💥UPSC 2026, 2027, 2028 UAP Mentorship (March Batch) + Access XFactor Notes & Microthemes PDF

Type: Prelims Only

  • Electric and Hybrid Cars – FAME, National Electric Mobility Mission, etc.

    Status of Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme

    Why in the News?

    India met its 20% ethanol blending (E20) target in petrol by March 2025 — five years early. Talks are now on to raise the blending ratio further in the immediate future.

    About Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme:

    • Launched in 2003 by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
    • Objective: Promote use of renewable, domestically produced ethanol in petrol.
    • Nationwide rollout (except A&N and Lakshadweep) since April 2019.
    • Feedstock:
      • 1G Ethanol: From sugarcane molasses, maize, rice.
      • 2G Ethanol: From agricultural residues like rice straw, bamboo, bagasse.
    • Blending Progress:
      • 1.6% in 2013–14
      • 11.8% in 2022–23
      • 20% achieved in March 2025 (E20)
    • Future Plans:
      • Discussions on E27 blending target by 2030.
      • Government exploring flex-fuel vehicles (e.g., E85-capable (dual-fuel) cars).

    India’s Achievements:

    • Environmental Gains: 19.2 million tonnes of CO₂ emissions avoided (2014–2021).
    • Economic Impact: ₹26,000 crore saved in foreign exchange via reduced oil imports.
    • Industrial Growth:
      • Distillery capacity scaled up with interest subvention support.
      • Flex-fuel vehicles showcased by major automakers in 2025.
    • Farmer Benefit: Creates demand for sugarcane and grains, increasing farm income.

    Limitations:

    • Technical Challenges
      • Lower mileage with E20 due to reduced energy content.
      • Older vehicles may face engine compatibility issues.
      • Flex-fuel technology adoption still limited.
    • Economic Concerns
      • No drop in fuel prices despite ethanol savings.
      • Consumer hesitation due to lack of visible benefits.
    • Environmental Trade-offs
      • High land and water use for ethanol crops (especially sugarcane).
      • Food security risks from diverting food crops for fuel.
    • Need for Diversification
      • Majority of ethanol still from sugarcane; limited 2G ethanol usage.
      • Need to promote biomass-based ethanol (wood chips, crop residue).
    [UPSC 2025] Consider the following statements:

    Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.

    Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.

    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

    (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

    (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

    (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct *

     

  • Health Sector – UHC, National Health Policy, Family Planning, Health Insurance, etc.

    What is Ayurveda Aahara?

    Why in the News?

    To align ancient Indian diets with modern nutrition, FSSAI and the Ministry of Ayush have released an official list of food items under the Ayurveda Aahara category.

    What is Ayurveda Aahara?

    About Ayurveda Aahara:

    • Definition: Refers to food products based on Ayurvedic dietary principles—focused on balance, seasonality, and natural, therapeutic ingredients.
    • Objective: Ensures standardisation, safety, and consumer trust in Ayurvedic dietary practices.
    • Legal Framework: Regulated under the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India’s Ayurveda Aahara Regulations (2022).
    • Textual Basis: Product list notified under Note (1) of Schedule B, grounded in classical Ayurvedic texts listed in Schedule A.
    • Standards: Foods must follow authentic Ayurvedic recipes, ingredients, and preparation methods.
    • New Product Inclusion: Food Business Operators (FBOs) can propose additions by citing authoritative Ayurvedic sources.
    • Institutional Support: Endorsed by the National Institute of Ayurveda and the Ministry of Ayush; the Ayush Aahara Compendium offers scientifically validated formulations for industry use.

    Significance:

    • Health Benefits: Supports preventive health, digestion, and immunity through time-tested dietary wisdom.
    • Cultural Revival: Reconnects with India’s ancient food traditions, including those from the Sangam era; recognised globally alongside Yoga and Millets.
    • Regulatory Clarity: Provides structured guidelines to manufacturers, enabling ease of business and consumer confidence in authenticity.
    [UPSC 2017] Which of the following are the objectives of ‘National Nutrition Mission’?

    1. To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers.

    2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women.

    3. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice.

    4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    Options: (a) 1 and 2 only* (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only

     

  • Capital Markets: Challenges and Developments

    Asset Under Management (AUM)

    Why in the News?

    India’s Mutual Fund (MF) industry has witnessed exponential growth, with Assets Under Management (AUM) reaching ₹74.40 lakh crore as of June 2025, a sevenfold increase over the past decade.

    What are Assets Under Management (AUM)?

    • Definition: AUM refers to the total market value of financial assets (stocks, bonds, etc.) managed by an investment firm on behalf of clients.
    • Growth Drivers:
      • Net investor inflows and redemptions
      • Market performance
      • Dividend reinvestments
    • Importance:
      • Indicates fund size, investor confidence, and fund stability
      • Reflects fund manager performance and popularity
      • Higher AUM allows better liquidity and portfolio diversification
      • Impacts management fees and minimum investment limits

    What is a Mutual Fund?

    • Definition: A mutual fund pools money from multiple investors to invest in a diversified portfolio.
    • Management: Handled by professional fund managers to balance risk and return.
    • Unit-Based Investment: Investors purchase fund units; each unit’s value is called the Net Asset Value (NAV), which changes with market movement.

    Classification of Mutual Funds

    a. Based on Asset Class:

    1. Equity Funds: Invest in stocks; includes large-cap, mid-cap, and small-cap funds.
    2. Debt Funds: Invest in bonds and other fixed-income instruments.
    3. Hybrid Funds: Mix of equity and debt for balanced risk-return.

    b. Based on Investment Objective:

    1. Growth Funds: Focus on capital appreciation; suitable for long-term investors.
    2. Income Funds: Aim for regular income via bonds/dividends.
    3. Liquid Funds: Invest in short-term debt; low risk and high liquidity.
    4. Tax-saving Funds (Equity Linked Savings Scheme): Offer Section 80C tax benefits; equity-focused.
    5. Pension Funds: Meant for retirement; long-term return-focused.

    c. Based on Structure:

    1. Open-ended Funds: Investors can enter or exit anytime; highly liquid.
    2. Closed-ended Funds: Fixed maturity; investments only during the initial offer period.
    3. Interval Funds: Allow purchase/redemption only at specific intervals.

     

    [UPSC 2025] Consider the following statements:

    I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally, thus exhibiting a great boom. II. India’s stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past, even overtaking Hong Kong’s at some point in time. III. There is no regulatory body either to warn small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    Options:  (a) I and II only * (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III

     

  • Electric and Hybrid Cars – FAME, National Electric Mobility Mission, etc.

    [pib] India Electric Mobility Index (IEMI)

    Why in the News?

    To support India’s net-zero transport goal by 2070, NITI Aayog launched the India Electric Mobility Index (IEMI) to track and rank States/UTs on their shift to electric mobility.

    [pib] India Electric Mobility Index (IEMI)

    About India Electric Mobility Index (IEMI):

    • Launched by: NITI Aayog in 2024.
    • Purpose: To evaluate and benchmark the progress of Indian States and Union Territories (UTs) in achieving their electric mobility and transport decarbonization goals.
    • Scoring: States and UTs are scored out of 100 using 16 indicators grouped under 3 core themes.
    • Core Themes:
      1. Transport Electrification Progress – Measures EV adoption across segments (2W, 3W, 4W, buses, etc.)
      2. Charging Infrastructure Readiness – Assesses public charging station density, coverage, and policy support.
      3. EV Research & Innovation Status – Tracks EV startups, R&D activity, patents, and skilling efforts.
    • Significance:
      • Supports tailored policymaking and cross-learning.
      • Enables transparency and healthy competition among states.
      • Aligns with India’s net-zero emissions target by 2070.
    • Methodology: Based on VAHAN data, charging infrastructure maps, and stakeholder consultations.
    • Accessibility: Publicly available dashboard and report for rankings, scores, and methodology.

    Key Highlights (2024 Edition):

    • Top Performers: Delhi, Maharashtra, and Chandigarh lead overall in EV readiness.
    • Category Leaders:
      • Transport Electrification: Delhi and Maharashtra.
      • Charging Infrastructure: Karnataka, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Ladakh.
      • Research & Innovation: Delhi, Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, Haryana.
    • EV Policy Status: 29 States/UTs have formal EV policies; 4 are in the draft stage.
    • EV Adoption Data:
      • EVs make up 5.3% of private vehicle sales in 2024.
      • Over 12 lakh EVs registered in India during the year.
    • Public Charging Network: India has over 25,000 public EV charging stations.
    • State Categories:
      • Performers: Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Haryana, Goa.
      • Aspirants: Punjab, Rajasthan, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Bihar, Kerala, North-East states.
    [UPSC 2024] Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles powered by hydrogen?

    Options: (a) Hydrogen peroxide (b) Hydronium (c) Oxygen (d) Water vapour*

     

  • Dams and Hydroprojects

    Sawalkote Hydro Project

    Why in the News?

    After suspending the Indus Waters Treaty, India is asserting water control in J&K by reviving the Sawalkote Hydroelectric Project — the UT’s largest planned hydro project.

    Sawalkote Hydro Project

    About Sawalkote Hydro Project:

    • Location: Ramban and Udhampur districts, Jammu and Kashmir.
    • River: Built on the Chenab River (a western river under the Indus Waters Treaty).
    • Agency: Implemented by National Hydroelectric Power Corporation.
    • History: Proposed in the 1960s; delayed due to Pakistan’s objections, environmental issues, and red tape. Revived after India suspended the Indus Waters Treaty post the April 2025 Pahalgam terror attack.
    • Status (2025): Forest clearance granted; tenders floated on 29 July 2025; declared a project of national importance.
    • Timeline: 96 months post-clearance; expected commissioning by or after 2032.

    Key Features:

    • Type: Run-of-the-river (utilizes the natural flow and elevation drop of a river) hydroelectric project.
    • Capacity: 1,856 Megawatts (8 × 225 MW + 1 × 56 MW).
    • Dam: 192.5 m high, roller-compacted concrete gravity dam; reservoir holds 550 million cubic meters.
    • Powerhouse: Underground, with Francis turbines.
    • Cost: ₹22,704.8 crore (~2.6 billion United States Dollars).
    [UPSC 2009] Gandhi Sagar Dam is a part of which one of the following?

    Options: (a) Chambal Project * (b) Kosi Project (c) Damodar Valley Project (d) Bhakra Nangal Project

     

  • Waste Management – SWM Rules, EWM Rules, etc

    Pollution Control can levy Environmental Damages: SC

    Why in the News?

    In a landmark ruling, the Supreme Court has empowered Pollution Control Boards (PCBs) across India with the authority to impose and collect restitutionary and compensatory damages under the Water and Air Acts.

    Key Highlights of Supreme Court Ruling:

    • Key Powers Granted:
      • Impose and collect restitutionary and compensatory damages.
      • Demand bank guarantees in anticipation of environmental harm.
    • Legal Basis:
      • Section 33A, Water Act, 1974: Power to issue directions for closure/regulation of industries and stoppage of utilities to enforce water pollution norms.
      • Section 31A, Air Act, 1981: Similar binding powers to control air pollution; non-compliance is a legal violation.

    About Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB):

    • Established: September 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974; Also empowered under Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
    • Role: Statutory technical body to promote clean air and water; provides services under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
    • Key Functions:
      • Control and abate water and air pollution; promote stream and well cleanliness.
      • Advise the Central Government on pollution-related issues.
      • Coordinate with and assist State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs); resolve disputes.
      • Monitor pollution in Union Territories via delegated powers under Water, Air, and Water Cess Acts.
    • Develops and revises:
      • National Ambient Air Quality Standards.
      • Water Quality Criteria from various sources.
      • Emission/Discharge Standards under Environment Protection Rules, 1986.
      • Bio-Medical Waste Incineration Norms.
      • Noise/Emission Limits for diesel, LPG, and CNG generators.
    • Minimal National Standards (MINAS) Issuance:
      • Covers effluent, emission, noise, and solid waste across industries.
      • Mandatory for State adoption as baseline standards.
      • Publishes COINDS (Comprehensive Industry Documents), manuals, and codes for pollution treatment and control systems.

    About State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs):

    • Constitution: Formed by State Governments under the Water and Air Acts.
    • Functions:
      • Monitor and control local pollution.
      • Inspect industries and enforce compliance.
      • Advise state governments.
      • Conduct awareness campaigns.
      • Implement control programmes and collaborate with CPCB and local bodies.
    [UPSC 2018] How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?

    1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.

    2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only * (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

     

  • Innovations in Sciences, IT, Computers, Robotics and Nanotechnology

    Blockchain-verified Quantum Randomness for Secure Communication

    Why in the News?

    A recent breakthrough demonstrated use of quantum science, blockchain, and cryptography to create truly random and secure numbers used in encryption for secure communication.

    About the Technology:

    • Encryption: Converts readable data into unreadable code using a “key”; only someone with the correct key can decrypt the message.
    • Importance of Randomness: Secure encryption depends on unpredictable keys—predictable keys can be guessed or hacked.
    • Issue with Computers: Most keys are generated using pseudo-random algorithms, which appear random but are predictable if the method is known.

    About the Breakthrough Lava Lamp Method:

    • Setup: 100 lava lamps placed on a wall at Cloudflare’s San Francisco office; a camera takes periodic photos of the moving blobs.
    • Process: Each photo is converted into numerical data, creating a random seed to generate encryption keys.
    • Why Lava Lamps? The heat-driven movement of wax blobs is unpredictable and creates unique images.
    • Limitations: Movements follow physics, so not truly random. Also, the algorithm that converts images is deterministic—reproducible if known.

    Quantum Random Number Generation Protocol:

    • Why Quantum Physics: Subatomic particles like photons behave randomly; for example, a photon’s polarization is unknown until measured.
    • How It Works: Scientists used lasers to generate entangled photons and measured them millions of times to produce random results.
    • Data Conversion: The raw data (in binary) was biased, so a randomness extractor was used to generate a clean 512-bit unbiased number using a second random seed.
    • Blockchain Role: Each step was recorded on blockchain for transparency, with digital fingerprints (hashes) to ensure data integrity.
    • Team Involvement: National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), University of Colorado, and DRAND each handled separate parts to ensure decentralization and trust.
    • Public Use: The final random numbers are shared via CURBy, a public distribution service.
    • Significance: Though still emerging, this method shows strong potential for future ultra-secure encryption systems.
    [UPSC 2025] Consider the following statements:

    I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing. II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS). III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    Options: (a) I and only I (b) II and III only (c) I and III only* (d) I, II and III

     

  • Global Geological And Climatic Events

    Does Rain make Ocean Water more Buoyant?

    Why in the News?

    New research shows that rain can reduce ocean buoyancy and stabilize tropical waters, challenging the belief that rain always enhances mixing.

    Does Rain make Ocean Water more Buoyant?

    About Buoyancy:

    • What is it: It is the upward force exerted by a fluid (e.g., water) on an object submerged in it.
      • It determines whether an object floats, sinks, or stays suspended.
    • Buoyancy in Oceans: It depends on density differences in water.
      • Lighter water above → unstable → mixing happens.
      • Heavier water above → stable → mixing stops.
    • Buoyancy Flux: Measures changes in buoyancy at the ocean surface over time.
      • Freshwater from rain → makes surface lighter → positive flux → promotes mixing.
      • Heat loss → cools surface → makes water denser → negative flux → resists mixing.

    Key Findings of the Study:

    • Light Rain (0.2–4 mm/hr): Often leads to positive buoyancy flux → supports ocean mixing.
    • Heavy Rain:
      • Usually results in negative buoyancy flux → surface becomes stable.
      • Caused by cold pools that enhance heat loss.
    • Day vs. Night Effect:
      • Night: Rain destabilizes surface → mixing increases.
      • Day: Rain promotes stability → due to added heat loss from sunlight blockage.
    • Geographical Insights:
      • Cold Rain Zones (Western Pacific, Indian Ocean): More stabilization.
      • Hot Rain Zones (Central Pacific): More prone to mixing.

    Significance of the Study

    • Scientific Implications:
      • Refutes the general belief that rain always increases buoyancy.
      • Shows rain can both stabilize or destabilize the ocean surface depending on conditions.
    • Climate Relevance:
      • Ocean mixing is key to heat, carbon, and nutrient cycling.
      • Misreading rainfall’s role can skew climate and weather models.
    • Practical Impact:
      • Improves forecasting accuracy in oceanography and climate science.
      • Aids in understanding the climate-ocean feedback loop more precisely.
    [UPSC 2020] With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT), which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1. OMT is measured up to a depth of 26°C isotherm which is 129 meters in the southwestern Indian Ocean during January — March.

    2. OMT collected during January — March can be used in assessing whether the amount of rainfall in monsoon will be less or more than a certain long-term mean.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only* (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

     

  • Wildlife Conservation Efforts

    Bird Deaths in Thar Desert

    Why in the News?

    A new study by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) reveals that wind farms in the Thar Desert, Rajasthan, have the highest recorded bird mortality rates globally.

    Bird Deaths in Thar Desert

    Bird Mortality at Wind Farms: Key Findings

    • Study Details: Conducted across 3,000 sq. km in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan, covering 90 wind turbines and 272 bird species, including the critically endangered Great Indian Bustard.
    • Carcass Count: 124 bird carcasses found within 150m radius of turbines.
    • Annual Mortality Estimate: 4,464 birds per 1,000 sq. km, after corrections for detection gaps and scavenger interference.
    • Control Sites: 28 sites (500–2,000m from turbines) found zero carcasses — indicating turbines as the direct cause.
    • Reasons:
      • Policy Gap: Onshore wind projects in India do not require Environmental Impact Assessments (EIAs), which weakens ecological safeguards.

    India’s Wind Energy Growth:

    • Current Status: India added 3.5 GW of wind power in the first half of 2025 — an 82% YoY increase.
    • Total Installed Capacity: Now stands at 51.3 GW.
    • Untapped Potential: Estimated at 1163.9 GW at 150 meters above ground level (National Institute of Wind Energy).

    Comparison with Past Studies:

    • 2019 Studies: Recorded just 0.47 bird deaths per turbine/year in Kutch and Davangere.
    • Thar Desert Rate: 1.24 bird deaths per turbine/month — significantly higher.
    • Contributing Factors:
      • High bird density in Thar.
      • Location along Central Asian Flyway.
      • Collisions with turbine-linked power lines included in this study.

    Proposed Mitigation Measures:

    • Technological:
      • Paint one turbine blade for visibility.
      • Shut down turbines during peak migration or high-risk periods.
    • Planning-Based:
      • Careful Site Selection seen as most critical step.
      • Use of tools like AVISTEP (Avian Sensitivity Tool for Energy Planning), which maps avian sensitivity across India.
      • AVISTEP ranks zones as low to very high sensitivity — intended as a guide for site avoidance.
    [UPSC 2012] Vultures which used to be very common in Indian countryside some years ago are rarely seen nowadays. This is attributed to:

    Options: (a) the destruction of their nesting sites by new invasive species disease among them

    (b) a drug used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle persistent and fatal *

    (c) scarcity of food available to them

    (d) a widespread, persistent and fatal disease among them

     

  • Innovations in Biotechnology and Medical Sciences

    AI-designed Proteins to generate Immune Cells

    Why in the News?

    Harvard Scientists have recently used AI to design synthetic proteins that activate T Cells, offering a new path for cancer treatment and vaccine development.

    What are T Cells?

    • They are a type of white blood cell that play a central role in the immune system.
    • Types of T Cells:
      • Helper T cells (CD4+): Activate and direct other immune cells.
      • Killer T cells (CD8+): Destroy infected or cancerous cells.
      • Memory T cells: “Remember” past invaders for faster response in the future.

    About the Study:

    • Used artificial intelligence (AI) to design soluble proteins that activate ‘Notch Signalling’, a key immune pathway.
      • These are synthetic molecular activators designed using advanced AI-driven protein design technologies.
    • Unlike older lab-only methods, these proteins work inside the body (in vivo) and in lab settings.
    • Result: Significant boost in T cell production from human progenitor cells.

    What is Notch Signalling?

    • A cell-to-cell signalling system that guides cell development.
    • Crucial for forming T cells, which fight infections and cancers.
    • No reliable therapeutic activator existed earlier.

    Key Benefits Offered:

    • Mass T Cell Generation: Meets clinical needs for CAR T Cell Therapy.
    • Vaccine Support: Boosted Memory T cells in mice, improving long-term immunity.
    • Cancer Therapy: Helps fight immune-suppressive tumour environments.
    • Scalable & Soluble: Works in humans, not just in lab dishes.
    • AI in Medicine: Shows AI’s growing role in designing immune therapies.
    [UPSC 2022] Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body?

    Options: (a) They protect the body from environmental allergens.

    (b) They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation.

    (c) They act as immunosuppressants in the body.

    (d) They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens

     

  • Tribes in News

    Who are Denotified, Semi-Nomadic and Nomadic Tribes (DNTs)?

    Why in the News?

    At an event in New Delhi, Denotified, Semi-Nomadic and Nomadic Tribes (DNTs) strongly demanded a permanent National Commission to address their long-standing marginalisation.

    Who are Denotified, Nomadic, and Semi-Nomadic Tribes (DNTs)?

    • Denotified Tribes (DNTs):
      • Colonial Tag: Branded “criminal by birth” under the Criminal Tribes Act, 1871.
      • Legal Reversal: Act repealed in 1949; tribes de-notified in 1952.
      • Persistent Stigma: Continue to face police profiling and social exclusion.
    • Nomadic Tribes (NTs):
      • Lifestyle: No fixed habitation; move cyclically for livelihood.
      • Occupations: Animal herding, salt trading, performing arts, traditional healing.
    • Semi-Nomadic Tribes (SNTs):
      • Hybrid Living: Alternate between mobile and semi-settled life.
      • Movement: Shift seasonally but often retain a base settlement.

    Current Status in India:

    • Population Share: Around 10% of India’s population.
    • Communities: ~150+ Denotified, 500+ Nomadic tribes.
    • Major States: Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh.
    • Examples of Communities (not exhaustive):
      • Denotified: Bedia, Pardhi, Sansi, Kanjar, Lodha, Nat, Chhara, Bhantu
      • Nomadic: Banjara, Gadia Lohar, Rabari, Madari, Kalbelia, Nat
      • Semi-Nomadic: Abor, Adi, Aka, Apatani, Dafla, Galo, Nishi, Tagin

    Major Committees & Commissions:

    Year Contribution
    Criminal Tribes Inquiry Committee 1947 Criticized criminal branding
    Ayyangar Committee 1949 Led to repeal of Criminal Tribes Act
    Kaka Kalelkar Commission 1953 Recognized DNTs, no full classification
    B.P. Mandal Commission 1980 Suggested NTs for OBC list
    Constitution Review Commission 2002 Urged protective measures for DNTs
    Renke Commission 2008 Listed 500+ communities, lacked implementation resources
    Idate Commission 2017–2018 Listed 1,200+, proposed permanent commission

     

    [UPSC 2019] Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:

    1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. 2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.

    3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. 4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    Options: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4* (d) 1, 3 and 4

     

  • ISRO Missions and Discoveries

    Human Outer Planet Exploration (HOPE)

    Why in the News?

    India has taken a significant step towards interplanetary human missions with the launch of the Human Outer Planet Exploration (HOPE) analogue station at Tso Kar, Ladakh.

    hope

    About HOPE (Human Outer Planet Exploration):

    • Purpose: Simulates Moon and Mars conditions to prepare for future human missions.
    • Developer: Built by Protoplanet (Bengaluru); partially funded by ISRO.
    • Location: Tso Kar, Ladakh (14,500 ft) — chosen for its lunar/Martian-like terrain.
    • Features: Enables isolation research, tech trials, and crew training; 1 of 33 such stations globally.
    • First Mission (2025): Two scientists (Rahul Mogalapalli, Yaman Akot) conducted a 10-day simulation focusing on resilience and mental health.
    • Significance:
      • Boosts India’s human spaceflight readiness.
      • Supports goals like Bharatiya Antariksh Station (2035) and Moon mission (2040).

    India’s Astronomical Assets in Ladakh:

    • Location: Indian Astronomical Observatory (IAO), at Mt. Saraswati (4,500 m), Hanle; run by Indian Institute of Astrophysics.
    • Key Instruments:
      • Himalayan Chandra Telescope (optical/infrared)
      • HAGAR (gamma rays, with Tata Institute of Fundamental Research)
      • MACE (Cherenkov telescope, with Bhabha Atomic Research Centre)
    • Stargazing hubs: Hanle, Nubra Valley, Pangong, Tso Moriri.
    • Advantages & Recognition:
      • 270+ clear nights; low humidity; dark skies.
      • Declared India’s 1st Dark-Sky Reserve (2022) to curb light pollution.
    [UPSC 2012] The world’s highest ground based telescopic observatory is located in

    Options: (a) Colombia (b) India* (c) Nepal (d) Switzerland

     

  • Innovations in Biotechnology and Medical Sciences

    Biologics & Biosimilars: The next frontier in Affordable Medicines

    Why in the News?

    While most medicines are small molecule drugs with simple structures, a newer class—biologics and biosimilars—is reshaping modern medicine with their complex, targeted action.

    What are Small Molecule Drugs?

    • Definition: Chemically synthesised, low molecular weight compounds.
    • Features: Fixed structure, chemically stable, easy to replicate, patent-protected.
    • Cost Dynamics: Expensive while under patent; affordable generics post-expiry (e.g., Sovaldi dropped from $84,000 to $1,000).

    About Biologics & Biosimilars:

    • Biologics-
      • Overview: Large, complex drugs made from living cells or organisms.
      • Examples: Insulin (~5,800 daltons), Remicade (~150,000 daltons).
      • Nature: Slight structural variations possible; used for cancer, autoimmune diseases, hormone therapy.
    • Biosimilars-
      • Overview: Near-identical versions of biologics, made after patent expiry.
      • Not Generics: Due to complex cell-based production, they’re similar but not identical.
      • Use: Offer lower-cost alternatives to high-end biologics.

    Regulation and Reform:

    • Current Barriers: Biosimilars need costly trials (animal + clinical), unlike generics.
    • Global Moves: UK and USA are easing animal trial norms (organ-on-chip, human models).
    • India: Still follows older norms; waivers under review, but clinical trials still mandatory.

    Significance for India:

    • Access: Generic small molecules transformed Indian healthcare.
    • Opportunity: Affordable biosimilars can do the same for chronic and rare diseases.
    • Urgency: Regulatory reform is key to reduce costs, speed up access, and widen healthcare coverage.
    [UPSC 2020] What is the importance of using Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines in India?

    (1) These vaccines are effective against pneumonia as well as meningitis and sepsis. (2) Dependence on antibiotics that are not effective against drug-resistant bacteria can be reduced. (3) These vaccines have no side effects and cause no allergic reactions.

    Options: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only* (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

     

  • Festivals, Dances, Theatre, Literature, Art in News

    71st National Film Awards announced

    Why in the News?

    The Ministry of Information and Broadcasting has announced the 71st National Film Awards.

    About National Film Awards:

    • Establishment: Instituted in 1954, administered by the Directorate of Film Festivals (DoFF) under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, Government of India.
    • Purpose:
      • To encourage the production of films of aesthetic and technical excellence.
      • Promote films that reflect the cultural and social fabric of India.
      • Recognize and reward cinematic achievements across languages and formats.
    • Award Components:
      • Swarna Kamal (Golden Lotus): Includes medallion, certificate, and cash prize. Given in top categories.
      • Rajat Kamal (Silver Lotus): Awarded in various other categories.
    • Main Categories:
      • Feature Films: For artistic and technical excellence across Indian languages.
      • Non-Feature Films: For documentaries, shorts, and socially relevant content.
      • Best Writing on Cinema: For books and critics advancing understanding of cinema.
    • Eligibility Criteria:
      • Films must be produced in India.
      • Makers must be Indian nationals.
      • Must be certified by CBFC between Jan 1 and Dec 31.
      • Foreign co-productions have specific eligibility conditions.
    • Jury and Selection:
      • Independent juries for each category.
      • No governmental or commercial influence in the selection process.

    About Dadasaheb Phalke Award:

    • Part of NFA.
    • India’s highest cinematic honour.
    • Instituted in 1969 to commemorate Dhundiraj Govind Phalke, India’s first filmmaker.
    • Consists of:
      • Swarna Kamal
      • ₹10 lakh cash prize
      • Certificate, silk roll, and shawl
    • First recipient: Devika Rani Roerich

     

  • Surrogacy in India

    Age Cap for Surrogacy in India

    Why in the News?

    The Supreme Court of India has reserved its judgment (i.e. final decision is pending) in a set of petitions challenging the age-related eligibility criteria under the Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021.

    These cases involve couples who had initiated the surrogacy process prior to the enactment of the law on January 25, 2022, but are now disqualified due to the new age limits.

    About the Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021

    • Objective: To regulate surrogacy in India, prohibit commercial surrogacy, and promote ethical, altruistic surrogacy based on medical necessity.
    • Scope:

    Key Provisions:

    • Type Permitted: Only altruistic surrogacy (unpaid surrogate mother) is allowed; commercial surrogacy is banned.
    • Eligibility Criteria for Intending Couples:
      • Legally married for at least 5 years.
      • Woman must be 23–50 years of age; man must be 26–55 years.
      • Must not have any living biological, adopted, or surrogate child.
    • Eligibility for Single Women:
      • Only widows or divorcees between 35–45 years are eligible.
      • Unmarried women are not eligible (currently under challenge).
    • Surrogate Mother Criteria:
      • Must be a close relative, married, and have at least one biological child.
      • Age: 25–35 years.
    • Certification Requirement: A Certificate of Essentiality is required, including:
      • Proof of infertility
      • Court order for parentage and custody
      • Insurance for the surrogate mother
    • Penalties: Commercial surrogacy invites imprisonment (up to 10 years) and fines (up to ₹10 lakh).
    • Regulatory Structure:
      • National Surrogacy Board at the central level.
      • State Surrogacy Boards at the state level.

    Issues Highlighted by the Supreme Court:

    • No Transitional Provision: The Act lacks a grandfather clause to protect couples who began the surrogacy process (e.g., embryo freezing) before the law came into effect in January 2022.
    • Rigid Age Limits: The court questioned the fairness of disqualifying couples solely on age grounds, especially when natural pregnancies at older ages are not prohibited.
    • Violation of Fundamental Rights: Petitioners argued the age restrictions violate Article 14 (equality before law) and Article 21 (right to reproductive autonomy and personal liberty).
    • Exclusion of Unmarried Women: The law permits only widows or divorcees (35–45 years) to pursue surrogacy, which the court noted may be arbitrary and discriminatory.
    • Law’s Intent vs. Impact: The court stressed that while the law aims to prevent commercial surrogacy, it should not unreasonably prevent genuine intending parents from having children.
    [UPSC 2020] In the context of recent advances in human reproductive technology, “Pronuclear Transfer” is used for:

    Options: (a) fertilization of egg in vitro by the donor sperm (b) genetic modification of sperm producing cells (c) development of stem cells into functional embryos (d) prevention of mitochondrial diseases in offspring*

     

  • Innovations in Biotechnology and Medical Sciences

    What is Darwin Tree of Life (DToL) Project?

    Why in the News?

    Researchers in Britain & Ireland are aiming to sequence all animals, fungi and plants under the Darwin Tree of Life (DToL) Project.

    About Darwin Tree of Life (DToL) Project:

    • Objective: To sequence the genomes of all ~70,000 known eukaryotic species (whose cells contain a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles) found in Britain and Ireland.
    • Initiated: In 2019 as a UK–Ireland contribution to the Earth BioGenome Project.
    • Geographic Focus: Great Britain and Ireland, chosen for their well-documented and accessible biodiversity.

    Key Features:

    • Phases:
      • Pilot Phase (2019–2022): Focused on collecting 8,000 species; targeted 2,000 genome assemblies.
      • As of 2025: ~8,000 species collected; over 2,000 genomes sequenced.
    • Approach:
      • Systematic specimen collection and species verification.
      • High-quality genome sequencing using advanced tools and curated pipelines.
    • Public Access: All genome data is released openly via the DToL portal and public archives.
    • Scientific Significance:
      • Enhances understanding of evolution, adaptation, and species relationships.
      • Supports conservation efforts amid growing biodiversity threats.
    • Applications: Informs conservation biology, medicine, agriculture, and climate adaptation.
    [UPSC 2011] At present, scientists can determine the arrangement or relative positions of genes or DNA sequences on a chromosome. How does this knowledge benefit us?

    1. It is possible to know the pedigree of livestock.

    2. It is possible to understand the causes of all human diseases.

    3. It is possible to develop disease-resistant animal breeds.

    Options: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only* (d) 1, 2 and 3

     

  • Festivals, Dances, Theatre, Literature, Art in News

    Patalpani-Kalakund Heritage Railway

    Why in the News?

    The 155-year-old Patalpani–Kalakund heritage train services has resumed after a temporary halt.

    About the Patalpani–Kalakund Heritage Line:

    • Route: 9.5 km metre-gauge section between Patalpani and Kalakund in Madhya Pradesh.
    • Section: Part of the Dr. Ambedkar Nagar (Mhow)–Khandwa route.
    • Restoration Year: Revived in 2018 as a heritage line after being excluded from gauge conversion due to difficult terrain.
    • Operational Details:
      • Average speed: 5–10 km/h.
      • Features scenic gorges, tunnels, embankments, Patalpani waterfall, and natural springs.
    • Historical Origins:
      • Proposed by Maharaja Tukoji Rao Holkar II in 1870.
      • First constructed as part of Holkar State Railways, completed in 1878.
      • Became part of Rajputana–Malwa Railway in 1881–82.
    • Cultural Significance:
      • Patalpani station named after Tantia Bhil, a tribal revolutionary.
      • Kalakund station named after a local sweet delicacy.

    Other Heritage Railways of India:

    Name & Route Details
    Darjeeling Himalayan Railway
    • Location: West Bengal
    • UNESCO Status: World Heritage Site (1999)
    • Built: 1879–81
    • Highlights: Batasia Loop, zigzags, colonial-era steam engines
    • Route: New Jalpaiguri to Darjeeling (88 km, narrow gauge)
    Nilgiri Mountain Railway
    • Location: Tamil Nadu
    • UNESCO Status: World Heritage Site (2005)
    • Highlights: Only rack-and-pinion railway in India, steep climbs, vintage locomotives
    • Route: Mettupalayam to Ooty (46 km, metre gauge)
    Kalka–Shimla Railway
    • Location: Himachal Pradesh
    • UNESCO Status: World Heritage Site (2008)
    • Built: 1898–1903
    • Highlights: 102 tunnels, 800+ bridges; access to British summer capital
    • Route: Kalka to Shimla (96 km, narrow gauge)
    Matheran Hill Railway
    • Location: Maharashtra
    • UNESCO Status: Tentative World Heritage Site
    • Built: 1907
    • Highlights: Zigzags, tight curves, eco-sensitive, vehicle-free destination
    • Route: Neral to Matheran (21 km, narrow gauge)
    Kangra Valley Railway
    • Location: Himachal Pradesh
    • UNESCO Status: Tentative World Heritage Site
    • Highlights: 971 bridges, 2 tunnels; scenic Dhauladhar views, access to ancient temples
    • Route: Pathankot to Joginder Nagar (163 km, narrow gauge)

     

    [UPSC 2009] Recently, which one of the following was included in the UNESCO’s World Heritage list?

    Options: (a) Dilwara Temple (b) Kalka-Shimla Railway* (c) Bhiterkanika Mangrove Area (d) Vishakhapatnam to Araku Valley railway line

     

  • Historical and Archaeological Findings in News

    Piprahwa Relics of Buddha

    Why in the News?

    The Union Culture Ministry has successfully retrieved the sacred ‘Piprahwa’ Buddhist relics, which were set to be auctioned in Hong Kong.

    Piprahwa Relics of Buddha

    About the Piprahwa Relics:

    • Discovery: Unearthed in 1898 by William Claxton Peppe, a British engineer, at Piprahwa (Siddharthnagar, Uttar Pradesh), near the Nepal border.

    • Historical Significance: Identified as ancient Kapilavastu, capital of the Shakya republic, where Prince Siddhartha (Buddha) lived before renunciation.

    • Findings at the Site: A buried stupa yielded a large stone coffer containing:

      • Bone fragments believed to be Buddha’s relics
      • Caskets made of soapstone and crystal
      • A sandstone coffer
      • Over 1,800 ornaments: pearls, rubies, sapphires, gold sheets
    • Legal Custody:

      • The British Crown claimed the relics under the Indian Treasure Trove Act, 1878.
      • Most artifacts were transferred to the Indian Museum, Kolkata.

    Stupas with Buddha’s Relics:

    • After the Buddha’s death (Mahaparinirvana), his cremated relics were divided among 8 kingdoms and a Brahmin named Drona, who coordinated their distribution.
    • Each recipient built a Stupa to enshrine their share of the relics, creating important pilgrimage sites and early centers of Buddhist worship.
    • The 9 stupas were located in Rajagriha, Vaishali, Kapilavastu, Allakappa, Ramagrama, Vethadipa, Pava, Kushinagar, and Pippalivana.
    • Emperor Ashoka (3rd century BCE) redistributed the relics from these stupas into thousands of new stupas across his empire.
    • The stupa at Ramagrama is unique because it is believed to remain untouched and still holds the original relics.
    • A typical early Buddhist stupa included a hemispherical mound (anda), a square railing (harmika), a central pillar (yashti) with umbrellas (chatra), and a path for circumambulation (pradakshinapatha).
    [UPSC 2023] With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements:

    1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin.

    2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics.

    3. Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition. How many of the statements given above are correct?

    Options: (a) Only one (b) Only two* (c) All three (d) None

     

  • International Monetary Fund,World Bank,AIIB, ADB and India

    IMF releases World Economic Outlook (WEO)

    Why in the News?

    The International Monetary Fund (IMF) has released the July 2025 update to its World Economic Outlook (WEO).

    IMF releases World Economic Outlook (WEO)

    About World Economic Outlook (WEO):

    • Published By: International Monetary Fund (IMF)
    • Frequency: Biannual (April, October) + updates in January and July
    • Purpose: Provides global forecasts on GDP, inflation, trade, and policy trends
    • Data Sources: IMF consultations with member nations and internal models
    • Audience: Governments, institutions, investors, researchers
    • July 2025 Update Title: “Global Economy: Tenuous Resilience amid Persistent Uncertainty”

    Key Highlights – July 2025 Update:

    • Global Growth Projections:
      • 2025: 3.0% (↑ from 2.8% in April)
      • 2026: 3.1% (↑ from 3.0%)
    • Despite multiple shocks—COVID-19, the Ukraine war, tariff increases—global growth continues.
      However, resilience remains fragile due to:

      • US–China tariff tensions and rising protectionism
      • Conflicts in Ukraine and the Middle East
      • High public debt in advanced economies is raising interest rates
    • Country Forecasts for 2025:  United States: 1.9%,  China: 4.8% (↑ from 4.0%),  Euro Area: 1.0%,  Germany: 0.1%,  United Kingdom: 1.2%,  Japan: 0.7%,  Russia: 0.9%,  Pakistan: 2.7%.

    India – The Bright Spot:

    • Growth Rate: 2023: 9.2%;  2024: 6.5%;  2025: 6.4% (strongest among major economies).
    • Drivers of Growth:
      • Robust domestic demand
      • Strong services and manufacturing output
      • Effective inflation and monetary policy management
    • Strategic Position:
      • Set to overtake several advanced economies in GDP size
      • Viewed globally as a “bright spot” amid persistent uncertainties
    [UPSC 2014] Which of the following organisations brings out the publication known as ‘World Economic Outlook?

    Options: (a) The International Monetary Fund * (b)The United Nations Development Programme (c) The World Economic Forum (d) The World Bank

     

  • Skilling India – Skill India Mission,PMKVY, NSDC, etc.

    What are Skill Impact Bonds (SIB)?

    Why in the News?

    Skill Impact Bonds (SIB) were recently highlighted by the Skill Development Ministry.

    About the Skill Impact Bond:

    • Launched: November 2021
    • Nature: India’s first Development Impact Bond (DIB) focused on employment-linked skill development
    • Lead Agency: National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC), under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
    • Collaborators: British Asian Trust, HSBC India, Michael & Susan Dell Foundation
    • Target: Train and place 50,000 youth over 4 years, with 62% women participation
    • How it Works:
      • Risk Investors: Provide upfront capital to training providers
      • Training Providers: Deliver skill training and ensure job placements
      • Outcome Funders: Repay investors only if job outcomes are achieved
      • Evaluators: Independently assess outcomes via CATI surveys and document verification

    Key Features:

    • Outcome-Focused Approach: Measures success by certification, placement, and 3-month retention, not just enrolment
    • Eligibility Criteria:
      • Age: 18–40 years; Education: Undergraduate or below
      • Status: Unemployed or earning below ₹15,000/month, or household income below ₹25,000/month
    • Sectoral Coverage: Retail, Healthcare, Apparel, Logistics, Information Technology & IT-enabled Services, Banking, Financial Services & Insurance.
    • Women-Focused Design: Ensures 62% female participation to bridge the gender employment gap
    [UPSC 2018] With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements:

    1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.

    2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.

    3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Options: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only* (d) 1, 2 and 3