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Type: Prelims Only

  • Water Management – Institutional Reforms, Conservation Efforts, etc.

    Pazhayar River Pollution in Nagercoil

    26 November 2025 | Prelims Only | Environment
    Mains Paper 3: Conservation, Environmental Pollution & Degradation, Eia

    Why in the News?

    • Rampant sewage discharge into the Pazhayar River in Nagercoil (Tamil Nadu), especially near Ozhuginesary, has raised serious environmental and public health concerns.
    • A 2024 situational report highlighted severe domestic, agricultural, and industrial (rubber processing) pollution in the river.
    • Nagercoil Corporation has initiated steps to seal sewage inlets, but pollution remains widespread.

    About the Pazhayar River

    • A perennial river in Kanniyakumari district, Tamil Nadu.
    • Part of the Kodhayar River Basin, covering 1,646.964 sq km.
    • Basin lies entirely within Tamil Nadu, with a small stretch in Radhapuram (Tirunelveli district).

    Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for (2017)

    (a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood 

    (b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems 

    (c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems 

    (d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions

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  • Global Geological And Climatic Events

    Volcanic Eruption in Ethiopia and Impact on India

    26 November 2025 | Prelims Only | Geography
    Mains Paper 1: Geographical Features & Their Location, Important Geophysical Phenomena

    Why in the news?

    The Hayli Gubbi volcano in Ethiopia’s Afar region erupted on 23 November 2025 after nearly 12,000 years of dormancy, producing a massive ash plume rising to ~14 km (45,000 ft). High-level winds transported volcanic ash across the Red Sea and Arabian Peninsula towards western and northern India, causing temporary disruption in aviation operations.

    Key Facts: Location & Geological Background 

    Hayli Gubbi Volcano

    • Type: Shield volcano
    • Location: Afar Region, Ethiopia (part of the East African Rift System)
    • Dormancy: Last known activity ~10,000–12,000 years ago (Holocene threshold)
    • Geological Setting: Lies on the triple junction where the Arabian, Nubian, and Somali plates are diverging → high tectonic activity.

    East African Rift System (EARS)

    • A major continental rift zone.
    • Known for active volcanism (Erta Ale, Dabbahu, Nabro, etc.).
    • Possible future site of a new ocean basin due to plate divergence.

    Impact on India

    1. Flight Disruptions

    • Several international flights cancelled or delayed (Delhi, Mumbai, Hyderabad, Kochi).
    • Airlines: Air India, IndiGo, Akasa Air initiated precautionary measures.
    • Aircraft inspections ordered for those that flew through potentially affected air corridors.

    2. Airspace Management

    • Civil Aviation Ministry, Air Traffic Control (ATC), and the India Meteorological Department (IMD) issued continuous advisories.\
    • No major safety threat, but routing adjustments and cancellations made as precaution.

    3. No Impact on Local Weather or Air Quality

    • IMD clarified:
      • Ash remained in upper troposphere.
      • No impact on ground-level AQI.
      • Delhi’s poor air quality is unrelated, caused by local pollution.

    4. Clearance Timeline

    • Ash plume expected to move completely towards China by 7:30 pm, Nov 25.

    Why Aviation Avoids Volcanic Ash? 

    • Ash melts inside jet engines → forms glassy deposits → engine flameout.
    • Damages navigation systems & windshields.
    • Reduces visibility.
    • Can cause stalls, loss of thrust, and total engine failure.

    Relevant Organisation:
     ▶ Volcanic Ash Advisory Centers (VAACs) issue global alerts—here, Toulouse VAAC monitored the plume.

    Consider the following: (2024)

    1. Pyroclastic debris 

    2. Ash and dust 

    3. Nitrogen compounds 

    4. Sulphur compounds 

    How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions? 

    (a) Only one 

    (b) Only two 

    (c) Only three 

    (d) Only four

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  • Capital Markets: Challenges and Developments

    Capital Gains Accounts (Second Amendment) Scheme, 2025

    26 November 2025 | Prelims Only | Economics
    Mains Paper 3: Effects Of Liberalization On The Economy, Changes In Industrial Policy and their effects on Industrial Growth, Government Budgeting, Indian Economy

    Why in the news? 

    The Ministry of Finance has notified the Capital Gains Accounts (Second Amendment) Scheme, 2025, introducing major changes to the existing Capital Gains Account Scheme (CGAS), 1988. The amendments aim to modernise processes, expand banking access, and increase clarity for taxpayers seeking capital gains exemptions.

    About Capital Gains Account Scheme (CGAS), 1988

    • Launched by the Central Government in 1988.
    • Objective: To help taxpayers claim exemptions on long-term capital gains when reinvestment cannot be completed before the ITR filing due date.
    • Linked mainly to Section 54, 54F, and related provisions of the Income Tax Act.

    Why CGAS is Needed?

    • Exemption requires reinvestment of capital gains within:
      • 2 years (purchase of property)
      • 3 years (construction of property)
    • If this period extends beyond the ITR filing deadline, the taxpayer can temporarily deposit unutilised gains in CGAS to keep the exemption claim valid.

    Important Conditions

    • Deposit must be made before filing Income Tax Return.
    • Money deposited is treated as reinvested for exemption.
    • If the amount is not utilised within the stipulated period, it becomes taxable long-term capital gains in that year.
    • Only long-term capital gains qualify — short-term gains are NOT eligible.

    Who Can Deposit in CGAS?

    • Any person with long-term capital gains, including: Individuals, HUFs, Companies, Firms, Trusts, and Any eligible taxpayer seeking exemption
    • Mainly used by property sellers who need more time to reinvest.

    Capital Gains Accounts (Second Amendment) Scheme, 2025 — Key Changes

    • Expansion of Authorized Banks: Previously limited mostly to Public Sector Banks + IDBI Bank.
      • Now extended to 19 private and small finance banks at all non-rural branches.
    • Non-rural branch condition: Branch must be located in an area with population ≥ 10,000 (2011 Census).
      • Rural branches cannot open CGAS accounts.
    • Wider Definition of Electronic Payments: Electronic deposits can now be made through: Credit cards, Debit cards, Net banking, IMPS, UPI, RTGS, NEFT and BHIM Aadhaar Pay.This modernises the earlier narrow definition of “electronic mode”.
    • Online Closure of CGAS Accounts (From April 1, 2027): Closure requests can be submitted electronically using:
      • Digital Signature (DSC)
      • Electronic Verification Code (EVC)
      • Earlier: Closure only through physical branches.
    • Clarification on Effective Date of Deposit: For cheque/DD/electronic transfers, the date of receipt of the payment instrument along with account application at the Deposit Office is treated as the effective date.Removes ambiguity around last-day deposits for tax exemption.
    • Electronic Statements Permitted: Banks can now issue electronic statements instead of physical passbooks.
      • Aligns CGAS with general digital banking norms.
    •  Extension of CGAS to Section 54GA: CGAS can now be used for exemptions under Section 54GA:

      • Relates to capital gains arising from shifting an industrial undertaking from an urban area to a Special Economic Zone (SEZ).
      • Broadens applicability beyond property-related reinvestments.
    Consider the following statements: (2025)

    I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government. 

    II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts. 

    III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government. 

    Which of the statements given above are correct? 

    (a) I and II only 

    (b) II and III only 

    (c) I and III only 

    (d) I, II and III

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  • New Species of Plants and Animals Discovered

    African Grey Parrot Trade in India

    26 November 2025 | Prelims Only | Environment
    Mains Paper 3: Conservation, Environmental Pollution & Degradation, Eia

    Why in the News?

    • A series of RTI applications filed by The Hindu across 19 States/UTs revealed that most State Forest Departments have no records of breeders, pet shops, or ownership registrations for the African Grey Parrot, despite the species being widely available in pet markets.
    • Only Kerala reported receiving 17 breeder licence applications through the PARIVESH portal, exposing major gaps in India’s monitoring of exotic species trade.

    About Species Profile

    • African Grey Parrot (Psittacus erithacus)
    • IUCN Status: Endangered
    • CITES Status: Appendix I (Highest level of protection; commercial international trade highly restricted)
    • WPA 1972: Listed under Schedule IV (post-2022 amendments)

    Legal & Regulatory Framework (India)

    Living Animal Species (Reporting and Registration) Rules, 2024

    • Mandatory registration of all exotic live species on PARIVESH 2.0.
    • Applies to: Pet owners, Pet shops and Breeders.

    Breeders of Species Licence Rules, 2023

    To breed any CITES Appendix I species, an applicant must possess:

    • Breeding Licence from State Chief Wildlife Warden
    • CITES Import Permit
    • DGFT Import Licence Number
    • NOC from State Chief Wildlife Warden prior to import

    Wildlife Protection Act (WPA), 1972

    • African Grey Parrot → Schedule IV
    • Illegal possession/trade punishable under WPA
    With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct? (2015)

    (1) IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments. 

    (2) IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments. 

    (3) CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws. 

    Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

    (a) 1 only 

    (b) 2 and 3 only 

    (c) 1 and 3 only 

    (d) 1, 2 and 3

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  • Food Safety Standards – FSSAI, food fortification, etc.

    Auramine O Adulteration in Food: A Persistent Food-Safety Challenge in India

    26 November 2025 | Prelims Only | Science and Technology
    Mains Paper 3: Awareness in various sc and tech fields, Food Processing & Related Industries In India

    Why in the News?

    • Recent inspections by state food-safety departments and laboratory analyses by academic institutions have once again detected the presence of Auramine O — a banned industrial dye — in sweets, savoury items, and brightly coloured chickpeas sold in public.

    What is Auramine O?

    • A synthetic bright yellow industrial dye.
    • Uses: textiles, leather, printing inks, paper, microbiological staining.
    • Not permitted as food colour in India, USA, EU, or most countries.
    • IARC Classification: Possibly carcinogenic to humans (Group 2B).

    Why is Auramine O Harmful?

    • Toxicological risks:
      • Liver & kidney damage
      • Spleen enlargement
      • Mutagenic effects
      • Potential carcinogenicity
      • Organ lesions even at low doses

    How Does Auramine Enter the Food Chain?

    • Cheap industrial dyes are sold informally in markets.
    • Used by small vendors to mimic:
      • Saffron
      • Turmeric
      • Approved synthetic colours
    • Usage spikes during festivals when brightly coloured sweets/snacks are in demand.
    • Lack of awareness and cost pressure lead to misuse.

    Commonly Adulterated Food Items

    • Bright yellow chickpeas
    • Laddus, peda, halwa
    • Namkeen, mixtures
    • Pickles and condiments

    Regulatory Framework – India

    Food Safety and Standards Act (2006)

    • Defines adulteration.
    • Penalties: fines + imprisonment (for injury/death).

    FSSAI Initiatives

    • Sampling & crackdown during festive seasons.
    • Seizures of illegal dyes and prosecution.
    • New order: bold, larger nutritional information on labels.
    • Awareness programs for:
      • Micro and small enterprises
      • Street vendors

     

    Consider the following statements: (2018)

    1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954. 
    2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. 

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

    1. 1 only 
    2. 2 only 
    3. Both 1 and 2 
    4. Neither 1 nor 2

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  • Judicial Appointments Conundrum Post-NJAC Verdict

    Justice Surya Kant Sworn in as the 53rd Chief Justice of India (CJI)

    25 November 2025 | Prelims Only | Polity
    Mains Paper 2: Executive & Judiciary

    Why in the News?

    Justice Surya Kant took oath as the 53rd Chief Justice of India (CJI) on November 24, 2025, administered by President Droupadi Murmu at Rashtrapati Bhavan.

    About Justice Surya Kant

    • Born: 10 February 1962, Hisar, Haryana.
    • Youngest Advocate General of Haryana (appointed 2000).
    • Judge, Punjab & Haryana High Court (2004).
    • Chief Justice, Himachal Pradesh High Court (2018).
    • Appointed to Supreme Court: 24 May 2019 (along with Justice B.R. Gavai).

    Tenure

    • Will serve until 2 February 2027 — a little over one year.

    Major Priorities as the 53rd CJI

    • Reduce pendency of 90,000+ cases in the Supreme Court to a “manageable number.”
    • Address growing trend:
      • Litigants bypassing High Courts and approaching SC directly.
      • Repeated “miscellaneous applications” causing prolonged litigation

    Major Cases Involving Justice Surya Kant

    • Abrogation of Article 370 (J&K’s special status removed).
    • Electoral Bonds Case – Bench struck down the scheme as unconstitutional.
    • Pegasus spyware case.
    • Suspension of sedition law deliberations.
    • Granted conditional interim bail to Ashish Mishra (Lakhimpur Kheri incident).

    Procedure for Selection of the Chief Justice of India (CJI)

    Constitutional Basis

    • Article 124(2) of the Constitution deals with the appointment of Supreme Court judges (including the CJI). The CJI is appointed by the President of India.

    Seniority Convention

    • By long-standing constitutional convention, the most senior judge of the Supreme Court is appointed as the next CJI.
    • Seniority = date of appointment to the Supreme Court Bench.

    Role of the Collegium

    When the CJI’s post is falling vacant:

    • The outgoing CJI recommends the name of the senior-most SC judge to the Government of India.
    • This recommendation is part of the Collegium system, but only the CJI’s advice is required, not the full Collegium.

    Role of the Law Ministry

    • The Ministry of Law & Justice processes the recommendation.
    • Sends it to the Prime Minister, who advises the President.

    Appointment by the President

    • The President formally appoints the recommended judge as the Chief Justice of India.
    • Appointment is notified in the Gazette.

    Oath of Office

    • The President administers the oath of office to the new CJI at Rashtrapati Bhavan.
    • Oath is under Article 124(6).

    Tenure

    • The CJI holds office until the age of 65.

    Q. With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements:

    1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with the prior permission of the President of India.

    2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

    [A] 1 only 

    [B] 2 only 

    [C] Both 1 and 2 

    [D] Neither 1 nor 2

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  • Defence Sector – DPP, Missions, Schemes, Security Forces, etc.

    INS Sahyadri–HMAS Ballarat in AUSINDEX 2025

    25 November 2025 | Prelims Only | International Relations
    Mains Paper 2: Bilateral, Regional and Global Groupings and agreements involving India

     Why in the News?

    INS Sahyadri of the Indian Navy and HMAS Ballarat of the Royal Australian Navy participated in the AUSINDEX 2025 bilateral maritime exercise in the Northern Pacific, strengthening India–Australia defence cooperation and enhancing interoperability.

    What is AUSINDEX?  

    • Bilateral naval exercise between India and Australia
    • First held in 2015
    • Aims at maritime cooperation, interoperability, and security
    • Conducted alternately in India and Australia / designated oceanic regions

    AUSINDEX 2025 

    • Location: Northern Pacific
    • Participants:
    • INS Sahyadri – Shivalik-class guided-missile stealth frigate
    • HMAS Ballarat – Anzac-class frigate
    • Focus areas:
        • Anti-submarine warfare (ASW)
        • Gunnery drills
        • Advanced flying operations
        • Joint maritime manoeuvres
    • Objective: Boost interoperability and reaffirm commitment to a free, open, inclusive Indo-Pacific
    With reference to India’s defence, consider the following pairs: (2025)

    I. Dornier-228 : Maritime patrol aircraft 

    II. IL-76 : Supersonic combat aircraft III. C-17 Globemaster 

    III : Military transport aircraft 

    How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 

    (a) Only one 

    (b) Only two 

    (c) All the three 

    (d) None

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  • Internal Security Trends and Incidents

    DRI Seizes 32 kg Methamphetamine in North East

    25 November 2025 | Prelims Only | Internal Security
    Mains Paper 3: Border Area Security Challenges, Organized Crime & Terrorism

    Why in the News?

    The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) has seized 32 kg methamphetamine tablets worth ₹32 crore in two separate operations in Assam and Tripura, exposing the continued use of the Indo–Myanmar route for drug trafficking. Three persons have been arrested under the NDPS Act, 1985.

    About Methamphetamine  

    • A synthetic psychostimulant
    • Known as Ya Ba / Speed pills in Southeast Asia
    • Highly addictive
    • Controlled under Schedule of NDPS Act, 1985

    What is Hydroponic Weed?

    • Marijuana grown in nutrient-rich water systems, not soil
    • Higher potency due to controlled conditions
    • New smuggling trend: carried by air passengers into NE India

    NDPS Act, 1985  

    • Regulates narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances
    • Provides for seizure, arrests, forfeiture
    • Commercial quantity offences: 10–20 years imprisonment
    • Empowered agencies: DRI, NCB, Customs, State Police, BSF, Assam Rifles
    Q: India’s proximity to two of the world’s biggest illicit opium-growing states has enhanced her internal security concerns. Explain the linkages between drug trafficking and other illicit activities such as gunrunning, money laundering and human trafficking. What countermeasures should be taken to prevent the same? (UPSC 2018) 

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  • Dams and Hydroprojects

    HMDA to use bioremediation to clean up Hussainsagar lake

    25 November 2025 | Prelims Only | Environment
    Mains Paper 3: Conservation, Environmental Pollution & Degradation, Eia

    Why in the News?

    The Hyderabad Metropolitan Development Authority (HMDA) has announced a new advanced bioremediation initiative using enzyme solutions and biochar-based Bokashi balls to clean and restore Hussainsagar Lake, which has long suffered from algal blooms, foul odour, sewage inflow, and industrial pollution.

    About Hussainsagar Lake

    • A 16th-century artificial lake in Hyderabad.
    • Faces severe pollution due to:
      • Sewage inflow
      • Nutrient overload (nitrates, phosphates)
      • Industrial waste
    • Problems: algal blooms, foul odour, low Dissolved Oxygen (DO), high Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD).

    What Is Bioremediation?

    • Definition: Use of microorganisms, enzymes, or biological materials to break down pollutants and restore ecosystems.
    • Types relevant here:
      • In-situ bioremediation – treating the lake onsite without removing water.
      • Bio-augmentation – adding microbial cultures to enhance degradation.
      • Aerobic/oxygenation systems – boost DO to improve water quality.

    New Intervention Planned by HMDA

    • Enzyme Solutions

        • Enhance microbial breakdown of organic pollutants.
        • Help reduce nutrient load responsible for algal blooms.

    • Bokashi Balls (with Biochar)

      • Bokashi = fermented organic matter rich in beneficial microbes.
      • Biochar:
        • Carbon-rich material produced from biomass.
        • Increases microbial activity, absorbs toxins, improves water clarity.
      • Purpose:
        • Reduce algae, odour, pathogenic bacteria.
        • Increase water transparency and DO levels.
    In the context of solving pollution problems what is/are the advantage/disadvantages of bioremediation technique? (2017)

    1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature. 

    2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms. 

    3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation. 

    Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

    (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

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  • International Space Agencies – Missions and Discoveries

    Moss Spores Survive Months in Space

    25 November 2025 | Prelims Only | Environment
    Mains Paper 3: Achievements Of Indians In S&T, Awareness in various sc and tech fields

    Why in the news?

    A recent study published in iScience revealed that moss spores (Physcomitrium patens) survived nine months outside the International Space Station (ISS), enduring vacuum, cosmic radiation, microgravity, and temperature extremes. Over 80% of the spores survived and successfully germinated on return to Earth. Scientists estimate moss could survive up to 15 years in space.

    Key Findings of the Study

    • 20,000 moss spores were placed outside the ISS in March 2022.
    • Exposed to: Vacuum, Cosmic radiation, Microgravity and Extreme temperatures
    • After 283 days, the spores were retrieved.
    • Results: 80% survived
      • Among survivors, 89% germinated successfully
      • Chlorophyll levels normal except a 20% drop in chlorophyll a, but not harmful
    • Survival attributed to multiple spore wall layers offering passive protection.

    About the Species

    • Species: Physcomitrium patens
    • Model organism for plant evolutionary studies
    • Mosses are one of the earliest land plants
    • Already known for surviving:
      • Antarctica
      • Volcanic fields
      • Deserts

    Why Moss Survived – Scientific Insight

    • Multiple thick-walled layers → physical shielding
    • Ability to remain in dormant state
    • Natural mechanisms to handle:
      • Radiation
      • Desiccation
      • Freezing and thawing cycles

    Why Is This Significant?

    • Implications for Space Exploration: 
        • Ability to survive harsh space environments → potential role in: Oxygen generation, Humidity control, Soil formation on Moon/Mars.
        • Supports concepts of bioregenerative life-support systems
        • It could be used in terraforming experiments on other celestial bodies

    • Astrobiology

        • Supports the idea that primitive plant life could survive interplanetary transport.
        • Relevant to panspermia hypothesis (life spreading across planets via spores).

    • Long-term Human Habitats

      • Moss can grow with minimal resources
      • Can contribute to:
        • Closed-loop ecosystems
        • Sustainable habitats
        • Psychological well-being in isolated environments (greenery)
    Consider the following statements: (2023)

    1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water. 

    2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water. 

    3. Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3. 

    How many of the above statements are correct? 

    (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None

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