Archives: News

Roads, Highways, Cargo, Air-Cargo and Logistics infrastructure – Bharatmala, LEEP, SetuBharatam, etc.

Why Supreme Court bar unregulated soil extraction for linear projects?

Explained | Polity | Mains Paper 2: Executive & Judiciary

Why in the News?

Recently, the SC revoked the notification given by the Environment Ministry to exempt the extraction of ordinary earth for linear projects, such as road and railway construction.

It was challenged before the National Green Tribunal (NGT), which asked the Ministry to review it within three months. However, the Ministry did not take any action, leading the matter to reach the SC.

What are the linear projects?

Linear projects refer to Construction or Development Projects. It includes the construction of linear structures like utility lines, pipelines, railroad tracks, highways, stormwater channels, and stream restoration activities.

What was the 2020 exemption?

September 2006: The Environment Ministry issued a notification under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, on activities that would require prior Environmental Clearance.
January 2016: A second notification was issued, exempting certain categories of projects from this requirement.
March 2020: It added “Extraction or sourcing or borrowing of ordinary earth for the linear projects such as roads, pipelines, etc” to the list of exempted activities.
- The general purpose of the 2020 notification was to conform to the amendments made to the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, in March 2020, allowing new lessees to continue mining for two years with the statutory clearances and licenses issued to their predecessors.

Nexus between the Judiciary and the Union Government (Ground for Challenges)

- Judicial stand: The SC invalidated the broad and random exception, highlighting that the announcement was rushed during the COVID-19 lockdown without seeking feedback or objections through prior notification.

The exemption granted without incorporating safeguards was deemed arbitrary and violative of Article 14 of the Constitution.

The court emphasized that the absence of safeguards defeats the purpose of the Environment Protection Act (EP Act).

An argument by the center: The Center contended that the exemption was essential “to benefit the general public” and would support “the kumhars (potters), farmers, gram panchayats, banjaras, roads of Gujarat,” and all non-mining activities recognized by the states.
- However, the Apex court stated that the Centre had failed to provide reasons for concluding that the notification was issued in the public interest.

Similar Judicial Scrutiny in the Past:

January 2018: The NGT quashed an exemption offered by the Ministry’s 2016 notification from the requirement of prior EC for building and construction activities having built-up areas of more than 20,000 sq m. According to the Tribunal, there was nothing to suggest an improvement in the quality of the environment to justify the exemption.
July 2015: Underlining that the EP Act mandates prior approval, the NGT struck down two Office Memorandums issued by the Ministry in December 2012 and June 2013 for granting ex-post facto EC to projects under the 2006 notification.
July 2021: Another notification of the Ministry that sought to perpetuate an amnesty window opened for just six months in March 2017 to clear projects under the “violation category” and issued ex-post facto approval to more than 100 projects, until the SC stayed it in January this year.
March 2024: The Kerala HC quashed a 2014 notification that exempted educational institutions and industrial sheds with built-up areas of more than 20,000 sq m from obtaining EC.

Conclusion: The Supreme Court invalidated the Environment Ministry’s exemption for earth extraction in linear projects due to a lack of justification and safeguards, emphasizing compliance with Environmental Clearance to minimize environmental harm, safeguarding the Environment Protection Act’s purpose.

Mains PYQ

Q How does the draft EnvironmentImpact Assessment(EIA)Notification, 2020 differ from the existing EIA Notification, 2006? (UPSC IAS/2020)

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RBI Notifications

90 years of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

Prelims Only | Economics | Mains Paper 3: Indian Economy

Why in the news?

Recently, the RBI celebrated its 90th year in Mumbai, marking a significant milestone.

Dr. Ambedkar’s Role in the Establishment of RBI:

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar’s contributions were particularly notable during the Hilton Young Commission discussions in 1926, where he presented his recommendations based on his book “The Problem of the Rupee – Its Origin and Its Solution.”
These discussions laid the foundation for the establishment of the RBI on April 1, 1935.

About Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

The RBI is the central bank and monetary authority of India.
It was established on April 1, 1935, under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
Its idea was incepted from the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission.
Sir Osborne Arkell Smith, an Australian, served as the inaugural Governor.
He was succeeded by Sir C D Deshmukh, the first Indian to hold the position.
It is a centralized institution for India to effectively regulate its monetary and credit policies.
RBI had its initial headquarters in Kolkata, later moving permanently to Mumbai in 1937.
Initially, the RBI operated as a privately owned entity until its full nationalization in 1949.

Functions and Initiatives:

Monetary Authority: The RBI controls the supply of money in the economy to stabilize exchange rates, maintain a healthy balance of payment, and control inflation.
Issuer of Currency: Sole authority to issue currency and combat circulation of counterfeit notes.
Banker to the Government: Acts as a banker to both the Central and State governments, providing short-term credit and financial advisory services.
Lender of Last Resort: Provides emergency liquidity assistance to banks during crises.
Custodian of Foreign Exchange Reserves: Manages foreign exchange reserves and administers the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA).
Regulator and Supervisor of Payment and Settlement Systems: Oversees payment and settlement systems in the country, ensuring efficiency and security.
Credit Control and Developmental Role: Promotes credit availability to productive sectors and fosters financial infrastructure development.

Transformative Reforms initiated by the RBI

Green Revolution (1960s-1970s): Supported agricultural growth through credit facilities and rural credit accessibility enhancements.
Banks Nationalization (1969): Aimed at aligning banking sector objectives with national policy goals.
Priority Sector Lending (1972): Ensures timely credit flow to key sectors of the economy.
Economic Liberalization (1991): Opened up the economy to global markets, fostering market-oriented growth.
Unified Payment Interface (UPI), 2016: Enabled seamless and instant transactions across India.
Inflation Targeting Framework, 2016: Set inflation targets to guide monetary policy decisions.
Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS), 2019: Launched an integrated bill payment system for customer convenience.
Aadhar-based eKYC (2019): Streamlined customer authentication processes for financial institutions.
Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS), 2020: Provided credit assistance to SMEs affected by the COVID-19 pandemic.
Central Bank Digital Currency (2022): RBI is actively exploring the issuance of a CBDC known as e₹ (digital Rupee).
Cryptocurrency Regulation (2022): RBI has maintained a consistent stance against cryptocurrencies, advocating for an outright ban on them (after China and El Salvador imposed the complete ban). In 2020, the Supreme Court of India removed the ban on cryptocurrencies imposed by RBI.
Payment Vision 2025 Document (2023): The goals and vision of the RBI, are categorised in the Payments Vision 2025 documents into five anchor goalposts – Integrity, Inclusion, Innovation, Institutionalisation and Internationalisation.

PYQ:

2012:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers’ bank. This would imply which of the following?

1. Banks retain their deposits with the RBI.

2. The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need.

3. The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

2013: Consider the following statements:

1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.

2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in public interest.

3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Global Geological And Climatic Events

Negative Leap Second: Climate Change’s Impact on Timekeeping

Prelims Only | Enviro & Biodiversity | Mains Paper 3: Conservation, Environmental Pollution & Degradation, Eia

Why in the news?

A recent publication in the science journal Nature highlights how climate change-induced melting of glaciers and ice sheets is altering the Earth’s rotation, potentially disrupting our timekeeping systems.
Leap seconds were added almost every year between 1972 and 1999 to adjust for Earth’s slowing rotation. But there have only been four added in the last 23 years, and the last time a leap second was added was in 2016.

What is a Leap Second?

A leap second is a one-second adjustment that is occasionally applied to Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) in order to synchronize atomic time with astronomical time, particularly with the Earth’s rotation.
The purpose of adding or subtracting a leap second is to keep International Atomic Time (IAT) (which is extremely precise) in close alignment with astronomical time, which is based on the Earth’s rotation and is subject to slight variations.

There are two types of leap seconds:

Positive Leap Second:
- A positive leap second is added to UTC when the Earth’s rotation slows down slightly, causing the length of a day to exceed 86,400 seconds.
- This type of leap second is necessary to bring UTC back into alignment with the Earth’s rotational time.
- Positive leap seconds are rare and occur less frequently than negative leap seconds.
Negative Leap Second:
- A negative leap second, also known as a deletion or removal of a second, occurs when the Earth’s rotation speeds up slightly, causing the length of a day to be less than 86,400 seconds.
- Negative leap seconds are extremely rare and have only been proposed but never implemented. They are considered hypothetical and have not yet been needed to adjust UTC.
- The concept of negative leap seconds is controversial and requires international agreement and coordination among timekeeping organizations.

International Atomic Time (TAI)

TAI is a high-precision time scale based on the weighted average of atomic clocks (usually involving caesium or rubidium atoms) from various laboratories around the world.
It is one of the primary time scales used for scientific and technical purposes, providing a continuous and uniform time reference that is independent of the Earth’s rotation.
TAI is maintained since 1958 by the International Bureau of Weights and Measures (BIPM) in Paris, France.
Unlike UTC, which is adjusted periodically to account for the Earth’s irregular rotation, TAI is a continuous time scale that does not include any corrections for Earth’s rotation.

How Climate Change causes Negative Leap Second?

Glacial Melting: Accelerating melt rates in Greenland and Antarctica are redistributing weight across the planet, causing a slight deceleration in the Earth’s rotation.
Historical Context: Timekeepers have periodically added leap seconds to clocks worldwide to account for the Earth spinning faster than usual, with 27 instances recorded since the 1970s.
Planned Adjustment: The proposed “negative leap second” adjustment, scheduled for 2026, may be postponed until 2029 or later due to the recent deceleration in the Earth’s rotation.Top of Form

Practice MCQ:

What is a Leap Second?

(a) It is a periodic adjustment added to International Atomic Time (TAI) to compensate for irregularities in Earth’s rotation.

(b) It is an extra second added to Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) to synchronize atomic time with astronomical time.

(d) It is a term used to describe the synchronization of atomic clocks with the oscillations of subatomic particles.

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Port Infrastructure and Shipping Industry – Sagarmala Project, SDC, CEZ, etc.

Paradip Port: India’s Leading Major Port in Cargo Handling

Prelims Only | Economics | Mains Paper 3: Infrastructure: Energy, Ports, Roads, Airports, Railways Etc.

Why in the news?

Paradip Port in Odisha has made history by becoming India’s largest major port in terms of cargo volumes, surpassing Deendayal Port Authority in Gujarat during FY24.

About Paradip Port

Paradip Port is situated at the confluence of the Mahanadi River and the Bay of Bengal in the Jagatsinghpur district of Odisha.
It has a natural deep-water harbor, allowing it to accommodate large vessels and handle bulk cargo efficiently.
The port was commissioned in 1966 to serve as a gateway for the maritime trade of eastern India.
Paradip Port Trust, a statutory body under the Major Port Trusts Act, 1963, manages and operates the port.

Key Features of the Port

Infrastructure: It is equipped with modern facilities for handling a variety of cargo, including dry bulk, liquid bulk, containerized cargo, and general cargo.
Deep-Draft Port: The port has extensive berthing facilities and cargo-handling equipment capable of handling millions of tonnes of cargo annually.
Strategic Importance: Paradip Port serves as a vital link for the export and import trade of eastern and central India, contributing significantly to the region’s economic development.
Connectivity: The port is well-connected to major cities and industrial centers in Odisha and neighbouring states through road and rail networks.

Key Feats Achieved

Cargo Throughput: Paradip Port achieved a record-breaking cargo throughput of 145.38 million metric tonnes (MMT) in FY2023-24, surpassing Deendayal Port.
Coastal Shipping Traffic: The port recorded the highest-ever coastal shipping traffic of 59.19 million metric tonnes, showcasing a growth of 1.30% over the previous year.
Thermal Coal Handling: Thermal coal shipping reached 43.97 million metric tonnes, marking a growth of 4.02% over the previous year.
Revenue Growth: Operating revenue crossed Rs 2,300 crore in FY24, reflecting a notable increase of 14.30% compared to the previous fiscal.

Driving Factors of this Success

Enhanced Operational Efficiency: Mechanised coal handling plant operations were optimized, resulting in the highest handling of thermal coal at 27.12 million tonnes.
Productivity Improvement: Paradip Port improved berth productivity to 33,014 MT, the highest among all ports, showcasing a growth of 6.33% over the previous financial year.
Rake Handling and Ship Movements: The port handled 21,665 rakes and 2,710 ships during FY24, registering significant year-on-year growth in both metrics.

Future Prospects

Capacity Expansion: With a current capacity of 289 million tonnes, Paradip Port is poised to exceed 300 million tonnes capacity in the next 3 years with the commissioning of the Western Dock project.
Strategic Location: Located near a mineral-rich hinterland, Paradip Port remains a strategic asset for India’s maritime trade and economic growth.

PYQ:

2017:

What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?

(a) India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase.

(b) India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.

(d) Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.

Practice MCQ:

It is situated at the confluence of the Mahanadi River and the Bay of Bengal. It has a natural deep-water harbor, allowing it to accommodate large vessels and handle bulk cargo efficiently.

Which sea port in Odisha is being talked about by the above description?

(a) Haldia

(b) Gopalpur

(d) Paradip

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Capital Markets: Challenges and Developments

SEBI unveils SCORES 2.0 to Strengthen Investor Redressal

Prelims Only | Economics | Mains Paper 3: Effects Of Liberalization On The Economy, Changes In Industrial Policy and their effects on Industrial Growth

Why in the news?

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) unveiled the upgraded version of the SEBI Complaint Redress System (SCORES 2.0) marking a significant advancement in the investor complaint redressal mechanism in the securities market.

About Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

SEBI is the regulatory authority overseeing India’s securities and commodity markets.
Established in 1988 as a non-statutory body, SEBI was granted statutory powers with the enactment of the SEBI Act 1992 by the Indian Parliament.
It operates under the purview of the Ministry of Finance.
SEBI’s structure includes a chairman nominated by the GoI, members from the Union Finance Ministry, the Reserve Bank of India, and others.
Its headquarters is in Mumbai, with regional offices in Ahmedabad, Kolkata, Chennai, and Delhi.

What is SCORES 2.0?

SCORES 2.0 refers to the upgraded version of the SEBI Complaint Redress System (SCORES) launched by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
SCORES is an online platform designed to facilitate the lodging and resolution of complaints by investors in the securities market.
Complaints can be lodged for any issues covered under the:

SEBI Act, 1992
Securities Contract Regulation Act, 1956
Depositories Act, 1966
Companies Act, 2013

Complaints on SCORES 2.0 can be launched against:

Listed companies / registrar & transfer agents
Brokers / stock exchanges
Depository participants / depository
Mutual funds
Portfolio Managers
Other entities (KYC Collective investment scheme, Merchant banker, Credit rating, Foreign institutional investor etc.)

Features of SCORES 2.0:

Reduced Timelines: SCORES 2.0 implements reduced and standardized timelines for addressing investor grievances, ensuring a maximum redressal period of 21 calendar days from the date of complaint receipt.
Auto-Routing and Escalation: The new version incorporates an auto-routing mechanism to swiftly direct complaints to the relevant regulated entity. Additionally, it introduces a two-tier review process, with complaints undergoing review first by the designated body and subsequently by SEBI if investors remain dissatisfied with the resolution provided.
Integration with KYC Database: SCORES 2.0 is seamlessly integrated with the KYC Registration Agency database, streamlining the registration process for investors onto the platform.
Enhanced Efficiency: Through features such as auto-routing, auto-escalation, and stricter monitoring protocols, SCORES 2.0 aims to enhance the efficiency and effectiveness of the investor complaint redressal process.

Significance of SCORES 2.0

Improved Regulatory Oversight: By introducing stricter timelines and oversight mechanisms, SEBI aims to enhance regulatory efficiency and transparency, fostering a more accountable and responsive market ecosystem.
Technological Advancements: The integration of advanced technological features, such as auto-routing and KYC database linkage, reflects SEBI’s proactive approach towards harnessing digital innovations to modernize regulatory processes and services.

PYQ:

2013:

The product diversification of financial institutions and insurance companies, resulting in overlapping of products and services strengthens the case for the merger of the two regulatory agencies, namely SEBI and IRDA. Justify.

Practice MCQ:

Consider the following statements about the SCORES 2.0 Platform recently launched by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):

1. It is an online platform designed to facilitate the lodging and resolution of complaints by investors in the securities market.

2. It addresses complaints pertaining to the SEBI Act, 1992 only.

3. It ensures a maximum redressal period of 21 calendar days.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) One

(b) Two

(d) None

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Disasters and Disaster Management – Sendai Framework, Floods, Cyclones, etc.

Kallakkadal: Coastal Flooding Phenomena in Kerala

Prelims Only | Enviro & Biodiversity | Mains Paper 3: Disaster Management

Why in the news?

Coastal areas of Kerala, including Alappuzha, Kollam, and Thiruvananthapuram districts, are grappling with flooding caused by high sea waves, known as swell waves or Kallakkadal in Malayalam.
The recent swell surge occurred following a low-pressure system originating in the South Atlantic Ocean, leading to the formation of waves reaching heights of up to 11 meters.

What is Kallakkadal?

Origin and Meaning:

Kallakkadal refers to coastal flooding during the (April-May) pre-monsoon season.
It is caused by ocean swell waves on the southwest coast of India.
The term “Kallakkadal” originates from Malayalam, combining “Kallan” (thief) and “Kadal” (sea), denoting the sea’s unexpected intrusion akin to a thief.
In 2012, the term was formally approved by the UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization).

Causes:

These waves stem from distant storms, such as hurricanes, generating significant energy transfer from the atmosphere to the water.
Kallakkadal typically results from strong winds in the southern Indian Ocean, generating ocean swells that travel northward towards the Kerala coast.

Features of Kallakkadal

This phenomenon occurs mostly during pre-monsoon season and sometimes during post monsoon.
It continues for a few days.
It inundates the low lying coasts.
Initially sea recedes before the surge.
During high tide the run-up, water level can reach as much as 3–4 m above Maximum Water Level (MWL).

How is it distinct from Tsunami?

Nature of Phenomenon: Kallakkadal, though often confused with tsunamis, arises from distant storm-generated waves, contrasting with tsunamis triggered by underwater disturbances, typically seismic activities.
Clarification: Understanding this distinction is crucial for implementing effective early warning systems and mitigating the impact of coastal hazards.

PYQ:

2017: At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at-

(a) Bhavnagar

(b) Bheemunipatnam

(d) Nagapattinam

Practice MCQ:

The Coastal areas of Kerala recently witnessed the Oceanic Swell Waves locally known as Kallakkadal. In this regard consider the following statements:

1. Kallakkadal typically occurs during the spring season (March-April).

2. These waves stem from distant storms in the southern Indian Ocean.

Which of the given statements is/are NOT correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Police Reforms – SC directives, NPC, other committees reports

What is Zero FIR?

Prelims Only | Governance | Mains Paper 2: Governance, Transparency & Accountability, Citizens Charters

Why in the news?

The Hyderabad Police have initiated a zero FIR case against former minister for alleged derogatory remarks against Telangana CM.

First Information Report (FIR)

An FIR is a written document prepared by the police upon receiving information about a cognisable offence.
It is when an officer can arrest a suspect without a court’s warrant if/she has “reason to believe” that the person committed the offence and arrest is necessary based on certain factors.
It serves as the first step towards initiating the investigation process and subsequent police actions.
Section 154(1) of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) empowers the police to register an FIR for cognizable offences.
Section 166A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) provides punishment for public servants failing to record information related to a cognizable offence, with imprisonment of up to two years and a fine.

What is Zero FIR?

Provision and Purpose: Zero FIR allows any police station to register an FIR for a cognisable offence without assigning a regular FIR number initially.
No diary: Whereas FIRs have serial numbers assigned to them, zero FIRs are assigned the number ‘0’. Hence the name.

Features of a Zero FIR:

Swift Action: The relevant police station subsequently registers a fresh FIR and commences the investigation.
Focus on Victims: It is designed to expedite complaint lodging, particularly for serious crimes involving women and children, without the need to approach multiple police stations.
Preserving Evidence: Early registration helps prevent the loss or tampering of crucial evidence and witnesses.
Transferred Jurisdiction: The Zero FIR is later transferred to the relevant police station where the offence occurred or where the investigation should be conducted.

How does it work?

After a police station registers a zero FIR, it has to transfer the complaint to a police station that has the jurisdiction to investigate the alleged offence.
Once a zero FIR is transferred, the police station with the appropriate jurisdiction assigns it a serial number, thereby converting it into a regular FIR.

Legal Provisions for Zero FIR

The provision of Zero FIR finds support in various judgments and recommendations:

Satvinder Kaur vs. State (1999): The Delhi High Court held that a woman has the right to lodge her complaint from any place other than where the incident occurred.
Justice Verma Committee (2012): The introduction of Zero FIR was based on the recommendation of the Justice Verma Committee, which was formed in response to the 2012 Nirbhaya gangrape case.
Lalita Kumari vs. Govt. of UP (2014): The Supreme Court ruled that registration of an FIR is mandatory when information discloses the commission of a cognizable offence.

PYQ:

2021: With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked-up in police station, not in jail.

2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Practice MCQ:

Regarding the Zero FIR, consider the following statements:

1. Zero FIR allows any police station to register an FIR for a cognizable offence without assigning a regular FIR number initially.

2. Whereas FIRs have serial numbers assigned to them, zero FIRs are assigned the number ‘0’.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Solar Energy – JNNSM, Solar Cities, Solar Pumps, etc.

Solar surge: Moving away from imported solar panels

Explained | Economics | Mains Paper 3: Infrastructure: Energy, Ports, Roads, Airports, Railways Etc.

Why in the news?

The government is finally bringing into effect the policy of an Approved list of Models and Manufacturers (ALMM) that will discourage solar power project developers from relying on imported panels.

About Approved Models and Manufacturers of Solar Photovoltaic Modules Order, 2019:

Aim: To boost domestic manufacturing of solar panels by registering only those made with domestically manufactured cells, wafers, and polysilicon.
Compulsory Registration: The order mandates compulsory registration for solar PV module and cell manufacturers, ensuring they meet certain quality and production standards.
Lists: LIST-I for solar PV modules and LIST-II for solar PV cells.
- Only listed models and manufacturers in these lists are considered approved for use in various government projects and schemes.
Eligibility Criteria: To be included in the lists, manufacturers must undergo inspections and meet specific criteria set by the National Institute of Solar Energy (NISE) to ensure the products are genuinely manufactured and not imported.
This order ensures the reliability of solar PV products used in installations, promotes domestic manufacturing, and aligns with the government’s initiatives for renewable energy adoption and energy security.

Efforts made by the Government to promote domestic Solar Manufacturing:

Import Restrictions: The creation of the Approved Models and Manufacturers list was aimed at restricting imports from China, which dominates a significant portion of the global solar supply market.
Ambitious Renewable Energy Targets: India aims to source about 500 GW of its electricity from non-fossil fuel sources by 2030, with at least 280 GW coming from solar power. This necessitates adding at least 40 GW of solar capacity annually until 2030. So there is need to focus on indegenous solar project

Challenges ahead:

Unrealistic Targets: Despite ambitious targets, India’s solar capacity additions have been relatively low in recent years, attributed in part to the COVID-19 pandemic. The country aims to ramp up installations to between 25 GW and 40 GW annually.
Reliance on Imports: A significant fraction of India’s solar installations is met by imports, which affects domestic panel manufacturers who must pay for government certification but lose orders to cheaper Chinese panels. For example surge in Solar panel import in FY 24 around $1,136.28 million from FY23 imports $943.53 million

Conclusion: India’s ALMM policy aims to boost domestic solar manufacturing, aligning with ambitious renewable energy targets. Address challenges like meeting targets and reducing reliance on imports through strategic planning and support.

Mains PYQ

Q Describe the benefits of deriving electric energy from sunlight in contrast to conventional energy generation. What are the initiatives offered by our government for this purpose? (UPSC IAS/2020)

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/renewables/how-india-became-a-frontrunner-in-the-global-renewable-energy-market/articleshow/100271905.cms?from=mdr

https://mnre.gov.in/approved-list-of-models-and-manufacturers-almm/

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1944075

https://energy.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/renewable/indias-solar-panel-imports-set-to-remain-higher-in-fy24/106217488#:~:text=During%20the%20initial%20six%20months,million%2C%20according%20to%20Eninrac%20Consulting

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Health Sector – UHC, National Health Policy, Family Planning, Health Insurance, etc.

Two States: a comparison on access to life-saving C-sections

Explained | Indian Society | Mains Paper 2: Health & Education

Why in the News?

The study released by IIT Madras highlights the concerns related to high rates of C-section deliveries among women in Tamil Nadu, particularly in private hospitals.

This indicates the necessity for corrective measures to address the situation.

What is a Caesarean section?

It is also known as C-section or cesarean delivery, which is the surgical procedure by which one or more babies are delivered through an incision in the mother’s abdomen.

It is often performed because vaginal delivery would put the mother or child at risk.

Changes in the share of births delivered by C-sections in public and private sector hospitals in India, Tamil Nadu, and Chhattisgarh between 2015-16 and 2019-21.

High C-section Rate in Public Hospitals: In public sector hospitals in Tamil Nadu, nearly 40% of women underwent C-sections during 2019-21.
High C-section Rate in Private Hospitals: Close to 64% of women underwent C-sections in private sector hospitals in Tamil Nadu during 2019-21, which is significantly higher than both the national average of around 50% and Chhattisgarh’s rate of 59%.
Higher than the National Average: The rate of C-section deliveries in Tamil Nadu’s public sector hospitals is substantially higher than the national average, which is approximately 16%. Additionally, it surpasses the rate in Chhattisgarh, where it stands at 10%.

Reasons behind the increase in C-section rates despite a decrease in pregnancy complications:

Regional Disparities: In Chhattisgarh, the likelihood of a woman undergoing a C-section in a private hospital is ten times higher than in a public hospital. This suggests potential disparities in access to high-quality healthcare services between public and private sectors, with implications for maternal health outcomes.
Socioeconomic Factors: The study assumes that poorer households opt for public hospitals while richer households prefer private ones for deliveries. This socioeconomic divide may contribute to inequitable access to healthcare services at the national level.
Higher Likelihood in Private Health Facilities: Women delivering in private health facilities are more likely to undergo C-sections compared to those in public facilities, with a notable disparity observed in Chhattisgarh.
Maternal Age and Weight Status: Factors such as maternal age (35-49) and overweight status increase the likelihood of C-section delivery.
High gap between Poor and Rich: In India, the gap in C-section prevalence between the poor and non-poor narrowed in private facilities, but Tamil Nadu exhibited a concerning trend where a higher percentage of the poor underwent C-sections compared to the non-poor.

Recommendations by the World Health Organization (WHO): Cesarean delivery rates should ideally not exceed 10-15% to achieve the lowest maternal and neonatal mortality rates. When C-section rates go beyond 10%, there is no significant decrease in maternal mortality. In 2021, global C-section rates surpassed 20%, and they are projected to increase to 30% by 2030.

Conclusion: Access to C-sections in Tamil Nadu shows disparities, with high rates in both public and private hospitals. Addressing regional, and socioeconomic factors and adhering to WHO recommendations are crucial for equitable maternal healthcare.

PYQ Mains

Q Appropriate local community level healthcare intervention is a prerequisite to achieve ‘Health for All’ in India. Explain. (UPSC IAS/2018)

https://www.indiatoday.in/health/story/rise-in-c-section-deliveries-despite-decrease-in-pregnancy-complications-iit-madras-study-2521773-2024-04-01

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Foreign Policy Watch: India-Sri Lanka

Katchatheevu | What is the controversy all about?

Explained | International Relations | Mains Paper 2: India & Its Neighborhood – Relations

Why in the news?

Katchatheevu Island, a disputed stretch in the Palk Strait, was ceded to Sri Lanka during late PM Indira Gandhi, through an agreement.

Fifty years later, PM Modi, has mounted an attack on the Congress and DMK for ‘callously’ giving it away to Sri Lanka.

About the Katchatheevu Island:

Katchatheevu is an uninhabited area in the Palk Strait, between India and Sri Lanka. It was created due to volcanic eruption in the 14th century and is comparatively youthful in the realm of geological chronology.
Historically, it was controlled by the Jaffna kingdom of Sri Lanka in the medieval period.
However, in the 17th century, control passed to the Ramnad zamindari based out of Ramanathapuram, about 55 km northwest of Rameswaram.

The Island became part of the Madras Presidency during the British Raj. But in 1921, both India and Sri Lanka, at the time were British colonies and claimed Katchatheevu to determine fishing boundaries.
A British delegation from India challenged this, citing ownership of the island by the Ramnad kingdom. This dispute was not settled until 1974.

Indo-Sri Lankan Maritime Agreement of 1974:

In 1974, the Indian government, led by Indira Gandhi at the time, endeavored to definitively resolve the maritime border between India and Sri Lanka.
As a component of this arrangement, termed the ‘Indo-Sri Lankan Maritime agreement’, Katchatheevu was relinquished to Sri Lanka.
During this period, it was perceived that the island held minimal strategic significance, and relinquishing India’s claim over it was anticipated to foster stronger relations with its southern neighbor.
Limitations of the Agreement of 1974:
- Issue of fishing rights: The 1974 agreement failed to address the issue of fishing rights. Sri Lanka interpreted the access of Indian fishermen to Katchatheevu as being restricted solely to activities such as resting, drying nets, and visiting the Catholic shrine, without the requirement of a visa.
- The issue concerning EEZ: Further agreement was reached between the two countries, prohibiting fishing within each other’s Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs).
- However, the proximity of Katchatheevu to the edges of both countries’ EEZs left unresolved questions regarding fishing rights, contributing to ongoing uncertainty.

India’s stand on the Kachchatheevu issue:

August 2013: The Union government informed the Supreme Court that the question of reclaiming Kachchatheevu from Sri Lanka did not arise because no Indian territory was ceded to Sri Lanka. Moreover, it was historically disputed territory between British India and Ceylon (now Sri Lanka), and the matter was settled through agreements in 1974 and 1976.

December 2022: The Union government reiterated the stance, emphasizing that Katchatheevu lies on the Sri Lankan side of the India-Sri Lanka International Maritime Boundary Line as per the agreements. Additionally, it mentioned that the matter was under judicial consideration in the Supreme Court.

Conclusion: The recent mention of Katchatheevu by Prime Minister Modi ahead of elections in Tamil Nadu highlights its contentious nature. To address fishermen’s issues, diplomatic dialogue and legal clarity are crucial.

Mains PYQ

Q What are the maritime security challenges in India? Discuss the organizational, technical, and procedural initiatives taken to improve maritime security. (UPSC IAS/2022)

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