across all three services.
    • The exercise aimed at simulating future warfare scenarios with a synergised combat drill.

    Key Components and Execution:

    • The exercise began with the deployment of advanced surveillance resources from all three services, which included:
      • Long-range surveillance aircraft from the IAF.
      • Maritime domain awareness aircraft from the Indian Navy.
      • Helicopters and Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs).
      • Space-based resources and the Indian Army’s elite special forces.
    • These resources created seamless domain awareness, which allowed for the identification of simulated targets.

    Related Previous Exercises:

    • The Prachand Prahaar exercise builds upon the momentum of Exercise Poorvi Prahar, which was held in November 2024.
    • The focus of Poorvi Prahar was on the integrated application of aviation assets.

  • Who was Rana Sanga (1484–1527)?

    Why in the News?

    A recent statement by an MP in Parliament labelling Rajput ruler Rana Sanga a “traitor,” has sparked controversy over his role in inviting Babur to invade India.

    Who was Rana Sanga?

    • Rana Sanga, also known as Maharana Sangram Singh, was a Rajput king who ruled the kingdom of Mewar in present-day Rajasthan from 1509 to 1527.
    • He expanded his kingdom significantly, conquering parts of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Haryana, and Sindh.
    • He formed a powerful Rajput confederacy and led a massive army of 80,000 warhorses and 500 elephants.
    • He was known for his military campaigns against the Lodi dynasty of Delhi, the Sultanates of Malwa and Gujarat, and even the Mughals.
    • His most notable victories include the Battle of Gagron against Sultan Mahmud Khilji of Malwa and the Battle of Dholpur in 1519 against Ibrahim Lodi of Delhi.
    • Battle with Babur:
      • Rana Sanga eventually came into conflict with Babur, the founder of the Mughal Empire.
      • The two fought in the Battle of Khanwa in 1527, where Babur’s forces defeated Sanga’s Rajput army.
      • This marked the end of Rajput resistance to the Mughals in Northern India.
    • Legacy:
      • Despite his defeat at Khanwa, he is remembered as a hero of Rajput resistance and is considered one of the last independent Hindu rulers in Northern India before the rise of Mughal dominance.

    Recent Controversy:

    • The remarks were made amid growing debates about Medieval Indian history, particularly surrounding Aurangzeb and the role of various historical figures in Indian politics.
    • Historians are divided on whether Rana Sanga explicitly invited Babur to invade India.
    • Babur’s memoirs, the Baburnama, mention that Rana Sanga offered assistance against Ibrahim Lodi.
    • Yet, historians like Satish Chandra propose that Rana Sanga might have viewed Babur as a means to weaken the Lodi Sultanate, possibly underestimating Babur’s intentions to establish his own rule in India.
    • Some argue that Rana Sanga might have seen Babur as a useful ally against Ibrahim Lodi, while others believe his role was exaggerated by Babur in his memoir, the Baburnama.
    [UPSC 2023] With reference to the Mughal Empire, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

    (a) Mughal officials who were in charge of land revenue were known as Karoris.

    (b) The term ‘Jagirdar’ was used for the holders of revenue assignments.

    (c) The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ was related to the imperial household.

    (d) The Rajput chiefs were integrated into the Mughal nobility.

     

  • Section 44(3) of the DPDP Act

    Why in the News?

    Opposition parties have raised concerns over the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023, demanding the repeal of Section 44(3), claiming it could undermine the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005.

    About DPDP Act and Section 44(3)

    • Recognizing the right to privacy as fundamental in India, the Supreme Court in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy vs. Union of India (2017) led to the introduction of the DPDP Act in 2023.
    • The Act regulates the processing of personal data, balancing individual privacy rights and lawful processing needs.
    • Key Provisions: It mandates informed consent, establishes a Data Protection Board of India (DPBI), and outlines the responsibilities of data fiduciaries in ensuring data protection.
    • Section 44(3) modifies Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act, which previously exempted personal information from disclosure unless public interest justified it.
    • The amendment broadens this exemption, stating that all personal information should be exempt from disclosure, without requiring a public interest justification.

    Concerns Related to Section 44(3)  

    • Reduced Transparency: Activists and critics argue that this section undermines the RTI Act, which has been a cornerstone of transparency and accountability in governance.
    • Limited Access to Public Information: The broad exemption allows government officials to shield information like asset disclosures, which are critical for public accountability.
    • Potential for Misuse: There are concerns that personal data protection could be used as an excuse to block vital information about government activities, weakening the public’s right to know.
    • Conflict Between Public Interest and Privacy: Critics argue that privacy protection should not override the principle of transparency.

    Back2Basics: Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005

    • The RTI Act, 2005 empowers Indian citizens to seek information from public authorities, ensuring transparency and accountability in governance.
    • RTI is considered a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution, which guarantees freedom of speech and expression,
    • Key Features:
      • Applicability: Covers all government bodies, including central, state, and local authorities.
      • Public Information Officers (PIOs): Designated officials who are responsible for providing requested information within 30 days.
      • Exemptions: Some categories of information are exempted, such as national security matters and personal privacy.
      • Penalty: Officials can face fines for failing to provide information without valid reasons.

     

    [UPSC 2018] Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?

    (a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42ndAmendment to the Constitution.

    (b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV.

    (c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III.

    (d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44thAmendment to the Constitution.