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Type: Prelims Only

  • Supreme Court Verdict on OBC Creamy Layer Criterion

    Why in the News

    The Supreme Court of India ruled that income alone cannot determine the “creamy layer” among OBCs, and clarified how children of private sector and PSU employees should be treated in comparison with those of government servants. The judgment was delivered by Justices P. S. Narasimha and R. Mahadevan.

    What is the “Creamy Layer”?

    • The concept emerged from the landmark Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992).
    • It excludes the economically and socially advanced members of the OBC category from reservation benefits.
    • Currently, the income ceiling for creamy layer is ₹8 lakh per year.

    What the Supreme Court Said

    1. Income Cannot Be the Sole Criterion

    • The Court held that salary income alone cannot determine creamy layer status.
    • The social position and post of the parents must also be considered.

    2. Equality Between Government and Private Sector Employees

    • The Court addressed discrimination created by a 2004 government clarification:
    • Earlier:
      • Salary of private sector and PSU employees was counted in income.
      • Salary of government employees was not counted.
    • The Court ruled this creates “hostile discrimination” between similarly placed OBC candidates.

    This violates equality principles under:

    • Article 14 of the Constitution of India
    • Article 15 of the Constitution of India
    • Article 16 of the Constitution of India

    What Changes After the Verdict

    • Equal Treatment
      • Children of PSU and private sector employees will now be assessed similar to government employees, considering the status of the post, not only income.

    Benefits for Affected Candidates

    • Candidates previously denied OBC status in exams (like the Civil Services Examination) may now receive benefits.
    • The Court allowed the government to create supernumerary posts if necessary to accommodate them.

    Background of the Issue

    • 1993 DoPT guidelines excluded salary and agricultural income while determining creamy layer.
    • A 2004 clarification included salary income for private/PSU employees, causing the dispute.
    [2023] Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration. Statement-II : Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
  • Right To Privacy

    Supreme Court to Examine Definition of “Personal Data” under DPDP Law

    Why in the News

    The Supreme Court of India has agreed to examine what constitutes “personal data” and “public data” under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, amid concerns that the law may restrict access to information under the Right to Information Act, 2005.

    Background of the Case

    • The petition was filed by journalist Geeta Seshu and the Software Freedom Law Center India.
    • It was argued by senior advocate Indira Jaising.

    The petition claims the DPDP law may:

    • Restrict journalists’ access to information in the public interest
    • Allow excessive state surveillance
    • Weaken transparency provisions under RTI.

    Issues Raised in the Petition

    1. Restriction on RTI Access

    • Section 44(3) of the DPDP Act allegedly blocks disclosure of personal information through RTI requests.
    • The term “public interest” has reportedly been removed, making access to information harder.

    2. Lack of Clear Definitions

    • The petition argues the law does not clearly define: Personal data, Public data, and Information. This ambiguity may allow authorities to deny access to important information.

    3. Compensation Concerns

    • Penalties for data breaches go to the Consolidated Fund of India.
    • Individuals whose data is violated do not receive direct compensation.

    Court’s Observations

    The Bench headed by Surya Kant said:

    • A balance must be maintained between privacy and transparency.
    • Data privacy should not undermine the public’s right to information.
    • The Court also noted that data has become a major economic and strategic resource, requiring careful regulation.

    What Happens Next

    • The petitioners have been asked to frame specific legal questions.
    • The case will be heard further on March 23, 2026.

    Significance

    • The case could shape how privacy laws interact with RTI in India.
    • It may clarify the scope of personal data in governance and journalism.
    • The judgment could influence the future of digital rights and transparency in India.
    [2024] Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy? (a) Article 15  (b) Article 16  (c) Article 19  (d) Article 21
  • Foreign Policy Watch: India-Middle East

    IEA Announces Record Release of Strategic Oil Stocks

    Why in the News

    The International Energy Agency announced a record release of 400 million barrels of oil from strategic reserves to stabilise global markets after oil prices surged due to the US-Israel war with Iran.

    Key Points

    • Largest Release Ever
      • IEA’s 32 member countries agreed to release 400 million barrels of oil.
      • This is the largest coordinated release in the agency’s history.
      • It is the sixth emergency release since the IEA was created in 1974 after the oil crisis.
      • India is not a full member of the IEA.
    • Reason for the Decision
      • The conflict disrupted oil supply routes in the Middle East.
      • Tanker movement through the Strait of Hormuz has been blocked or restricted.
      • Around 20 million barrels per day of oil flows are affected.
    • Contribution by Countries
      • Member countries will release oil based on their national circumstances.
      • Japan plans to release about 80 million barrels from its reserves.
    • Market Reaction
      • Oil prices initially fell but rebounded later.
      • Markets doubt whether the release will offset the large supply disruption caused by the conflict.
    • Comparison with Earlier Crisis
      • During the Russia–Ukraine War, IEA countries released 182.7 million barrels, previously the largest coordinated action.

    Strategic Oil Reserves

    • IEA member countries collectively hold over 1.2 billion barrels in emergency reserves.
    • An additional 600 million barrels are held by industry under government obligations.

    Significance

    • Aims to stabilise global oil prices and supply.
    • Demonstrates international coordination during energy crises.
    • Highlights global vulnerability to disruptions in key energy transit routes like the Strait of Hormuz.
    In the context of global oil prices, “Brent crude oil” is frequently referred to in the news. What does this term imply? It is a major classification of crude oil. It is sourced from the North Sea. It does not contain sulphur. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
  • Festivals, Dances, Theatre, Literature, Art in News

    National Book Trust’s India@75 Series Highlights Forgotten Figures

    Why in the News

    New books in the India@75 series are bringing attention to overlooked scientists, freedom fighters, and social leaders, such as Anna Mani, whose contributions had received limited public recognition.

    About the India@75 Series

    • Launched during Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav.
    • The series aims to document India’s historical journey before and after independence.
    • Categories in the Series: The books are divided into four themes: People, Places, Events, and Themes

    Focus on Unsung Personalities

    • Under the People category, the series highlights both famous and lesser known figures such as:
      • Anna Mani
      • Janaki Ammal
      • Dhyan Chand
      • Minoo Masani
      • Rani Chennamma

    Anna Mani

    • Known as India’s “weather woman.”
    • Designed and standardised more than 100 meteorological instruments.
    • Contributed significantly to meteorology, solar radiation research, and wind energy studies.

    Janaki Ammal

    • Full name: Edavaleth Kakkat Janaki Ammal (1897–1984).
    • One of India’s first women botanists and cytogeneticists.
    • Known for pioneering work in plant breeding and genetics.

    Dhyan Chand

    • Born: 1905, Prayagraj; died: 1979.
    • Known as the “Wizard of Hockey.”
    • One of the greatest hockey players in history.

    Minoo Masani

    • Full name: Minocher Rustom Masani (1905–1998).
    • A prominent Indian liberal political leader and writer.
    • Co-founder of the Swatantra Party in 1959 with C. Rajagopalachari.
    • Advocated free markets, individual liberty, and democratic values.

    Rani Chennamma

    • Born: 1778 in present-day Karnataka.
    • Queen of the Kittur.
    • Role in Freedom Struggle: Led an armed rebellion against the British East India Company in 1824.
      • Opposed the British refusal to recognize her adopted heir to the throne.
    [2023] Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards: 1. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award : For the most spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over period of last four years 2. Arjuna Award : For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson 3. Dronacharya Award : To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams 4. Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar : To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four
  • International Space Agencies – Missions and Discoveries

    Starship Delays May Affect NASA’s Moon Landing Timeline

    Why in the News

    A report by NASA’s Inspector General warns that delays in SpaceX Starship could affect the timeline of the Artemis Program, which aims to land humans on the Moon before 2030.

    Background: Artemis Moon Mission

    • NASA is working with private companies like SpaceX and Blue Origin
    • The Artemis programme aims to establish sustainable human missions to the Moon and eventually support missions to Mars.
    • Originally, the Moon landing under Artemis III was targeted for 2024, but delays have pushed the timeline to around 2028 or later.

    Why It Is Difficult

    • Starship uses liquid methane and liquid oxygen as fuel. These must be stored at cryogenic temperatures below −150°C.
    • The system must perform multiple docking and fuel transfers in Low Earth Orbit (LEO).
    • LEO already has heavy satellite traffic, increasing operational risk.
    [2011] An artificial satellite orbiting around the Earth does not fall down. This is so because the attraction of Earth (a) does not exist at such a distance. (b) is neutralized by the attraction of the moon. (c) provides the necessary speed for its steady motion. (d) provides the necessary acceleration for its motion.
  • Euthanasia Mercy Killing

    Supreme Court Upholds Right to Die with Dignity

    Why in the News

    The Supreme Court of India allowed withdrawal of life-sustaining treatment for Harish Rana, reaffirming the right to die with dignity under Article 21 of the Constitution of India. The judgment was delivered by Justices J. B. Pardiwala and K. V. Viswanathan.

    Key Features of the Judgment

    1. Withdrawal of Life Support Allowed

    • The Court permitted withdrawal of Clinically Assisted Nutrition and Hydration (CANH) for a patient in a Persistent Vegetative State (PVS).
    • This allows the natural process of death rather than artificially prolonging life.

    2. Replacement of the Term “Passive Euthanasia”

    • The Court clarified terminology: Active euthanasia remains illegal in India.
      • The earlier term passive euthanasia will now be called “withholding or withdrawal of medical treatment.”

    3. Structured Medical Process Required

    Withdrawal of life support must not be a single act. It must involve:

    • A structured palliative care plan
    • Medical assessment of whether treatment is futile or non-beneficial
    • Ensuring the patient does not suffer unnecessary pain.

    4. Medical Board Review

    • Primary and secondary medical boards must examine such cases.
    • If both boards approve withdrawal, hospitals must inform the Judicial Magistrate of First Class.

    5. Focus on Patient’s Best Interest

    The Court clarified the test:

    • Not whether it is better for the patient to die
    • But whether it is better not to artificially prolong life through futile treatment.

    Legal Background

    • The ruling implements guidelines laid down in the landmark case: Common Cause v. Union of India (2018)
    • That case recognised:
      • Right to die with dignity
      • Living wills or advance medical directives

    Court’s Recommendations

    The Court urged the Government of India to enact a specific law governing withdrawal of life support and end-of-life care.

    Significance

    • Strengthens the interpretation of Article 21 to include dignified death.
    • Clarifies procedures for end-of-life medical decisions.
    • Balances medical ethics, patient autonomy, and constitutional rights.
    [2024] Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy? (a) Article 15 (b) Article 16 (c) Article 19 (d) Article 21
  • Parliament – Sessions, Procedures, Motions, Committees etc

    Lok Sabha Debates Motion to Remove Speaker

    Why in the News

    The Lok Sabha has taken up a resolution moved by Opposition MPs seeking the removal of Om Birla, leading to intense debate between the Treasury and Opposition benches.

    Key Developments

    • The motion was initiated by Congress leaders including Gaurav Gogoi, Mohammad Jawed, K. Suresh, and Mallu Ravi.
    • The Opposition alleged partisan behaviour and lack of neutrality by the Speaker.
    • The government defended the Speaker, with Kiren Rijiju calling the motion an “attack on democracy.”
    • The debate has been allotted 10 hours, after which the House will vote on the motion.
    • Amit Shah is expected to intervene in the debate.

    Procedure for Removal of Lok Sabha Speaker

    The removal of the Speaker is governed by Article 94 of the Constitution of India.

    • Notice of Motion: A written notice must be given at least 14 days in advance.
    • Support for Admission: At least 50 members must support the motion for it to be admitted in the House.
    • Presiding Officer
      • During the discussion, the Speaker does not preside over the House.
      • A member from the Panel of Chairpersons presides instead.
    • Debate and Voting: The motion is debated in the House.
      • It must be passed by a majority of the members present and voting.
    • Outcome: If the motion is passed, the Speaker ceases to hold office immediately.

    Constitutional Significance

    • The Speaker is expected to maintain neutrality and impartiality while conducting proceedings.
    • Removal motions are rare and politically sensitive, as they question the neutrality of the Chair and the functioning of parliamentary democracy.
    [2025] Consider the following statements: I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/ her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution. II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately. III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the (then) Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III
  • Tourism Sector

    Kashmir Promotes Almond and Tulip Bloom to Revive Tourism

    Why in the News

    The government of Jammu and Kashmir is promoting almond blossoms and tulip blooms to revive tourism in Kashmir after a decline in tourist arrivals following a terror attack in 2025.

    Key Initiative

    Chief Minister Omar Abdullah will inaugurate a Spring Festival at Badamwari Garden to showcase blooming almond trees and attract tourists.

    Badamwari Almond Garden

    • Located in Srinagar.
    • Spread over 300 kanals (about 37.5 acres).
    • Dates back to before the 14th century.
    • Situated near the Hari Parbat area.

    Tulip Festival

    • Tulip is a flowering plant belonging to the genus Tulipa in the lily family (Liliaceae). It is one of the most popular ornamental flowers in the world, known for its bright colors and simple cup shaped petals.
    • The Indira Gandhi Memorial Tulip Garden will open to visitors from March 16.
    • Key features:
      • 1.8 million tulip bulbs planted.
      • 70–75 tulip varieties.
      • Often compared to the Keukenhof.
    • In April 2025, the garden attracted 8.25 lakh visitors.

    Tourism Impact

    • Tourism contributes about 7% to Jammu and Kashmir’s Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP).
    • Tourist arrivals dropped from 26 lakh in 2024 to 11.16 lakh in 2025 after the Pahalgam terror attack and subsequent security concerns.
    • Following a security audit, major tourist destinations have reopened.

    Objective of the Initiative

    • Revive tourism in Kashmir.
    • Promote spring flower tourism similar to Japan’s cherry blossom festivals.
    • Highlight Kashmir’s floriculture and natural beauty.
    Consider the following plants: Groundnut Horse-gram Soybean How many of the above belong to the pea family? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None
  • The Crisis In The Middle East

    India Looks to New Gas Sources to Ease LPG Shortage

    Why in the News

    Amid supply disruptions caused by the West Asia conflict, officials say India is turning to new sources of natural gas such as the United States and Norway to address the current shortage of cooking gas (LPG).

    Key Developments

    • India is facing a temporary shortage of LPG and LNG supplies.
    • The government has increased domestic LPG production by about 10%.
    • Oil refineries have been directed to prioritise propane and butane for LPG production.
      • This directive was issued by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.

    Diversifying Gas Imports

    • India is exploring imports from: United States and Norway
    • Earlier, a major share of LNG imports came from Qatar.

    Price Changes

    • Earlier LNG price: $6–8 per MMBtu
    • Current price: around $15 per MMBtu
    • At higher prices, imports from distant suppliers become economically viable despite longer shipping distances.

    Supply Challenges

    • Shipping LNG from the U.S. or Norway can take about two months.
    • This may cause a short-term supply gap before new cargoes arrive.
    • However, officials expect the shortage to be temporary.

    Government Priority

    • The government has prioritised domestic LPG supply for households over commercial users.
    • To address concerns of hotels and restaurants, a committee of oil marketing companies (OMCs) has been set up to review requests for commercial LPG supplies.

    Key Terms

    • LPG (Liquefied Petroleum Gas)
      • Mainly composed of propane and butane.
      • Used widely as cooking fuel in households.
    • LNG (Liquefied Natural Gas): Natural gas (mostly methane) cooled to −160°C to transport it in liquid form.

    Significance for India

    • India imports a large share of its energy requirements.
    • Disruptions in West Asia affect fuel supply, prices, and energy security.
    • Diversifying suppliers helps reduce dependence on a single region.
    [2012] In India the overall Index of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eight Core Industries have combined weight of 37.90%. Which of the following are among those Eight Core Industries? 1. Cement 2. Fertilizers 3. Natural Gas 4. Refinery products 5. Textiles Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 5 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
  • Electoral Reforms In India

    Opposition Considers Impeachment Motion Against CEC Gyanesh Kumar

    Why in the News

    • Opposition parties, including the Indian National Congress and All India Trinamool Congress, are discussing the possibility of moving an impeachment motion against Gyanesh Kumar in Parliament.
    • Congress leader K C Venugopal stated that the entire Opposition will take a collective decision on the proposal.

    Impeachment Process of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC)

    • The removal procedure is provided under Article 324(5) of the Constitution of India.
    • Grounds for Removal: The Chief Election Commissioner can only be removed on grounds similar to those of a Supreme Court judge, mainly: Proved misbehaviour and Incapacity.

    Step-by-Step Process

    • Notice of Motion: A removal motion must be signed by:
      • At least 100 members of the Lok Sabha, or
      • At least 50 members of the Rajya Sabha.
    • Admission of Motion
      • The motion is submitted to the Speaker of Lok Sabha or Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
      • They may accept or reject the motion.
    • Investigation: If admitted, an investigative committee is formed to examine the charges.
    • Parliamentary Voting: If the committee finds the charges valid, the motion is debated and voted upon in both Houses.
    • Special Majority Required: Removal requires:
      • Majority of total membership of the House, and
      • Two-thirds majority of members present and voting.
    • Final Removal: After both Houses pass the motion, the President of India issues the removal order.
    [2017] Consider the following statements: The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only