From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: World Heritage Young Professionals Forum
Why in the News?
India is hosting the UNESCO’s World Heritage Committee meeting for the first time in New Delhi.
Theme: “World Heritage in the 21st Century: Building Capacities and Exploring Opportunities for Youth.”
About the World Heritage Young Professional Forum
The World Heritage Young Professionals Forum is an initiative by UNESCO to engage young professionals in the field of heritage conservation.
The first World Heritage Young Professionals Forum was organized in 1995.
The primary aim is to engage young professionals in heritage conservation and management through capacity building, networking, and awareness-raising.
Back2Basics: UNESCO World Heritage Sites
Description
UNESCO World Heritage Sites
Landmarks or areas selected by UNESCO for their cultural, historical, scientific, or other significant value, legally protected by international treaties.
Importance
World Heritage Sites represent collective and preservative interests of humanity, signifying remarkable accomplishments and intellectual history.
Selection Criteria
Sites must be already-classified landmarks, unique and significant culturally or physically, such as ancient ruins, historical structures, cities, monuments, etc.
Conservation
World Heritage Sites require practical conservation to protect them from risks like trespassing, uncontrolled access, or administrative negligence.
World Heritage Committee
Selects and monitors World Heritage Sites, manages the World Heritage Fund, and provides financial assistance. Composed of 21 states parties elected for a four-year term.
Membership
India is not a member of the World Heritage Committee.
PYQ:
[2014] Consider the following international agreements:
The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture
The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
The World Heritage Convention
Which of the above has / have a bearing on the biodiversity?
Prelims Only | Polity | Mains Paper 2: Indian Constitution - historical underpinnings, evolution, features, amendments, significant provisions and basic structure
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Quota for Locals; Constitutional provisions invoked.
Why in the News?
The Karnataka Cabinet has approved a bill mandating that industries, factories, and other establishments appoint local candidates in 50% of management positions and 75% in non-management positions.
The bill was cleared in a Cabinet meeting chaired by the Chief Minister.
Key features of the Bill:
Definition of a Local Candidate:
Born in Karnataka
Domiciled in Karnataka for 15 years
Proficient in speaking, reading, and writing Kannada
Passed a required test by the nodal agency
Educational Requirements:
Must have a secondary school certificate with Kannada as a language, or
Pass a Kannada proficiency test specified by the nodal agency
Training and Relaxation Provisions:
Industries and establishments must train local candidates within three years if qualified locals are unavailable
Establishments can apply for relaxation if local candidates are insufficient
The government’s decision on relaxation applications is final
Local candidates must constitute at least 25% in management and 50% in non-management positions
Non-compliance penalties range from ₹10,000 to ₹25,000
Do you know?
The Punjab and Haryana High Court earlier quashed the Haryana State Employment of Local Candidates Act, 2020, which mandated 75% reservation for state domiciles in the private sector jobs.
This decision was made because the State had overstepped its legislative authority and imposed undue restrictions on private employers.
Background and Rationale:
Long-pending Demand:
The bill has been passed in response to longstanding demands for 100% job reservation for Kannadigas.
Earlier in July, Kannada organizations organized rallies in parts of the State, demanding immediate implementation of the Sarojini Mahishi Report.
Sarojini Mahishi Report:
The Sarojini Mahishi report, submitted in 1984 by Mahishi, former Union Minister and the first woman MP from Karnataka, included 58 recommendations.
The report recommended 100% reservation for locals in group C and D jobs in Central government departments and public sector undertakings (PSUs) in Karnataka.
Reservation for Locals in Jobs: Constitutionality Check
Provision
Potential Violation
Article 14
Guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws.
Reservation for locals could create unequal opportunities for non-locals, violating the principle of equality.
Article 15
Prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
Reserving jobs for locals based on place of birth or domicile status may constitute discrimination against non-locals.
Article 16
Ensures equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State.
Though it allows reservation for backward classes, it does not explicitly extend this provision to private employment, making mandatory quotas for locals potentially unconstitutional.
Article 19
Guarantees the freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India.
Imposing local reservations could restrict the free movement of people seeking employment opportunities across states, infringing upon their freedom of movement and residence.
PYQ:
[2017] One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of:
Next Generation Aviation Professionals (NGAP): Addresses anticipated aviation professionals shortage
No Country Left Behind (NCLB): Assists states in implementing ICAO standards and policies
Publications and Resources
Annexes to the Chicago Convention: SARPs across civil aviation domains
ICAO Journal: Quarterly publication
Global Aviation Safety Plan (GASP) and Global Air Navigation Plan (GANP): Strategic documents for aviation safety and navigation improvements.
Regional Offices
Seven offices in Bangkok, Cairo, Dakar, Lima, Mexico City, Nairobi, and Paris
Standards
Annex 1: Personnel Licensing
Annex 6: Operation of Aircraft
Annex 8: Airworthiness of Aircraft
Annex 17: Security
Annex 19: Safety Management
Global Impact
Harmonizes international aviation policies and procedures
Contributes to safe, secure, and sustainable growth of global air transport
About Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Civil Aviation
The conference aims to strengthen regional collaboration and develop a future-focused vision for the region, emphasizing innovation and safety.
The inaugural conference took place in February 2018 in Beijing.
39 member states of the UN aviation safety body, the International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO), from the Asia Pacific region are expected to attend.
The conference focuses on making aviation travel sustainable, resilient, and adaptive to the changing needs of a globally interconnected community.
This region accounts for 33.41% of global flight departures, the highest of any region worldwide.
Passenger numbers are expected to increase from 4.5 billion this year to 11.5 billion by 2050.
PYQ:
[2014] International civil aviation laws provide all countries with complete and exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above their territory. What do you understand by ‘airspace’ What are the implications of these laws on the space above this airspace? Discuss the challenges which this poses and suggest ways to contain the threat.
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: CDSCO; Tirzepatide and its working.
Why in the News?
India’s apex drug regulator Central Drug Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) gave preliminary approval to the drug Tirzepatide.
Tirzepatide is known to have assisted in weight control treatment among diabetic patients.
About Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO):
CDSCO is India’s national regulatory body for cosmetics, pharmaceuticals and medical devices.
It serves a similar function to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) of the US or the European Medicines Agency of the European Union.
The Indian government has announced its plan to bring allmedical devices, including implants and contraceptives under a review of the CDSCO.
Within the CDSCO, the Drug Controller General of India (DCGI) regulates pharmaceutical and medical devices and is positioned within the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
The DCGI is advised by the Drug Technical Advisory Board (DTAB) and the Drug Consultative Committee (DCC).
Mandate and Responsibilities:
Drug Approval: CDSCO is responsible for the approval of new drugs and clinical trials.
Standards Enforcement: Ensures standards of drugs and medical devices through various acts such as the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940.
Import and Export: Regulates the import and export of drugs and medical devices in India.
Licensing Authority: Issues licenses for the manufacture, sale, and distribution of drugs in India.
Surveillance: Conducts drug quality surveillance and monitors adverse drug reactions.
Diabetes Drug for Weight Loss
In 2017, the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved a drug called Ozempic for managing type 2 diabetes.
The active ingredient, semaglutide, was later noted for causing weight loss, which led to its off-label use for treating obesity.
This usage became popular on social media, influencing further developments.
What is Tirzepatide?
Tirzepatide is the main component of Eli Lilly’s drugs, Mounjaro and Zepbound.
It’s important to note here that Mounjaro is the brand name for diabetes, while Zepbound is for weight loss.
How does it work?
There is a dual action involving two hormones:
(1) Regulation of glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1):
GLP-1 is a hormone that regulates appetite and calorie intake through effects on the brain and digestive tract.
Both semaglutide and tirzepatide function as polypeptides that enhance the body’s levels of GLP-1.
The higher levels of GLP-1 trigger satiety, the feeling of fullness, reducing the desire to eat.
Unlike semaglutide, tripeptide also increases levels of GIP, the other hormone involved.
Promising Global Trials
Global clinical trials for tirzepatide(Zepbound) have shown significant results, with the highest dosage leading to an average weight loss of 20.9% over 72 weeks.
The approval in India is due on further post-marketing surveillance (Phase IV trials) to monitor the drug’s side effects and its effectiveness across India’s diverse population.
Long-term side effects:
Cardiovascular risks like increased heart rate and potential blood pressure elevation.
Gastrointestinal effects include nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, and constipation. Endocrine concerns involve thyroid C-cell tumours in MEN syndrome patients.
Other issues include kidney problems, eye complications, mental health impacts, and long-term risks like pancreatic enzyme elevation and gallbladder problems.
Why under-consideration in India?
India has the world’s second-highest number of people with type 2 diabetesand high obesity rates.
A study in Lancet in 2023 estimated that 101 million people in India — 11.4 per cent of the country’s population — are living with diabetes.
As per the World Obesity Federation Atlas, around 11 per cent of Indian adults will be obese by 2034.
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: IGST; MRO industry of India.
Why in the News?
The government has implemented a uniform Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) rate of 5% on all aircraft and aircraft engine parts.
Background:
Prior to the implementation of GST in 2017, the taxation of aircraft and aircraft parts was complex, with different central and state taxes being levied.
Under the pre-GST regime, aircraft parts attracted a range of taxes, including excise duty, VAT, and additional customs duties, leading to a cascading effect and higher costs for the aviation industry.
IGST Harmonization for MRO Boost:
This move is aimed at boosting Maintenance, Repair, and Overhaul (MRO) activities in India.
Previously, GST rates on aircraft components varied between 5%, 12%, 18%, and 28%, causing several issues.
MRO Industry in India
The Indian MRO industry is projected to become a $4 billion industry by 2030.
Currently, India represents only 1% of the global MRO market, which is worth US$45 billion.
The industry is divided into airframe maintenance, engine maintenance (50-55% of work value), components maintenance, and line maintenance (weekly checks).
Commercial airlines spend 13-15% of their revenues on maintenance, primarily outsourcing heavy maintenance.
What is Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST)?
The IGST is a component of the GST system in India.
It is levied by the central government on:
Inter-state /UT supply of goods and services;
Imports of goods and services;
Supply of goods and services to/by SEZ units;
Deemed exports (certain transactions where goods supplied do not leave the country but are treated as exports under GST law).
IGST is calculated by adding the applicable Central GST (CGST) and State GST (SGST) rates.
One thing to remember in IGST is that the importing state gets the accrued benefit of taxes.
Rationale for the Uniform 5% IGST Rate
Simplification of Tax Structure: A uniform 5% IGST rate on aircraft and engine parts simplifies tax compliance and eliminates classification complexities.
Cost Efficiency: A lower IGST rate reduces overall tax burden on aviation industry, enhancing affordability of aircraft acquisition and maintenance.
Global Alignment: Aligns India’s tax policy with global standards, fostering competitiveness and attractiveness for international aviation investments.
Promotion of Aviation Services: Encourages aircraft leasing and MRO activities, supporting India’s aspiration to become a hub for these services.
PYQ:
[2017] What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’?
It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India.
It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves.
It will enormously increase the growth and size of economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: ICAR; One scientist, One product’ Scheme.
Why in the News?
The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is set to launch its ‘One Scientist-One Product’ program. This initiative aims to enhance research in agriculture and animal husbandry.
About the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)
ICAR is an autonomous organisation under the Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE), Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
It is headquartered in New Delhi.
ICAR was formerly known as the Imperial Council of Agricultural Research.
It was established in 1929 as a registered society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 on the basis of the report of the Royal Commission on Agriculture.
Functions of ICAR:
Its primary mandate is to coordinate agricultural education and research in India and provide leadership in agriculture and allied sectors.
It is the apex body for coordinating, guiding and managing research and education in agriculture including horticulture, fisheries and animal sciences in the entire country.
Structure and Organization:
ICAR operates under the Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE), Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Government of India.
It consists of a network of research institutes, national bureaus, project directorates, and agricultural universities across the country.
The council is governed by a Governing Body and an Executive Committee, which oversee its functioning and activities.
ICAR confers prestigious awards, such as: the Rafi Ahmed Kidwai Award, the Borlaug Award, and the Hari Om Ashram Trust Award, to recognize excellence in agricultural research and education.
Significant feats achieved by ICAR:
Bio-fortified Coverage: In 2023-24, approximately 16 million hectares are cultivated with bio-fortified crop varieties.
Crops Mentioned: This includes wheat, rice, pearl millet, lentil, and mustard.
Climate Resilience: The deployment of climate-resilient technologies has boosted production, even in abnormal years.
Variety Release: From 2014-15 to 2023-24, ICAR has released 2,593 high-yielding varieties, including 2,177 climate-resilient and 150 bio-fortified varieties.
What is the “One Scientist One Product” Scheme?
The “One Scientist One Product” initiative is a strategic research plan launched by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).
It aims to enhance agricultural productivity by assigning specific research targets to individual scientists within the organization in the next 5 years.
Key Objectives of the Scheme:
Target-Oriented Research: Each scientist is given a specific target to develop a product. For example- seed variety, technology, research paper, or a conceptual model.
Avoiding Duplication: The initiative ensures that efforts are not duplicated by carefully mapping and assigning unique research targets to each scientist.
Regular Monitoring: Progress will be monitored every three months at the official level and twice a year by the researchers themselves.
Implementation Details:
All 5,521 scientists of ICAR have been registered under this scheme.
At the beginning of each year, scientists must identify and inform about the product they aim to develop.
While the focus is on individual contributions, there will be instances where a product will be developed by a group of scientists.
Long-Term Goals:
Product Development: The initiative is part of a broader plan to release 100 new seed varieties across various crops within the government’s 100-day plan.
Climate-Resilient Crops: A significant target is to increase the area under climate-resilient paddy seeds to 25% of the total kharif acreage, up from the current 15%.
Announcement of New Crop Varieties
Event Details: ICAR will announce the release of 323 new crop varieties during a function in Delhi. The new releases include cereals, oilseeds, forage crops, and sugarcane.
Variety Breakdown: Among these, there are 289 climate-resilient varieties and 27 bio-fortified varieties.
Upcoming Initiatives: ICAR aims to develop 100 new seed varieties and 100 farm technologies within 100 days as part of a national 100-day action plan.
Progress in Bio-fortification and Climate Resilience
ICAR reports significant progress in the adoption of bio-fortified crop varieties, with a total area of 16 million hectares under these varieties.
The organization emphasizes the success of its climate-resilient technologies, noting enhanced production even during years with abnormal weather conditions.
PYQ:
[2018] With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements:
GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests.
GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization.
GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Additional National Security Advisor (ANSA)
Why in the News?
A new Additional National Security Advisor (ANSA) was appointed on July 1, 2024, marking the first time this position has been filled. The ANSA will assist the National Security Advisor (NSA) in managing the country’s national security affairs.
Recent Controversies about the NSA’s Role
Recent controversies involving R&AW and the Agniveer initiative have brought the NSA’s role back into focus.
Questions remain about the ideal background for the NSA and the prioritization of experience in internal versus external security.
National Security Advisor (NSA):
The NSA is the senior official on the National Security Council of India.
The post was created on 19 November 1998 by the Government of Atal BihariVajpayee.
He/ She is also the chief adviser to the Prime Minister of India on national security policy and international affairs.
Ajit Doval is the current NSA, and has the same rank as a Union Cabinet Minister.
The NSA receives all intelligence (RAW, IB, NTRO, MI, DIA, NIA) reports and co-ordinates them to present before the Prime Minister.
The NSA serves at the discretion of the Prime Minister of India.
About the National Security Council of India:
NSC is an executive government agency tasked with advising the Prime Minister’s Office on matters of national security and strategic interest.
The 3 tier structure of the NSC comprises:
Strategic Policy Group (SPG),
National Security Advisory Board (NSAB) and
National Security Council Secretariat.
All aspects of national security are deliberated upon by the National Security Council (NSC), the apex body.
Members: Ministers of Home Affairs, Defence, External Affairs, Finance and Deputy Chairman of the NITI Aayog.
The NSA is its Secretary.
Changes in the National Security Architecture
Previous Structure
New Structure
Additional National Security Advisor (ANSA)
The position was consistently vacant
New ANSA appointed for the first time
NSA’s Role
NSA had a more operational role
NSA’s role is now more advisory, focusing on strategic policy and advisory outfits
Reporting Structure
CDS, service chiefs, and Union secretaries reported to NSA and their respective ministers
CDS, service chiefs, and Union secretaries continue to report to NSA and their ministers; however, ANSA now acts as a gatekeeper
Size of NSA’s Organization
Smaller organization with no ANSA
Larger organization with an ANSA and three deputy NSAs
Daily Security Briefings
Directly by NSA
Unclear if briefings will be by NSA, ANSA, or both
Communication Chain
Direct communication between mid-level unit heads and NSA
ANSA acts as an intermediary between mid-level unit heads and NSA, adding a bureaucratic layer
Ministerial Reporting
NSA interacted with Union ministers and Prime Minister
Ministerial bosses also interact directly with respective secretaries, causing potential turf issues
Speculations and Future Roles
Speculations about the continuity and succession of the current NSA
Ongoing speculations about the future role and potential succession by the newly appointed ANSA
Internal Security Management
NSA handled internal security along with other duties
ANSA now specifically responsible for internal security management and threat analysis
Overall Security Strategy
NSA managed both strategic advisory and operational aspects
Separation of strategic advisory role (NSA) and operational internal security role (ANSA)
Issues with the re-structuring:
Bureaucratic Layering: The introduction of the ANSA adds an additional bureaucratic layer, potentially slowing down decision-making.
Turf Issues: Potential conflicts between the NSA and the Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister, especially regarding convening meetings.
Lack of clarity in Roles: Uncertainty about whether the NSA or ANSA will conduct daily security briefings, leading to possible communication confusion.
Ministerial Reporting Dynamics: Challenges for ministers in managing secretaries’ dual reporting lines to both the NSA and their respective ministers.
Operational Efficiency: The NSA’s shift to a more advisory role might affect the operational efficiency in handling immediate security threats.
Future of the NSA
There is speculation about the future of the incumbent NSA, Ajit Doval, and whether his elevation is a precursor to retirement.
Questions arise about whether ANSA Rajinder Khanna will succeed Doval or if an outsider will be appointed.
PYQ:
[2021] Analyse the multidimensional challenges posed by external state and non-state actors, to the internal security of India. Also discuss measures required to be taken to combat these threats.
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: EEG and its working
Why in the News?
This year marks the 100th anniversary of the first human electroencephalography (EEG) by German physiologist Hans Berger.
Historical Development of EEG
The development of EEG started with Richard Caton in 1875, who first noticed electrical signals in the brains of animals.
His work was expanded by Adolf Beck and later by Vladimir Pravdich-Neminsky, who recorded the first EEG of a dog.
Hans Berger was the first to record these signals from a human brain in 1924.
What is EEG?
EEG stands for electroencephalography. “Electro” means electricity, “encephalo” refers to the brain, and “graphy” means recording.
It tracks the electrical activity in the brain that happens when neurons, the brain’s cells, move tiny charged particles.
This helps doctors tell if the brain is working normally or not.
Doctors use EEG to diagnoseepilepsy, check how deep a person is under anesthesia, study sleep patterns, and even confirm if a person has passed away.
Understanding Volume Conduction
Volume conduction explains how the brain’s electrical signals move through different layers like skin and bone to reach the electrodes on the scalp.
The signals that electrodes pick up need to be cleaned up from any distortions caused by these layers or other noises before doctors can read them accurately.
How does an EEG Test Works?
Neurons interact with their surroundings and sometimes push ions around.
This movement creates waves of electrical activity.
Electrodes on the head detect these waves and measure how strong they are, which is then recorded as an EEG.
Setting up an EEG involves putting gel on the head and placing electrodes accurately, which can be affected by things like having thick hair.
What EEG Can and Can’t Show?
Strengths: EEG is very good at catching fast changes in the brain’s electrical activity, which is helpful for immediate observations.
Limitations: It mainly detects signals from the surface of the brain and is better at picking up signals from certain types of cell parts than others.
Pinpointing exactly where the brain an activity started can be difficult.
Cost and Accessibility
EEG is simple and affordable compared to other methods like MRI.
It’s portable, doesn’t use large equipment, and is safe.
PYQ:
[2015] With reference to ‘Near Field Communication (NFC) Technology’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a contactless communication technology that uses electromagnetic radio fields.
2. NFC is designed for use by devices which can be at a distance of even a metre from each other.
3. NFC can use encryption when sending sensitive information.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Ratna Bhandar of Puri Jagannath Temple; Architectural features.
Why in the News?
After 46 years, the sacred treasury of Shree Jagannath Temple, Puri, known as Ratna Bhandar, was reopened amid years of legal battles, controversies, and debates.
About the Ratna Bhandar
The Ratna Bhandar stores the gold and jewels offered by devotees to the deities Lord Jagannath, Lord Balabhadra, and Goddess Subhadra.
It is located adjacent to the prayer hall on the north side of the temple.
It consists of two sections: the ‘Bhitar Bhandar’ (Inner Treasury) and the ‘Bahar Bhandar’ (Outer Treasury), with the last inventory in 1978 noting significant amounts of gold and silver items in both chambers.
Legend says, Odisha’s King Anangabhima Dev (1211 to 1238) donated 2.5 lakh madhas of gold to prepare jewellery for the almighty.
The Odisha government passed the Jagannath Temple Act, 1952 to have a greater role in the temple’s management, which included maintaining an inventory of the offerings in the Puri collectorate’s Record Room.
Recent Developments:
The safety of the Ratna Bhandar is managed by the Temple’s Committee, chaired by the titular ‘King of Puri’ and includes IAS officers and other state-appointed members.
Originally, keys to the Ratna Bhandar were held by the Puri royal family, temple committee, and collectorate, with significant changes in ownership and access protocols over the years due to legal rulings.
The recent reopening involved breaking the locksof the inner chamber as they could not be opened traditionally, following strict procedures.
About Jagannath Puri Temple
The Jagannath Temple is an important Vaishnavite temple dedicated to Jagannath, a form of Sri Krishna in Puri in Odisha.
The present temple was rebuilt from the 10th century onwards, on the site of an earlier temple, and begun by Anantavarman Chodaganga Deva, the first king of the Eastern Ganga dynasty.
The Puri temple is famous for its annual Ratha Yatra, or chariot festival, in which the three principal deities are pulled on huge and elaborately decorated temple cars.
Its Architecture:
With its sculptural richness and fluidity of the Oriya style of temple architecture, it is one of the most magnificent monuments of India.
The huge temple complex covers an area of over 400,000 square feet and is surrounded by a high fortified wall.
This 20 feet high wall is known as Meghanada Pacheri.
Another wall known as kurma bedha surrounds the main temple.
The temple has four distinct sectional structures, namely:
Deula, Vimana or Garba griha (Sanctum sanctorum) where the triad deities are lodged on the ratnavedi (Throne of Pearls). In Rekha Deula style;
Mukhashala (Frontal porch);
Nata mandir/Natamandapa, which is also known as the Jagamohan (Audience Hall/Dancing Hall), and
Bhoga Mandapa (Offerings Hall)
PYQ:
[2012] The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are the:
(a) Three main racial groups of the Indian subcontinent
(b) Three main linguistic divisions into which the languages of India can be classified
(c) Three main styles of Indian temple architecture
(d) Three main musical Gharanas prevalent in India
Significance: Marks the location where Buddha attained enlightenment.
UNESCO Status: World Heritage Site since 2002.
Historical Importance: One of the four holy sites related to Buddha’s life (Enlightenment).
Original Construction: Built by Mauryan Emperor Ashoka around 260 BCE.
Reconstruction: Reconstructed in brick during the late Gupta period (5th or 6th centuries).
Archaeological Finds: Indicates a site of veneration since the Mauryan period; Vajrasana (Diamond Throne) dated to the third century BCE.
Main Temple Structure: Dates from the 6th century CE, incorporates parts from 2nd or 3rd century CE.
Architectural Features: Two large shikhara towers, the largest over 55 meters high; influenced Jain, Hindu, and Buddhist architecture globally.
Materials: Made mostly of brick covered with stucco.
Bodhi Tree: A direct descendant of the original tree under which Buddha attained enlightenment.
Traditional Accounts: Describes 7 weeks Buddha spent meditating after enlightenment at various spots within the complex.
Decline and Revival: Declined after the Huna and early Islamic invasions; revived under the Pala Empire (8th-12th century); declined again after 12th century CE invasions by Turk armies.
Ratna Bhandar of Jagannath Puri Temple
Location: Puri, Odisha
Significance: Important Vaishnavite temple dedicated to Jagannath, a form of Sri Krishna
History: Rebuilt from the 10th century onwards, begun by Anantavarman Chodaganga Deva, first king of the Eastern Ganga dynasty
Annual Event: Famous for its annual Ratha Yatra (chariot festival) where three principal deities are pulled on huge, elaborately decorated temple cars
Architecture: Oriya style of temple architecture; complex covers over 400,000 square feet, surrounded by a high fortified wall (Meghanada Pacheri); main structures include Deula (Sanctum sanctorum), Mukhashala (Frontal porch), Nata mandir/Natamandapa (Audience Hall/Dancing Hall), Bhoga Mandapa (Offerings Hall)
Ratna Bhandar:
Context: The sacred treasury of Shree Jagannath Temple, Puri, known as Ratna Bhandar, was reopened after 46 years amid legal battles and controversies
Contents: Stores gold and jewels offered by devotees to the deities Lord Jagannath, Lord Balabhadra, and Goddess Subhadra
Location: Adjacent to the prayer hall on the north side of the temple.
Sections: Consists of two sections: the ‘Bhitar Bhandar’ (Inner Treasury) and the ‘Bahar Bhandar’ (Outer Treasury)
Historical Significance: Legend says Odisha’s King Anangabhima Dev (1211 to 1238) donated 2.5 lakh madhas of gold to prepare jewelry for the deities
Management: Safety managed by the Temple’s Committee chaired by the titular ‘King of Puri’; keys held by the Puri royal family, temple committee, and collectorate with changes over the years
Recent Developments: Reopened by breaking the locks of the inner chamber due to inability to open traditionally, following strict procedures
Also in news:World Heritage Young Professional Forum
India is hosting the UNESCO’s World Heritage Committee meeting for the first time in New Delhi.
Theme: “World Heritage in the 21st Century: Building Capacities and Exploring Opportunities for Youth.”
The World Heritage Young Professionals Forum is an initiative by UNESCO to engage young professionals in the field of heritage conservation.
The first World Heritage Young Professionals Forum was organized in 1995.
The primary aim is to engage young professionals in heritage conservation and management through capacity building, networking, and awareness-raising.
PYQ:
[2012] The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are the:
(a) Three main racial groups of the Indian subcontinent
(b) Three main linguistic divisions into which the languages of India can be classified
(c) Three main styles of Indian temple architecture
(d) Three main musical Gharanas prevalent in India
Takaaki Kajita, a Nobel laureate has supported India’s pursuit of a neutrino lab.
Despite numerous obstacles, Kajita believes that the India-based Neutrino Observatory (INO) project, which would rank as one of the largest basic science projects in the country, is still worth pursuing.
Who is Takaaki Kajita?
Takaaki Kajita is a Japanese physicist who was awarded the 2015 Nobel Prize in Physics for discovering the oscillations of neutrinos from one flavour to another, which proved that those subatomic particles have mass.
He shared the prize with Canadian physicist Arthur B. McDonald.16 May 2024
About India-based Neutrino Observatory (INO):
Details
Location
INO Peak near Theni, Tamil Nadu, India
Objective
Study atmospheric neutrinos and provide precise measurements of neutrino mixing parameters
Project Scope
One of the largest experimental particle physics projects in India
Initial Completion Date
Originally planned for 2015
Key Equipment
Iron Calorimeter (ICAL) Detector, designed to probe Earth matter effects on neutrino propagation and determine neutrino oscillation parameters.
50,000 tonnes, the world’s largest magnet, four times larger than CERN’s CMS detector magnet
Research Goals
Neutrino Oscillation Parameters: Unambiguous and precise determination using atmospheric neutrinos.
Matter Effects: Study through electric charge identification to determine the sign of mass differences.
CP Violation: Investigate charge-conjugation and parity violations in the leptonic sector.
CPT Violation: Possible studies of charge-conjugation, parity, and time-reversal violations.
Kolar Events: Study possible identification of very-high-energy neutrinos and multi-muon events in Kolar Gold Fields.
Historical Discussions
Initial discussions in 1989, formal collaboration in 2001, and MoU signed in 2002
Current Status
Construction stalled as of July 2021 due to local opposition and environmental concerns; ongoing legal and governmental deliberations
What is Neutrinos?
Neutrinos,often referred to as “ghost particles,” are subatomic particles with nearly zero mass and no electric charge.
Other issues in space:
Last week, ISRO Chairman S Somanath expressed the possibility of engaging with the asteroid Apophis during its close approach to Earth at a distance of 32,000 km in 2029.
What is Apophis?
Apophis is classified as a near-Earth asteroid (NEA), specifically a Potentially Hazardous Asteroid (PHA) due to its size and proximity to Earth’s orbit.
Apophis is approximately 335 meters (1,100 feet) in diameter, making it one of the larger near-Earth asteroids.
Discovered in 2004, Apophis initially posed a 2.7% chance of colliding with Earth, raising alarms due to its size (about 450 m wide).
Subsequent observations ruled out immediate collision risks in 2029, 2036, and 2068, but it will pass close to Earth in 2029 at 32,000 km.
PYQ:
[2010] India-based Neutrino Observatory is included by the planning commission as a mega-science project under the 11th Five-year plan. In this context, consider the following statements:
Neutrinos are chargeless elementary particles that travel close to the speed of light.
Neutrinos are created in nuclear reactions of beta decay.
Neutrinos have a negligible, but non-zero mass.
Trillions of Neutrinos pass through the human body every second.
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Asur Tribes
Why in the News?
The Gumla district administration in Jharkhand has announced that the Asur community, a particularly vulnerable tribal group (PVTG) residing in the Netarhat plateau region of Gumla, will soon benefit from the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006.
About Asur Community
The Asur tribe primarily resides in the districts of Gumla, Lohardaga, Palamu, and Latehar in Jharkhand, India.
They speak Asuri, a Munda language belonging to the Austroasiatic language family.
Traditionally, the Asur were skilled iron-smelters, practicing metallurgy using indigenous techniques.
Over time, many have shifted to agriculture, although some are still involved in mining work.
The Asur community has a traditional council (jati panch) to settle disputes.
They maintain kinship ties with neighboring tribes like Kharwar and Munda.
Social Structure of Asur Community:
They live in forest-surrounded clearings called pats, with houses made of mud walls, wooden poles, and roofs covered with paddy straw.
Asurs follow a religion that combines animism, animatism, naturalism, and ancestral worship.
Their chief deity is Singbonga, and they celebrate festivals like Sarhul and Karma.
Marriage is significant, following rules of monogamy with exceptions for barrenness or widowhood.
Widow remarriage is allowed, and marriages occur within the tribe (endogamy).
Back2Basics: Forest Rights Act, 2006
Details
Purpose
Recognizes and vests forest rights in Forest Dwelling Scheduled Tribes (FDST) and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (OTFD).
Eligibility
Individuals or communities residing in forest land for at least 3 generations (75 years)prior to December 13, 2005.
Rights Recognized
Title Rights: Ownership up to 4 hectares for cultivation.
Use Rights: Includes Minor Forest Produce and grazing areas.
Relief and Development Rights: Rehabilitation and basic amenities in case of eviction.
Forest Management Rights: Conservation and sustainable use of community forest resources.
Authority
Gram Sabha initiates the process of determining Individual Forest Rights (IFR) or Community Forest Rights (CFR).
Conservation
Balances forest conservation with livelihood and food security of FDST and OTFD.
PYQ:
[2021] At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Prelims Only | Polity | Mains Paper 2: Indian Constitution - historical underpinnings, evolution, features, amendments, significant provisions and basic structure
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: National Emergency under Art. 352
Why in the News?
The Government of India has decided to observe 25th June every year as ‘Samvidhaan Hatya Diwas.’
National Emergency imposition in India
June 25, 2025, will mark fifty years since the imposition of the Emergency.
The Emergency lasted from June 25, 1975, to March 21, 1977.
It was characterized by the suspension of civil liberties, press freedom, mass arrests, the cancellation of elections, and rule by decree.
What was the Emergency?
PM Indira Gandhi’s government used constitutional provisions to impose sweeping executive and legislative control.
Opposition leaders were jailed, and fundamental rights, including freedom of speech and expression, were curtailed, leading to press censorship.
The federal structure was effectively converted into a unitary one, with the Union controlling state governments.
Parliament extended its term, made laws on state subjects, and extended the Union’s executive powers to the states.
Legal and Constitutional Sanction
Article 352 allowed the President to proclaim an emergency if India’s security was threatened by war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
In 1975, “internal disturbance” was used as grounds for the Emergency, citing incitements against the police and armed forces.
This was the only instance of emergency due to “internal disturbance,” later removed by the 44th Amendment in 1978.
Article 358suspended limitations on Article 19 (“Right to freedom”).
Article 359 allowed the President to suspend the right to court enforcement of rights during an emergency.
Political and Social Circumstances: A Timeline
In 1974, the Navnirman movement against corruption in Gujarat led to President’s Rule.
Inspired by Navnirman, a student movement in Bihar, led by Jayaprakash Narayan (JP), aimed to cleanse the country of corruption and misgovernance.
In May 1974, George Fernandes led a massive railway workers’ strike.
On June 5, 1974, JP called for “Sampoorna Kranti” (total revolution).
On June 12, 1975, Justice Jagmohanlal Sinha of the Allahabad High Court convicted Indira Gandhi of electoral malpractice.
On June 25, 1975, President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed signed the Proclamation of Emergency, cutting power to major newspapers and informing the Cabinet the next morning.
Impact on Opposition Leaders, Media, and Political Dissenters
Almost all opposition leaders, including JP, were detained under the Maintenance of Internal Security Act (MISA).
Newspapers faced pre-censorship, with UNI and PTI merged into a state-controlled agency, Samachar.
More than 250 journalists were jailed, and The Indian Express resisted by printing blank spaces when stories were censored.
Sanjay Gandhi’s “five-point programme” included forced family planning and slum clearance, leading to forced sterilizations and violent clashes.
Sanjay Gandhi’s “Five-Point Programme”
Sanjay Gandhi, the younger son of then PM, Mrs. Indira Gandhi had come forward with a programme to ‘improve’ the condition of the poor people.
His programme can be divided under five Headings, i.e.
Adult Education.
To abolish Dowry.
To Grow more trees.
Family planning – only two children.
Eradication of caste system.
Legal Changes during the Emergency
With opposition leaders in jail, Parliament passed amendments barring judicial review of the Emergency and securing the Prime Minister’s election.
The 42nd Amendment expanded Union authority over states and gave Parliament unbridled power to amend the Constitution.
In ADM Jabalpur vs. Shivkant Shukla (1976), the Supreme Court ruled that detention without trial was legal during an emergency, with Justice H.R. Khanna dissenting.
Lifting the Emergency and Aftermath
Indira Gandhi lifted the Emergency in early 1977, leading to her defeat in the elections.
The Janata Party emerged victorious, with Morarji Desai becoming India’s first non-Congress Prime Minister.
The Janata government reversed many constitutional changesfrom the 42nd Amendment, made judicial review of emergency proclamations possible, and removed “internal disturbance” as grounds for emergency imposition.
PYQ:
[2022] Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?
To ratify the declaration of Emergency
To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
To impeach the President of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Context: Used to eradicate the invasive weed Salvinia molesta from the Sarani reservoir in Betul district, Madhya Pradesh.
Biological Details: Exotic beetle from Brazil, targets and eradicates Salvinia molesta, dies naturally post-eradication.
Bioremediation: Implemented by ICAR-DWR (Indian Council of Agricultural Research-Directorate of Weed Research), started in April 2022, completed within 15 to 18 months.
Economic and Social Impact: Restored livelihoods for fishermen by reviving fish populations; initial challenges included high cost and impracticality of manual removal.
Conservation Status: No risk, as the beetle dies naturally after eradicating the weed.
Squalus hima
Context: Newly discovered species of deep-water dogfish shark found in the Arabian Sea off the coast of Kerala.
Biological Details: Genus Squalus, family Squalidae, commonly known as spurdogs; differs in vertebrae count, teeth, and fin structure from other species.
Discovery: Discovered by Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) at Sakthikulangara fishing harbour, Kerala; significant for new species identification and conservation.
Economic and Social Impact: Important for commercial products like liver oil used in cosmetics and anti-cancer products; challenges include high exploitation for liver oil, fins, and meat.
Conservation Status: Critical due to high commercial exploitation for liver oil, fins, and meat; important for conservation efforts.
PYQ:
[2018] Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in the news?
(a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.
(b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.
(c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: ZSI, Key highlights of the report.
Why in the News?
A report titled “Animal Discoveries 2023” by the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) highlights significant new species findings in Maharashtra and across India.
New Species in Maharashtra:
Maharashtra recorded 14 new animal species in 2023, with two species reported for the first time in India.
Notably, among the 25 Arachnid species reported for the first time in India, two belong to Maharashtra—Steatoda Erigoniformis and Myrmarachne Spissa.
Steatoda Erigoniformis: It is a species of spider known for its resemblance to the more dangerous black widow spiders. They are commonly referred to as “false widow spiders.”
Myrmarachne Spissa: It is part of a group of spiders that mimic ants in appearance and behaviour, a trait known as myrmecomorphy. Previously reported in Sri Lanka, Myrmarachne Spissa’sdiscovery in Pune marks its first report from India, highlighting the region’s biodiversity significance.
Key Findings from the ZSI Report:
National Discoveries:
In 2023, Indian scientists reported a total of 641 new discoveries, including 442 new species and 199 new records for India.
This includes the discovery of 19 new genera. As of January 1, 2024, India’s faunal diversity stands at 104,561 species, with the additions in 2023 constituting 6.65% of the global faunal diversity.
Categories of Discoveries:
Invertebrates accounted for the majority of new discoveries with 564 species, while vertebrates contributed 77 species.
Among invertebrates, insects led with 369 new species, while vertebrates were dominated by fish with 47 species, followed by reptiles, amphibians, and mammals.
Regional Distribution:
Kerala reported the highest number of new discoveries (101), followed by West Bengal (72), Tamil Nadu (64), Arunachal Pradesh (45), Karnataka (45), and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands (36).
Southern India consistently reports the highest number of species.
Back2Basics: Zoological Survey of India
The ZSI was set up by British zoologist Thomas Nelson Annandale, in 1916.
It is the premier taxonomic research organisation in India based in Kolkata.
It was established to promote surveys, exploration and research leading to the advancement of our knowledge of various aspects of the exceptionally rich animal life of India.
The ZSI had its genesis as the Zoological Section of the Indian Museum at Calcutta in 1875.
Since its inception, the ZSI has been documenting the diversity and distribution of the fauna of India towards carrying out its mandate of conducting exploration-cum-taxonomic-research programmes.
The ZSI has published an extremely large amount of information on all animal taxa, from Protozoa to Mammalia.
PYQ:
[2020] With reference to India’s Biodiversity, Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-chinned minivet and White-throated redstart are:
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Upper Siang; Brahmaputra River.
Why in the News?
Activists are protesting against the Upper Siang Hydropower Project in Arunachal.
About Upper Siang Multipurpose Storage Project
The Upper Siang project is a proposed 11,000 MW hydropower project on the Siang River in Arunachal Pradesh.
The Siang, originating near Mount Kailash in Tibet (Tsangpo), flows over 1,000 km eastward, enters Arunachal Pradesh as the Siang, and laterbecomes the Brahmaputra in Assam.
Initially proposed as two separate projects, it was consolidated into one larger project in 2017, to be built by the National Hydroelectric Power Corporation (NHPC), featuring a 300-metre high dam.
Strategic Importance:
The Upper Siang project is seen as a strategic move to counter China’s hydel projects on the Tsangpo, particularly a 60,000 MW ‘super dam’ in Tibet’sMedog county.
This super dam’s capacity is nearly 3x that of the Three Gorges Dam in China and is intended to divert water to northern China.
Environmental and Social Concerns
Anti-dam organizations express concerns about the project’s environmental and social impact in their memorandum.
The memorandum highlights the threat to delicate ecosystems, wildlife habitats, and biodiversity in Arunachal Pradesh, which already hosts numerous dams.
The activists are particularly worried about the displacement of communities, as the project could submerge over 300 villages of the Adi tribe, including the district headquarters of Yingkiong.
Activists are also wary of the project’s portrayal as a national interest endeavor and are troubled by a provision in the Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act, which exempts strategic projects within 100 km from India’s borders from clearance requirements.
Land declared as forest under the Indian Forest Act or any other law, or notified as a forest after 25th October 1980.
Land converted from forest to non-forest use before 12th December 1996.
Exemptions from the Act
Allows exemptions for:
Up to 0.10 hectares of forest land for connectivity purposes along roads and railways.
Up to 10 hectares for security-related infrastructure.
Up to 5 hectares in Left Wing Extremism Affected Districts for public utility projects.
Additionally, strategic projects within 100 km of international borders, LAC, and LoC are also exempted.
Permitted Activities in Forest Land
Includes conservation, management, and development efforts.
Activities like zoos, ecotourism facilities, silvi-cultural operations, and specified surveys are exempted from non-forest purposes.
Assignment/Leasing of Forest Land
Extends the prerequisite for obtaining prior approval from the central government for the assignment of forest land to any entity, broadening the scope beyond private entities.
It also grants the central government the authority to stipulate the terms and conditions governing such assignments.
PYQ:
[2011] The Brahmaputra, Irrawady and Mekong rivers originate in Tibet and flow it through narrow and parallel mountain ranges in their upper reaches. Of these rivers, Brahmaputra makes a “U” turn in its course to flow into India. This “U” turn is due to:
(a) Uplift of folded Himalayan series
(b) Syntaxial bending of geologically young Himalayas
(c) Geo-tectonic disturbance in the tertiary folded mountain chains
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: National Gopal Ratna Award
Why in the News?
The National Gopal Ratna Award (NGRA) 2024 has been awarded by the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying.
The awards are conferred annually on National Milk Day, which is celebrated on 26th November.
What is the National Gopal Ratna Award (NGRA)?
NGRA is an initiative under the Rashtriya Gokul Mission, launched by the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying.
Objective: The award aims to promote the conservation and development of indigenous bovine breeds, which are crucial for the sustainability of the dairy sector in India.
Categories: NGRA is awarded in several categories:
Best Dairy farmer rearing indigenous cattle/buffalo breeds.
Best Dairy Cooperative Society (DCS)/ Milk Producer Company (MPC)/ Dairy Farmer Producer Organization (FPO).
Best Artificial Insemination Technician (AIT).
Other aspects of the Award
Special Recognition: In recent years, a special award category has been included for the North Eastern Region (NER) states to encourage dairy development activities in these regions.
Nomination and Recognition: Nominations for the NGRA are submitted online through the National Award portal.
Award Details:
NGRA 2024 will confer awards in 1st, 2nd, and 3rd ranks, and one Special Award for the NER States in each category.
Cash prizes for Best Dairy Farmer and Best DCS/FPO/MPC categories:
Rs. 5,00,000/- (1st rank)
Rs. 3,00,000/- (2nd rank)
Rs. 2,00,000/- (3rd rank)
Rs. 2,00,000/- (Special Award for NER).
Best AIT category: Certificate of merit and a memento, without any cash prize.
Back2Basics: Rashtriya Gokul Mission
Details
About
Implemented for development and conservation of indigenous bovine breeds since December 2014.
Continued under the umbrella scheme Rashtriya Pashudhan Vikas Yojana from 2021 to 2026 with a budget of Rs.2400 crore.
Nodal Ministry
Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying
Objectives
Enhance productivity of bovines and increase milk production sustainably using advanced technologies.
Propagate the use of high genetic merit bulls for breeding purposes.
Enhance artificial insemination coverage by strengthening the breeding network and providing services at farmers’ doorsteps.
Promote indigenous cattle & buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.
PYQ:
[2015] Livestock rearing has a big potential for providing non-farm employment and income in rural areas. Discuss suggesting suitable measures to promote this sector in India.
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Robot Tax
Why in the News?
The Swadeshi Jagran Manch (SJM), affiliated with the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS), wants a ‘robot tax’ to help employees who lose their jobs because companies are using Artificial Intelligence (AI).
SJM’s Proposals and Suggestions
Robot Tax Proposal: SJM proposes a ‘robot tax’ to create a fund supporting workers displaced by AI adoption to upskill and adapt to new technologies.
Tax Incentives for Job Creation: Suggestions include tax incentives for industries based on their employment-output ratio to encourage job creation.
Fund for Worker Upskilling: Emphasizes the need for economic measures to cope with the human cost of AI. SJM suggests using a ‘robot tax’ to fund worker upskilling programs.
Additional Budgetary Recommendations
Incentivise job creation: SJM suggests tax incentives for industries generating more employment, based on an employment-output ratio.
Subsidies for Small Farmers: SJM proposes subsidies for micro irrigation projects to boost productivity among small farmers.
SJM recommends that micro-irrigation projects be made eligible for funding via CSR by adding them to Schedule VII of the Companies Act, 2013.
Wealth tax on Vacant Lands: SJM suggests a wealth tax on “vacant land” to discourage unnecessary landholding for future requirements.
What is a Robot Tax?
A robot tax is a proposed tax on companies that use automation and artificial intelligence (AI) technologies to replace human workers.
The idea behind this tax is to generate revenue that can be used to support workerswho lose their jobs due to automation.
This can include retraining programs, unemployment benefits, and other forms of social support.
Need for a Robot Tax
Job Displacement:
Automation Impact: AI and automation can lead to significant job losses in various industries as machines and software perform tasks previously done by humans.
Worker Support: A robot tax can provide financial resources to support displaced workers, helping them transition to new roles or acquire new skills.
Economic Inequality:
Wealth Distribution: Automation tends to concentrate wealth among those who own the technology, leading to increased economic inequality.
Redistribution: Taxing companies that benefit from automation can help redistribute wealth more fairly across society.
Funding for Public Programs:
Social Safety Nets: Revenue from a robot tax can fund social safety nets such as unemployment benefits, retraining programs, and other social services.
Infrastructure: It can also support public infrastructure projects and other initiatives that benefit society as a whole.
Incentivising Human Employment:
Employment Decisions: By imposing a tax on automation, companies might be more inclined to consider human workers over robots for certain tasks.
Balanced Approach: This can help maintain a balance between technological advancement and human employment.
Examples and Proposals
Bill Gates’ Proposal: Bill Gates in 2022 advocated for a robot tax, suggesting that the revenue could fund job retraining and other social benefits.
European Parliament: In 2017, the European Parliament considered a robot tax as part of broader regulations on AI and robotics, though it was ultimately not implemented.
Criticisms and Challenges
Implementation: Determining how to effectively implement and enforce a robot tax can be challenging.
Innovation Stifling: Critics argue that a robot tax could hinder innovation and technological progress.
Global Competition: There are concerns that companies might relocate to countries without such a tax, affecting global competitiveness.
Conclusion
A robot tax is a controversial yet potentially beneficial approach to addressing the economic and social impacts of AI and automation.
It aims to provide support for displaced workers, reduce economic inequality, and ensure that the benefits of technological advancements are shared more broadly across society.
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: NABARD, Integrated Tribal Development Programme
Why in the News?
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is set to launch an integrated tribal development programme in Kulathupuzha grama panchayat, Kollam.
About Integrated Tribal Development Programme
Thanal, an environment organisation, will be the implementing agency of the project that aims to transform livelihoods of tribal families over the next five years.
The five-year initiative targets the sustainable livelihood and agricultural enhancement of 413 families residing in eight hamlets.
The programme focuses on promoting diverse agricultural crops such as pepper, arecanut, coconut, ginger, Thai ginger, turmeric, and plantain.
It encompasses initiatives in goat rearing, poultry, beekeeping, fish farming, and fodder production.
The establishment of a Tribal Farmer Producer Company (FPO) is also planned to further economically empower the community.
Components of the Programme
Water Resource Development: Initiatives aimed at enhancing water resources for agricultural purposes.
Leadership Training: Training sessions to empower local leaders within the tribal communities.
Awareness Creation: Campaigns to raise awareness about sustainable practices and community development.
Sanitation and Hygiene Initiatives: Efforts to improve sanitation and hygiene standards among the tribal families.
Marketing and Branding Training: Training programmes to enhance marketing skills and brand awareness among participants.
Skill Development Workshops: Workshops focused on enhancing both agricultural and non-agricultural skills among the tribal community.
About NABARD:
It was established on July 12, 1982, based on the recommendation of the Sivaraman Committee to promote sustainable rural development and agricultural growth in India.
Aim: To facilitate credit flow for the promotion and development of agriculture, small-scale industries, cottage and village industries, handicrafts, and other rural crafts.
It operates as a statutory body under the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934, with its headquarters located in Mumbai.
It is governed by a Board of Directors appointed by the GoI:
Representatives from the RBI;
Central and state governments;
Experts from various fields related to Rural Development and Finance.
Functions of NABARD:
Refinance Support: NABARD provides refinance facilities to banks and financial institutions for agricultural and rural development activities, including crop loans and rural infrastructure projects.
Financial Inclusion: It promotes financial inclusion by expanding banking services in rural areas, supporting SHGs, FPOs, and MFIs, and facilitating access to credit for rural communities.
Priority Sector Lending: NABARD plays a crucial role in channelling credit to priority sectors such as agriculture, small-scale industries, and rural infrastructure, in alignment with the Reserve Bank of India’s priority sector lending guidelines.
Direct Lending: It extends direct loans to institutions for specific rural development projects, such as agricultural production, rural infrastructure development, and agri-processing units.
Scheme Implementation: The organization administers government schemes and funds like Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF), Watershed Development Fund (WDF) to finance rural infrastructure projects and watershed development activities.
Credit Planning: NABARD collaborates with central and state governments, RBI, and other stakeholders to formulate credit policies and plans for agriculture and rural sectors.
Research and Training: NABARD promotes research and development in agriculture, supports capacity building and training programs for rural stakeholders, and facilitates technology transfer initiatives.
PYQ:
[2013] Which of the following grants/grants direct credit assistance to rural households?
Regional Rural Banks
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
Land Development Banks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: National Commission for Minorities
Why in the News?
The National Commission for Minorities (NCM) has advised State Governments/UTs to conduct “Sarv Dharma Meetings”.
Advisory on “Sarv Dharma Meetings”
NCM advised State Governments/UTs to conduct “Sarv Dharma Meetings”:
At Sub-divisional level of States monthly.
At District level half-yearly.
It is aimed at curbing attacks and hate crimes against minority communities to prevent communal disharmony.
NCM emphasized that hate crimes stem from mental weakness and anger, highlighting citizens’ rights to practice and preach their religion freely.
Responsibilities and Recommendations
Citizens and society urged to disown and condemn hate crimes.
Advocated for punitive actions by authorities against anti-social elements.
Proposed mechanisms involving civic society to deter anti-social and anti-national forces and prevent societal violence.
AboutNational Commission for Minorities (NCM)
It is a statutory body formed on the basis of National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992 and replaced an earlier body called Minorities Commission.
The Commission consists of a total of 7 persons to be nominated by the Central Government from amongst persons of eminence, ability and integrity.
It consists of a Chairperson, a Vice- Chairperson and 5 Members.
Each Member holds office for a period of 3 years from the date of assumption of office.
Functions of NCM:
Evaluate minority development progress.
Monitor constitutional and legal safeguards.
Recommend effective safeguard implementation.
Address complaints regarding deprivation of rights.
Conduct studies on discrimination and recommend measures.
Research socio-economic and educational development.
Suggest measures to Central or State Governments.
Make periodical or special reports to the Central Government.
Address any matter referred by the Central Government.
Powers of NCM:
Summon and enforce attendance of any person from India.
Require discovery and production of documents.
Receive evidence on affidavit.
Requisition public records from courts or offices.
Issue commissions for examining witnesses and documents.
Who are Minorities?
The Central has notified minority communities at the national level in consultation with various stakeholders under Section 2 (c) of the National Commission for Minorities (NCM), Act, 1992.
The six communities notified as minority communities under Section 2(c) of the NCM Act are Christians, Sikhs, Muslims, Buddhists, Parsis, and Jains.
Jains were notified as minority community in January 2014.
Notification of any community-specific to a State as a minority community within a State comes under the purview of the respective State.
Total Minority Population in India as per 2011 Census:
19.3% of the total population (Muslims: 14.2%; Christians: 2.3%; Sikhs: 1.7%; Buddhists: 0.7%; Jains: 0.4%; Parsis: 0.006%)
Rights & Safeguards for Minorities:
Under Fundamental Rights (Part III of the Indian Constitution):
Article 29(1): Right to conserve distinct language, script, or culture.
Article 30(1): Right to establish and administer educational institutions.
Article 30(2): Freedom from discrimination in receiving state aid.
Under Official Language (Part XVII of the Indian Constitution):
Article 347: Rights for language spoken by any section of the population.
Article 350A: Instruction in mother tongue.
Article 350B: Special officer for linguistic minorities.
Sachar Committee Report (2006):
Constitution Date: 9 March 2005
Key Recommendations:
Create a National Data Bank (NDB) for socio-religious data.
Establish an Equal Opportunity Commission.
Provide incentives for a ‘diversity index.’
Ensure high-quality education for children aged 0-14.
Set up government schools in Muslim-concentrated areas.
Increase Muslim employment share in public-facing jobs.
Enact state laws for minority representation.
Support initiatives in Muslim-concentrated occupations.
Improve minority participation in commercial banks.
Focus on inclusive development while respecting diversity.
PYQ:
[2011] In India, if a religious sect/community is given the status of a national minority, what special advantages it is entitled to?
It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha.
It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
