💥UPSC 2026, 2027, 2028 UAP Mentorship (March Batch) + Access XFactor Notes & Microthemes PDF

Type: Prelims Only

  • Air Pollution

    Highlights of the World Air Quality Report, 2023

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: World Air Quality Report, Particulate Matters

    Mains level: NA

    Why in the news-

    • India has been ranked as the third-most polluted country in 2023, following Bangladesh and Pakistan, according to the ‘World Air Quality Report 2023’ by IQAir.
    • IQAir is a Swiss air quality technology company, specializing in protection against airborne pollutants, developing air quality monitoring and air cleaning products

    Comparative Analysis

     

    • Previous Rankings: In 2022, India held the eighth position among the most polluted countries with an average PM2.5 concentration of 53.3 micrograms per cubic meter, demonstrating a marginal increase in pollution levels.
    • Global Rankings: The report ranked 42 Indian cities among the top 50 most polluted cities globally, with Begusarai, Guwahati, and Delhi leading the list.

    Key Highlights

    (A)  Most Polluted Indian Cities:

    • Ten out of the top 11 most polluted cities in the world are from India, the other being Lahore in Pakistan.
    • Begusarai, located in Bihar, witnessed a significant increase in PM 2.5 concentration from 19.7 micrograms per cubic metre in 2022 to 118.9 micrograms per cubic metre in 2023.
    • Guwahati’s PM2.5 concentration doubled from 51 to 105.4 micrograms per cubic meter between 2022 and 2023.
    • Delhi saw an increase in PM2.5 concentration from 89.1 to 92.7 micrograms per cubic meter over the same period.
    • Other Indian cities featuring in the top 50 most polluted cities of the world list included Greater Noida (11), Muzzafarnagar (16), Gurgaon (17), Arrah (18), Dadri (19), Patna (20), Faridabad (25), Noida (26), Meerut (28), Ghaziabad (35) and Rohtak (47).

    (B) Global Insights:

    • Oceania—comprising Australia, New Zealand, and French Polynesia—remained the region with the cleanest air in 2023.
    • The report highlighted the top five most polluted countries worldwide, including Bangladesh, Pakistan, India, Tajikistan, and Burkina Faso.
    • Seven countries which met the WHO annual PM2.5 guideline (annual average of 5 µg/m3 or less) included Australia, Estonia, Finland, Grenada, Iceland, Mauritius, and New Zealand.
    • Despite previous declines, China experienced a 6.3% increase in PM2.5 concentration in 2023, signalling a concerning trend.
    • For the first time, Canada emerged as the most polluted country in Northern America, reflecting regional air quality challenges.
    • Africa remains the most underrepresented continent, with a third of the population still lacking access to air quality data.

    What are Particulate Matters (PM)?

     

    • Particulate matter (PM) consists of a mixture of solid particles and liquid droplets suspended in the air.
    • These particles come from various sources, including vehicle emissions, industrial processes, construction activities, agricultural activities, wildfires, and natural dust.
    • PM can be classified into different size categories based on its aerodynamic diameter.
    • Common size fractions include PM10 (particles with a diameter of 10 micrometres or smaller) and PM2.5 (particles with a diameter of 2.5 micrometers or smaller).
    • PM 2.5 are so small that they can penetrate deep into the respiratory system and enter the bloodstream, posing significant health risks.
    • Long-term exposure to elevated levels of PM2.5 has been linked to reduced lung function, aggravated asthma, and increased risk of heart attacks and strokes.

    PYQ:

    Q.Mumbai, Delhi and Kolkata are the three Mega cities of the country but the air pollution is much more serious problem in Delhi as compared to the other two. Why is this so? (2015)

     

    Q.In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index? (2016)

    1. Carbon dioxide
    2. Carbon monoxide
    3. Nitrogen dioxide
    4. Sulphur dioxide
    5. Methane

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 2, 3 and 4 only
    3. 1, 4 and 5 only
    4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

     

    Practice MCQ:

    Consider the following statements:

    1. Particulate matter (PM) consists of a mixture of solid particles as well as liquid droplets suspended in the air.
    2. PM 2.5 can penetrate deep into the respiratory system and enter the bloodstream, posing significant health risks.
    3. Natural dust does not contribute to PM.

    How many of the given statements is/are correct?

    1. One
    2. Two
    3. Three
    4. None
  • Digital India Initiatives

    [pib] Government e Marketplace (GeM)  

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Government e Marketplace (GeM)

    Mains level: NA

    gem

    Why in the news-

    • The government’s procurement portal, GeM (Government e-Marketplace), is looking to encourage more and more start-ups and small and micro enterprises to list themselves as sellers.

    About Government e-Marketplace (GeM) 

    • The GeM is a one-stop National Public Procurement Portal to facilitate online procurement of common use Goods & Services required by various Government Departments / Organizations / PSUs.
    • It was launched in 2016 by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
    • It has been developed by the Directorate General of Supplies and Disposals (under MCI) with technical support from the National e-governance Division (MEITy).

    Functions for GeM

    • Enhancement of Public Procurement: GeM aims to enhance transparency, efficiency, and speed in public procurement processes.
    • Paperless and Cashless Transactions: It is a completely paperless, cashless, and system-driven e-marketplace that enables procurement of common-use goods and services with minimal human interface.
    • Facilitation of Best Value: GeM provides the tools of e-bidding, reverse e-auction, and demand aggregation to facilitate government users in achieving the best value for their money.
    • Mandatory Purchases by Government Users: The purchases through GeM by Government users have been authorized and made mandatory by the Ministry of Finance by adding a new Rule No. 149 in the General Financial Rules, 2017.

    Key Developments on GeM:

    • GeM Outlet Stores: GeM has introduced outlet stores for various product categories like SARAS, Ajeevika, Tribes India, Startup Runway, Khadi India, India Handloom, India Handicraft, Divyangjan, etc.
    • Bamboo Market Window: GeM, in collaboration with the National Bamboo Mission, has introduced a dedicated window on its portal for marketing Bamboo Goods.
    • Country of Origin Tag: Since 2020, the government has made it mandatory for sellers on the GeM portal to clarify the country of origin of their goods when registering new products.

    PYQ:

    Q.‘SWAYAM’, an initiative of the Government of India, aims at (2016) –

    1. Promoting the Self Help Groups in rural areas
    2. Providing financial and technical assistance to young start-up entrepreneurs
    3. Promoting the education and health of adolescent girls
    4. Providing affordable and quality education to the citizens for free

     

    Practice MCQ:

    With reference to the Government e-Marketplace (GeM), consider the following statements:

    1. It is a one-stop National Public Procurement Portal launched in 2016.
    2. It is developed by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)

    Select the correct option:

    1. Only 1
    2. Only 2
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
  • Intellectual Property Rights in India

    Passing Off under Trademark Rules

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Trademarks, Patents

    Mains level: Not Much

    Why in the news?

    • A lady in New Delhi successfully obtained trademark for her Momos brand from New Delhi High Court, after a similar trademark infringed upon her rights and reputation.
    • The lady’s legal action invoked ‘passing off’ provisions, seeking cancellation of the infringers’ trademark under relevant sections of the Trademarks Act.

    What are Trademarks?

    • A trademark is a symbol, design, word, or phrase that is identified with a business. Registering a trademark allows its owner to claim “exclusive rights” to its usage.
    • The Trademarks Act of 1999 governs the regime of trademarks and their registration in India.
    • It guarantees protection for trademarks registered with the Controller General of Patents, Designs, and Trademarks, also known as the trademark registry.
    • According to Section 25 of the 1999 Act, once registered, a trademark is valid for 10 years and can be renewed by the owner periodically.

    Concept of ‘Passing Off’

    • ‘Passing off’ entails deceptive practices where one brand attempts to profit from the reputation of another through misrepresentation.
    • In Cadila Healthcare Limited vs. Cadila Pharmaceuticals Limited (2001), the Supreme Court defined passing-off as a form of unfair trade competition, where one brand seeks to profit from the established reputation of another through deceptive means.
    • Infringed parties can seek injunctions, damages, or accounts against the infringing entity to mitigate the damages caused.

    Application in the Present Case: Grounds for Trademark Refusal

    • Legal Provisions: Sections 11(1), 11(2), 11(3)(a), and 47 of the Trademarks Act outline grounds for refusal to register trademarks and provisions for removal from the register.
    • Likelihood of Confusion: Trademarks resembling earlier trademarks, leading to public confusion, are ineligible for registration under Section 11(1).
    • Protection of Distinctive Marks: Section 11(2) prohibits registration of marks that take unfair advantage of or harm the reputation of well-known trademarks.
    • Non-Compliance and Non-Usage: Section 47 allows removal of trademarks from the register for non-compliance or non-use, subject to aggrieved parties’ applications.

    Back2Basics: Trademarks vs. Patents

    Trademark Patent
    Purpose Identify and distinguish goods or services Protect new and inventive products or processes
    Laws and Provisions Trademarks Act, 1999 Patents Act, 1970
    Subject Matter Signs like logos, brand names, slogans, packaging Inventions including products, processes, methods
    Duration of Protection 10 years.

    Indefinite with periodic renewal

    Typically 20 years from the filing date
    Registration Process File application with Trademarks Registry (i.e. Controller General of Patents) File application with Indian Patent Office
    Rights Granted Exclusive use of the trademark in connection with goods or services Exclusive rights to exploit the invention commercially

     


    PYQ:

    Consider the following statements:

    1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
    2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
    3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    Practice MCQ:

    With reference to Trademarks in India, consider the following statements:

    1. Trademark can be a symbol, design, word or even a phrase.
    2. It allows its owner to claim “exclusive rights” to its usage
    3. It is valid for 5 years.

    How many of the given statements is/are correct?

    1. One
    2. Two
    3. Three
    4. None
  • Wildlife Conservation Efforts

    [pib] Exercise Tiger Triumph-24

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Exercise Tiger Triumph-24

    Mains level: Not Much

    Why in the news

    • The third edition of the bilateral tri-service ‘Exercise Tiger Triumph– 24’ between India and the US will be held on the Eastern Seaboard in the US from March 18 to 31.

    Exercise Tiger Triumph-24

    • The primary aim of this exercise is to enhance interoperability between the Indian Navy and the US military for conducting Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) operations.
    • It is being held since 2019. The second edition was conducted in 2022.
    • The exercise focuses on refining Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) to enable rapid and smooth coordination between the forces of both countries during HADR operations.
    • Participants include:
    1. Indian Navy: Ships with integral helicopters and landing crafts, navy aircraft, Indian Army personnel and vehicles, Indian Air Force aircraft and helicopters, and the Rapid Action Medical Team (RAMT).
    2. US Military: US Navy ships with embarked troops from the US Marine Corps and US Army.
    • Indian and US naval assets, along with troops and equipment, are deployed for the Sea Phase after the harbor phase.

    All Major Defence Exercises between India and the US

    • Yudh Abhyas: Yudh Abhyas is an annual bilateral exercise between the Indian Army and the US Army. It focuses on enhancing interoperability and cooperation in counterterrorism and counterinsurgency operations.
    • Malabar Exercise: Malabar is a trilateral naval exercise involving the United States, India, and Japan. It aims to improve interoperability in maritime security, anti-submarine warfare, and disaster response.
    • Cope India: Cope India is an air force exercise between the Indian Air Force and the United States Air Force. It focuses on enhancing interoperability and cooperation in aerial combat tactics, techniques, and procedures.
    • Vajra Prahar: Vajra Prahar is a bilateral Special Forces exercise between the Indian Army and the US Army. It focuses on counterterrorism operations, hostage rescue, and other special operations.
    • Red Flag Exercise: While not exclusively a bilateral exercise between India and the US, the Red Flag Exercise hosted by the United States Air Force at Nellis Air Force Base in Nevada often includes participation from the Indian Air Force. This exercise focuses on advanced aerial combat training and tactics.

    Significance of the Exercise

    • Strengthening Bilateral Ties: The exercise serves to strengthen the strategic partnership and cooperation between India and the United States.
    • Preparedness: Both countries aim to enhance their readiness and capabilities to respond to humanitarian crises and natural disasters effectively.
    • Cooperation: The exercise underscores the commitment of India and the US to international peace and security by collaborating on humanitarian missions.

    Practice MCQ:

    How many of the given are joint defence exercises between India and the US?

    1. Yudh Abhyas
    2. Malabar
    3. Cope India
    4. Vajra Prahar
    5. Mitra Shakti
    6. Garuda Shakti

    Select the correct option:

    1. Two
    2. Three
    3. Four
    4. Five
  • Animal Husbandry, Dairy & Fisheries Sector – Pashudhan Sanjivani, E- Pashudhan Haat, etc

    Foot and Mouth Diseases in Cattles

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Foot-and-Mouth Disease (FMD)

    Mains level: NA

    fmd

    Why in the news

    • The foot-and-mouth disease (FMD) has affected around many milch cattle in Uttar Pradesh.

    What is Foot-and-Mouth Disease (FMD)?

    • FMD is a highly contagious viral disease of livestock that has a significant economic impact.
    • The disease affects all cattle, swine, sheep, goats, and other cloven-hoofed ruminants.
    • Intensively reared animals are more susceptible to the disease than traditional breeds.
    • It does not affect horses, dogs, or cats.

    How does it spread?

    • It is a Transboundary Animal Disease (TAD) that deeply affects the production of livestock and disrupts regional and international trade in animals and animal products.
    • It is caused by is an aphthovirus’ of the family Picornaviridae.
    • There are 7 strains (A, O, C, SAT1, SAT2, SAT3, and Asia1) which are endemic in different countries worldwide.
    • Immunity to one type does not protect an animal against other types or subtypes.

    Implications of FMD

    • FMD is characterized by fever and blister-like sores on the tongue and lips, in the mouth, on the teats, and between the hooves.
    • The disease is rarely fatal in adult animals, but there is often high mortality in young animals.
    • The disease causes severe production losses, and while the majority of affected animals recover, the disease often leaves them weakened and debilitated.

    Policy moves to prevent FMD

    • FMD Mukt Bharat Abhiyan (2016-17): Launched under Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY) during, it is a program to cover all the states which were not covered under the six-monthly vaccination scheme.
    • National Animal Disease Control Programme (2019): It aims to control of Foot & Mouth Disease and Brucellosis by vaccinating 100% cattle, buffalo, sheep, goat and pig population for FMD and 100% bovine female calves of 4-8 months of age for brucellosis.

    PYQ:

    Q. Livestock rearing has a big potential for providing non- farm employment and income in rural areas. Discuss suggesting suitable measures to promote this sector in India. (2015)

    Practice MCQ:

    With reference to the National Animal Disease Control Programme, consider the following statements:

    1. It aims to control of Foot & Mouth Disease (FMD) and Brucellosis by vaccinating 100% cattle, buffalo, sheep, goat and pig population.
    2. For brucellosis it would vaccinate 100% bovine calves of all age.

    Which of the given statements is/are correct?

    1. Only 1
    2. Only 2
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
  • ISRO Missions and Discoveries

    Multi-purpose app SAKHI to assist Gaganyaan Crew

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: SAKHI App, Progress tracking of Gaganyaan Mission.

    Mains level: Not Much

    What is the news-

    • The Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC), an ISRO facility located at Thumba in Thiruvananthapuram, has developed a multi-purpose app ‘SAKHI’ to assist Gaganyaan Crew.

    About SAKHI

    • The Space-borne Assistant and Knowledge Hub for Crew Interaction (SAKHI) is equipped to monitor astronauts’ health, maintain communication with Earth, and manage dietary schedules.
    • It serves as an essential tool for the crew, offering real-time assistance and access to necessary data.
    • It would assist astronauts during the Gaganyaan space flight mission, facilitating tasks such as accessing vital technical information and communication.
    • Strapped to astronauts’ space suits, it allows for easy access and facilitates the maintenance of mission logs in various formats.

    Utility offered by SAKHI

    • Health Monitoring: SAKHI provides comprehensive health monitoring, including parameters like blood pressure, heart rate, and oxygen saturation. It also reminds astronauts about hydration, dietary schedules, and sleep patterns, enhancing their mission efficiency.
    • Communication: SAKHI maintains communication between the crew, onboard computers, and ground-based stations, ensuring seamless connectivity.

    Gaganyaan Mission Timeline:

    • ISRO aims to launch the Gaganyaan human spaceflight mission in 2025.
    • The identities of the four astronaut-designates, all IAF test pilots, were revealed at a high-profile event attended by PM at the VSSC on February 27.
    • The final crew for the mission will be selected from among the four astronaut-designates.

    Also read:

    4 IAF Gaganyaan Astronaut-designates named

     


    PYQ:

    Which of the following is/are cited by the scientists as evidence/evidences for the continued expansion of the universe? (2012)

    1. Detection of microwaves in space
    2. Observation of redshift phenomenon in space
    3. Movement of asteroids in space
    4. Occurrence of supernova explosions in space

    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 only
    3. 1, 3 and 4
    4. None of the above can be cited as evidence
  • Climate Change Impact on India and World – International Reports, Key Observations, etc.

    [pib] Mission LiFE

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Mission LiFE

    Mains level: Not Much

    Why in the news-

    • Recently an EIACP Event (Environment Information, awareness, capacity building and livelihood Programme) was held on the ‘Mission Life’.

    About Mission LiFE

    • Mission LiFE, or Lifestyle for Environment, is a global mass movement initiated by India to encourage individual and community action towards environmental protection and preservation.
    • It was inaugurated by the PM Modi at the 26th UN Climate Change Conference of the Parties (COP26) in Glasgow in November 2021.
    • The program aims to mobilize one billion Indians and individuals worldwide to adopt sustainable lifestyles.

    Salient Features of Mission LiFE

    • It serves as a platform to showcase sustainable goals and climate actions implemented by countries and individuals globally.
    • It aligns with the P3 model, promoting Pro Planet People and fostering a sense of collective responsibility.
    • It operates based on the principles of ‘Lifestyle of the planet, for the planet, and by the planet’.

    Strategy of Mission LiFE

    • Mission LiFE adopts a three-pronged strategy to shift people’s collective approach towards sustainability:
      1. Nudging individuals to practice simple yet effective environment-friendly actions in their daily lives (demand).
      2. Enabling industries and markets to respond swiftly to the changing demand (supply).
      3. Influencing government and industrial policy to support both sustainable consumption and production (policy).

    Practice MCQ:

    With reference to the Mission LiFE, consider the following statements:

    1. It is a mass movement initiated by India to encourage individual and community action towards environmental protection and preservation.
    2. It was inaugurated at the UN Climate Change Conference of the Parties (COP26) in Glasgow in November 2021.

    Which of the given statements is/are correct?

    1. Only 1
    2. Only 2
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
  • Innovations in Sciences, IT, Computers, Robotics and Nanotechnology

    7 Ghost Particles pierce through Earth: IceCube Observations

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Neutrinos, IceCube Observatory, Indian Neutrino Observatory (INO), Trident

    Mains level: NA

    Why in the news

    • Researchers at the IceCube Observatory, buried beneath the Antarctic ice, have identified seven potential instances of elusive “Ghost Particles” or astrophysical Tau Neutrinos as they penetrated through Earth.
    • These neutrinos are pivotal for understanding the cosmic exchanges between Earth and the vast universe.

    What are Neutrinos?

    • Neutrinos, often referred to as “ghost particles,” are subatomic particles characterized by their nearly zero mass and lack of electric charge.
    • They traverse through matter with minimal interaction, making their detection extremely challenging.
    • Previously believed to be massless, evidence has emerged indicating that neutrinos possess a very small mass.
    • Neutrinos rank among the most abundant particles in the universe.
    • While neutrinos and electrons behave similarly in terms of nuclear forces, neither of them engages in strong nuclear interactions.
    • However, both participate in weak nuclear interactions.
    • Neutrinos are produced during events such as nuclear fusion in stars like the Sun or nuclear fission in reactors.

    Properties of Neutrinos

    Electric Charge Electrically Neutral
    Mass Extremely Low (Exact Masses Not Known)
    Types Electron Neutrino, Muon Neutrino, Tau Neutrino
    Interaction Weak Interaction
    Speed Close to the Speed of Light
    Spin Fermion, Half-Integer Spin
    Neutrino Oscillations Neutrinos Change Flavor during Travel
    Interactions Very Weak Interaction with Matter
    Abundance Among the Most Abundant Particles in the Universe
    Cosmic Messengers Can Carry Information from Distant Cosmic Sources

     

    Why Neutrinos are termed “Ghost Particles”?

     

    • The weak charge and almost imperceptible mass of neutrinos render them exceedingly difficult for scientists’ to detect directly.
    • Due to their rare interactions with other particles, tracking neutrinos proves nearly impossible.

    Significance of Neutrino Detection

    • The origins of the abundant neutrino particles remain largely unknown to scientists.
    • There’s a hypothesis suggesting their potential role in the early universe shortly after the Big Bang, yet concrete evidence remains elusive.
    • Understanding neutrinos better holds the promise of unraveling numerous scientific phenomena, including the mysterious origins of cosmic rays, which neutrinos are known to carry.
    • Researchers anticipate that pinpointing the source of neutrinos will aid in explaining the origins of cosmic rays, a puzzle that has perplexed scientists for centuries.

    About IceCube Observatory

    icecube

    • Location: The IceCube Neutrino Observatory is situated near the Amundsen-Scott South Pole Station in Antarctica.
    • Components:
    1. IceCube: The primary detector consists of 5,160 digital optical modules (DOMs) attached to vertical strings frozen into the ice.
    2. IceTop: Located on top of IceCube strings, it serves as a veto and calibration detector for cosmic rays.
    3. DeepCore: A denser subdetector within IceCube that lowers the neutrino energy threshold for studying neutrino oscillations.
    • Construction:
    1. Completed in December 2010 with 86 strings deployed over seven austral summers.
    2. Involved melting holes in the ice to depths of 2,450 meters and deploying sensors connected to cables.
    • Research Goals:
    1. Observing neutrinos from various astrophysical sources to study cosmic phenomena like exploding stars, gamma-ray bursts, and black holes.
    2. Studying cosmic rays interacting with the Earth’s atmosphere to reveal structures not fully understood.
    3. Advancing neutrino astronomy and exploring high-energy processes in the Universe.

     

    Recent Neutrino Observatories in news:

     

    [1] Indian Neutrino Observatory (INO)

    • INO approved in 2015, is a proposed particle physics research mega project.
    • Its objective is to study neutrinos in a 1,200 meter deep cave.
    • The primary objective of the INO Project is to study neutrinos, one of the most abundant fundamental particles, coming from various sources and using an underground Iron calorimeter (ICAL) detector.
    • Its location is decided to be at the Bodi West Hills (BWH) region near Pottipuram village in Theni district of Tamil Nadu (110 km from the temple town of Madurai).

    [2] China’s TRIDENT

    • Scheduled for completion in 2030, TRIDENT, aptly nicknamed “Ocean Bell” or “Hai ling” in Chinese.
    • It will be positioned 11,500 feet (3,500 meters) beneath the ocean’s surface in the Western Pacific.
    • It seeks to explore the realm of neutrinos, transient particles that momentarily interact with the deep ocean, emitting faint flashes of light.

     


    PYQs:

    (1) In the context of modern scientific research, consider the following statements about ‘IceCube’, a particle detector located at the South Pole, which was recently in the news: (2015)

    1. It is the world’s largest neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic kilometre of ice.
    2. It is a powerful telescope to search for dark matter.
    3. It is buried deep in the ice.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    (2) India-based Neutrino Observatory is included by the planning commission as a mega-science project under the 11th Five-year plan. In this context, consider the following statements: (2010)

    1. Neutrinos are chargeless elementary particles that travel close to the speed of light.
    2. Neutrinos are created in nuclear reactions of beta decay.
    3. Neutrinos have a negligible, but non-zero mass.
    4. Trillions of Neutrinos pass through the human body every second.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 1, 2 and 3 only
    3. 2, 3 and 4
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  • Health Sector – UHC, National Health Policy, Family Planning, Health Insurance, etc.

    What is the HbA1C Test for Diabetes?

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: HbA1C Test, Diabetes (Type-1 and 2)

    Mains level: NA

    Why in the news-

    • India faces a significant burden of diabetes, with an estimated 10.13 crore people affected and an additional 13.6 crore individuals classified as pre-diabetic.
    • One of the most commonly-used tests to diagnose pre-diabetes and diabetes (both type 1 and type 2) and to help manage diabetes, is the haemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) test.

    What is the HbA1C Test?

    • The HbA1C test, or glycated haemoglobin test, serves as a vital tool for diagnosing pre-diabetes and diabetes, offering insights into long-term blood glucose control.
    • It measures the percentage of red blood cells coated with sugar.
    • It provides a comprehensive view of average blood glucose levels over the preceding two to three months.
    • It is recommended for individuals over 30 years and those with specific risk factors, with retests scheduled based on initial findings and individual health profiles.

    Evolution and Acceptance

    • Initially inconsistent, the test gained recognition for its correlation with blood glucose values and its role in monitoring glycemia, leading to improved standardization and accuracy.
    • It is endorsed by medical bodies like World Health Organization (WHO) and the American Diabetes Association and.
    • This underscores the test’s diagnostic utility, subject to stringent quality assurance measures.

    Interpretation of Results

    • Results are typically presented as percentages.
    1. Normal: Values below 5.7% are considered
    2. Pre-diabetes: 5.7% to 6.4%
    3. Diabetes: 6.5% or higher
    • Alternatively, results may be expressed in mmol/mol, providing a comparable metric for assessment.

    Limitations of the Test

    • While informative, the HbA1C test may be supplemented by other tests, particularly in populations with conditions affecting assay accuracy.
    • In India, factors like thalassemia prevalence and iron-deficiency anemia may impact test reliability, necessitating caution and additional indices for glycemic assessment.

    PYQ:

    ‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations?

    1. Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go
    2. Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat
    3. Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals
    4. Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies

    Practice MCQ:

    Consider the following statements about the HbA1C test:

    1. It is used in the diagnosis of Sickle Cell Disease.
    2. It measures the percentage of red blood cells coated with sugar.
    3. It is recommended for individuals over 30 years.

    How many of the given statements is/are correct?

    1. One
    2. Two
    3. Three
    4. None
  • Primary and Secondary Education – RTE, Education Policy, SEQI, RMSA, Committee Reports, etc.

    [pib] ULLAS Initiative

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: ULLAS Initiative, FLNAT Exam

    Mains level: Adult Literacy

    Why in the news

    • The Department of School Education and Literacy (DoSEL), Ministry of Education recently conducted the Foundational Literacy and Numeracy Assessment Test (FLNAT), under the ULLAS – Nav Bharat Saaksharta Karyakram Initiative.

    Foundational Literacy and Numeracy Assessment Test (FLNAT)

     

    • FLNAT is a nationwide assessment test conducted as part of the ULLAS initiative.
    • It aims to evaluate the foundational literacy and numeracy skills of registered non-literate learners aged 15 and above.
    • The assessment covers three aspects – Reading, Writing, and Numeracy – and is conducted in all districts of participating states/UTs.
    • The test plays a crucial role in assessing the impact of teaching-learning sessions conducted under the ULLAS program and promoting literacy and numeracy skills among citizens.
    • It is conducted in the regional language of the learners, aligning with the NEP 2020’s emphasis on multilingualism
    • Qualifying learners receive a certificate from the National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS).

     What is ULLAS Initiative?

    • ULLAS stands for Understanding Lifelong Learning for All in Society.
    • It seeks to advance lifelong learning and bridge literacy gaps among individuals aged 15 and above.
    • The program aims to equip citizens with fundamental knowledge and skills essential for personal and national development.
    • The ULLAS User-Friendly Mobile Application serves as a digital platform providing access to a wide range of learning resources via the DIKSHA portal.

    Key Features of ULLAS

    1. Emphasizes continuous learning across all stages of life.
    2. Cultivates a culture of knowledge-sharing and individual growth.
    3. Provides participants with digital literacy skills.
    4. Promotes awareness and empowerment in financial matters.
    5. Imparts vital life skills such as legal literacy and digital competence.
    6. Enhances citizenship awareness and empowerment.
    7. Grants school/university credits to student volunteers.
    8. Offers recognition through certificates, letters of appreciation, and felicitation ceremonies.

    PYQ:

    Consider the following statements:

    1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
    2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
    3. In India, more than 90% of teacher -5 education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  (2018)

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 3
    4. 3 only

    Practice MCQ:

    1. Consider the following statements about the ULLAS Initiative:
    2. It focuses on Foundational Literacy.
    3. Individuals aged 15 and above are eligible under this initiative.

    Which of the given statements is/are correct?

    1. Only 1
    2. Only 2
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2