Ahead of PM Modiâs Manipur visit, United Naga Council (UNC) has announced a trade embargo from against the IndiaâMyanmar border fence and the suspension of the Free Movement Regime (FMR).
About the Free Movement Regime (FMR):
Overview: Introduced in the 1970s, FMR allowed residents within 16 km of the IndiaâMyanmar border to travel freely up to 16 km across without visa requirements.
Border length: IndiaâMyanmar border stretches 1,643 km across four states: Arunachal Pradesh (520 km), Nagaland (215 km), Manipur (398 km), Mizoram (510 km).
Purpose: To recognize ethnic, cultural, and familial ties of communities (Kuki, Naga, Mizo, etc.) living across the unfenced border.
Revision: Last revised in 2016 under the Act East Policy.
Suspension: On February 8, 2024, MHA formally announced its scrapping, citing:
Internal security risks.
Illegal immigration and demographic changes in NE states.
Cross-border drug trafficking and insurgency links.
Stakeholder Perspectives:
Kuki groups: View FMR suspension and fencing as an attack on shared ethnic ties, even comparing it to the Berlin Wall. Recently reached an understanding with MHA negotiators.
Naga groups (UNC): Strongly opposed to border fencing and FMR suspension, claiming it undermines homeland, land rights, and identity. Announced a trade embargo in protest.
Meiteis (Valley population): Support suspension, arguing that FMR facilitated illegal migration, illicit drug trade, and aggravated ethnic tensions.
Government of India: Defends suspension on security and demographic grounds, while attempting to balance peace talks with tribal groups.
[UPSC 2016] Consider the following statements:
I. Assam shares a border with Bhutan and Bangladesh
II. West Bengal shares a border with Bhutan and Nepal
III. Mizoram shares a border with Bangladesh and Myanmar
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Options: (a) I, II and III * (b) I and II only (c) II and III only (d) I and III only
The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has issued the Immigration and Foreigners (Exemption) Order, 2025, notified under Section 33 of the Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025.
What is Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025?
Enactment: Passed by Parliament, effective 1 Sept 2025.
Objective: Unifies scattered immigration laws into a single framework, balancing national security, demographic protection, humanitarian obligations, and economic openness.
Repeals: Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920; Registration of Foreigners Act, 1939; Foreigners Act, 1946; Immigration (Carriersâ Liability) Act, 2000.
Key Provisions:
All foreigners must enter, stay, exit with valid passport & visa, unless exempted.
Digital system with biometrics, AI-based monitoring, and real-time agency coordination.
New visa categories: Skilled Talent, Startup, Investor, Digital Nomad, Business Plus.
Mandatory reporting by hotels, landlords, universities, hospitals on foreign guests/students/patients.
Entry to protected/restricted areas subject to special permits; mountaineering expeditions need prior approval.
Penalties: Up to 7 years imprisonment and âč10 lakh fine for forged documents; detention centres allowed for illegal foreigners till deportation.
Institutions:
National Immigration Authority for policy and central database.
Bureau of Immigration, led by Commissioner, for operations.
About Immigration and Foreigners (Exemption) Order, 2025:
Overview: Issued by Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) on 1 Sept 2025 under Section 33 of the Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025.
Objective: Consolidates earlier scattered exemptions to simplify rules, enable regional mobility with Nepal & Bhutan, extend humanitarian relief to refugees/persecuted minorities, and provide legal clarity to carriers.
Replaces: The Registration of Foreigners (Exemption) Order, 1957 and Immigration (Carriersâ Liability) Order, 2007.
Exemptions:
Indian Armed Forces members on duty and families using govt transport.
Indian citizens entering via Nepal/Bhutan borders.
Nepal & Bhutan citizens (except if entering from China, Hong Kong, Macau, Pakistan).
Tibetans registered with India, religious minorities from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Pakistan (who entered before Dec 31, 2024), and Sri Lankan Tamils sheltered till Jan 9, 2015.
Diplomats, visa-on-arrival nationals, foreign military personnel on goodwill or exercises.
Carriersâ Liability: Rail, road, air, sea operators exempted where forged documents need expert verification or ships/aircraft are diverted.
[UPSC 2021] With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1.There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
2.A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
3.A foreigner, once granted citizenship, cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) 1 only* (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
The World Coconut Day (2nd September) was recently celebrated by the Coconut Development Board (CDB).
About Coconut Development Board (CDB):
Establishment: Created on 12 January 1981; statutory body under the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare.
Headquarters & Offices: HQ at Kochi, Kerala; regional offices in Bengaluru, Chennai, Guwahati, and Patna.
Mandate: Integrated development of coconut production and utilization with focus on productivity, processing, and product diversification.
Functions: Provides technical advice and financial aid to farmers/processors; promotes modern technology adoption, value addition, pricing & marketing measures, and export promotion.
Welfare Schemes: Implements farmer-focused programs like Coconut Palm Insurance Mission and Kera Suraksha.
Back2Basics: Coconut Cultivation in India
Global Standing: India is the third-largest coconut producer, contributing about 31.45% of world output.
Production: In 2023â24, India produced 153.29 lakh MT from an area of 23.33 lakh ha.
Productivity: Average productivity at 9,871 nuts/ha, among the highest globally.
Leading States: Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh account for ~90% of production. Kerala and TN lead, Karnataka has risen sharply, AP contributes ~8%.
Economic Value: Sector contributed âč27,199.5 crore GVO and âč30,795.6 crore GDP share in 2022â23.
Exports: In 2022â23, India exported coconut products worth âč3,554.23 crore (US $452 million) including copra, oil, coir, activated carbon, and value-added foods.
The Union Home Ministry empowered Foreigners Tribunals (FTs), especially in Assam, to detain suspected illegal immigrants in designated camps, a power earlier exercised only through executive orders.
About Foreigners Tribunal (FT):
Nature: Quasi-judicial bodies constituted under the Foreigners (Tribunal) Order, 1964, framed under the Foreigners Act, 1946.
Purpose: Decide whether a person is a foreigner/illegal immigrant, especially in the context of Assamâs border migration issues.
Cases handled:
References from border police against suspected foreigners.
Cases of âDâ (doubtful) voters flagged by the Election Commission.
Composition: Members drawn from retired judges, advocates, and civil servants with judicial experience; capped at 3 members per tribunal.
Functioning:
FTs exercise powers of a civil court (summons, evidence, witness examination).
Required to dispose of cases within 60 days of reference.
Burden of proof lies on the individual to establish citizenship (Section 9, Foreigners Act).
Present Status: About 100 FTs operational in Assam (expanded after NRC-2019). No FTs in other states, where suspected foreigners are tried in local courts.
New Provisions under the Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025:
Replacement: Replaces the Foreigners (Tribunal) Order, 1964, now part of the comprehensive Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025.
Detention Powers: For the first time, FTs are empowered to detain suspected illegal immigrants in designated transit camps, a power earlier exercised through executive orders.
Judicial Authority:
Powers of a civil court under CPC, 1908.
Powers of a judicial magistrate (first class) under Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 â including issuing arrest warrants, ordering detention, and directing personal appearance.
Ex-parte Orders: Can be set aside if the appellant files a review within 30 days.
Scope: Though applicable nationwide, functional relevance remains in Assam.
Restrictions on Employment: Bars foreigners from working in strategic sectors (defence, nuclear energy, petroleum, power, water supply, space, human rights) without Central government approval.
Border Security Measures: Border forces/Coast Guard to record biometrics and demographic data of illegal entrants before pushing them back.
Grounds for Refusal of Stay: Foreigners convicted of terrorism, espionage, narcotics trafficking, organized crime, human trafficking, cybercrime, child abuse, crimes against humanity, etc., can be refused entry or deported.
Exemptions: Citizens of Nepal, Bhutan, Tibetans, and Sri Lankan Tamils exempted under a special 2025 order.
[UPSC 2009] Consider the following statements:
1. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up during the Prime Ministership of Lal Bahadur Shastri.
2. The Members for CAT are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only* (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
The Ministry of Earth Sciences has formed a 12-member committee led by SC lawyer Sanjay Upadhyay to draft a new national law safeguarding Indiaâs maritime and economic interests under the 2023 High Seas Treaty (BBNJ Agreement).
Objective: Conservation and sustainable use of marine biodiversity in international waters (covering ~64% of the worldâs oceans).
Scope of Provisions:
Establishment of Marine Protected Areas (MPAs) in high seas.
Regulation of seabed mining and extractive activities.
Fair and equitable sharing of benefits from marine genetic resources.
Mandatory environmental impact assessments (EIAs) before major projects.
Use of both scientific and traditional knowledge, guided by the precautionary principle.
Relation to UNCLOS: Would be the third implementing agreement, alongside:
1994 Part XI Implementation Agreement (seabed mineral resources).
1995 UN Fish Stocks Agreement (conservation of migratory fish stocks).
Adoption & Status:
Agreed in March 2023, open for signature for 2 years from September 2023.
Enters into force 120 days after the 60th ratification (currently ratified by 55 countries).
[UPSC 2022] With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements:
1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention.
2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.
3. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Options: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3*
Raman Research Institute (RRI) has devised the Probing ReionizATion of the Universe using Signal from Hydrogen (PRATUSH) Telescope to study the “Cosmic Dawn” by detecting radio signals from neutral hydrogen gas.
About the PRATUSH Mission:
Developer: Designed by the Raman Research Institute (RRI), Bengaluru, an autonomous institute under the Department of Science and Technology (DST).
Main Goal: To study the Cosmic Dawn â the period when the first stars and galaxies formed â by detecting the faint 21-cm radio signal from neutral hydrogen.
Why from the Moon? On Earth, these signals get lost due to radio noise (like FM signals) and atmospheric distortions. The lunar far side is the quietest place in the inner Solar System for radio astronomy, making it the best site.
Scientific Importance: Will help scientists understand how the first stars heated and ionized hydrogen gas, how the early Universe changed, and may even give clues about dark matter and fundamental physics.
Key Features:
Compact Design: Small, lightweight, low-power, and cost-effective â in line with the global trend of miniaturized space instruments.
Digital Receiver System:
Uses a single-board computer (like Raspberry Pi prototype).
Equipped with FPGA (Field Programmable Gate Array) for high-speed radio data processing.
How it Works:
Antenna collects faint hydrogen signals.
Analog receiver amplifies them.
Digital receiver + FPGA convert them into detailed spectral fingerprints of sky brightness.
Test Results: Lab trials (352 hours) showed extremely low noise (few millikelvins), proving it can detect faint cosmic signals.
SWaP Advantage: Optimized for Size, Weight, and Power (SWaP), making it highly suitable for space deployment.
[UPSC 2010]Â In the context of space technology, what is Bhuvan, recently in the news?
Options:
(a) A mini satellite launched by ISRO for promoting the distance education in India
(b) The name given to the next Moon Impact Probe, for Chandrayaan-II
(c) A geoportal of ISRO with 3D imaging capabilities of India *
A recent controversy arose in Kerala, where the Governor (ex-officio Chancellor of State Universities) urged the Supreme Court to exclude the Chief Minister from the process of selecting Vice-Chancellors (VCs).
Who is the Vice-Chancellor?
Position: Serves as Principal Academic and Executive Officer of the university.
Functions: Bridges executive and academic wings; ensures compliance with Acts, Statutes, and Regulations.
Authority: Chairs key bodies such as the Executive Council, Academic Council, Finance Committee, and Selection Committees.
Union Minister for Electronics & IT has presented PM with a memento containing the first âMade in Indiaâ Vikram 32-bit Launch Vehicle Grade Processor (VIKRAM3201).
AboutVikram 32-bit Processor (VIKRAM3201):
Overview: Indiaâs first fully indigenous 32-bit space-grade microprocessor, developed by VSSCâISRO with Semiconductor Laboratory (SCL), Chandigarh.
Lineage: Successor of 16-bit VIKRAM1601 (used since 2009 in ISRO launch vehicles), designed for avionics, navigation, guidance, and mission control.
Launch & Validation: Unveiled at Semicon India 2025 as a symbol of Indiaâs semiconductor self-reliance. Validated in space during PSLV-C60 (2025) via POEM-4 experiments.
Applications: Primarily for space missions, but also suited for defence, automotive, and energy systems due to its rugged reliability.
A Madhya Pradesh High Court judge has recused himself from hearing a petition in an alleged illegal mining case, saying that a MLA had âattempted to call himâ to have a discussion regarding the matter.
About Recusal:
Overview: Recusal is the act of a judge or official abstaining from a case due to conflict of interest or a possible perception of bias.
Legal Basis:
There are no codified laws, but multiple Supreme Court rulings provide guiding principles.
In Ranjit Thakur v. Union of India (1987), SC held that the test of bias is the reasonableness of the apprehension in the mind of the affected party.
Grounds for Recusal:
Prior personal/professional association with a party.
Having appeared for a party in the case earlier.
Ex parte communications with parties involved.
Cases where a judge may be reviewing his own earlier judgment (e.g., SC appeals against HC orders delivered by the same judge earlier).
Financial or personal interests (e.g., shareholding in a company party to the case).
Underlying Principle: Rooted in the maxim ânemo judex in causa suaâ â no one should be a judge in their own cause.
Process of Recusal:
Judgeâs Discretion:
Decision usually rests with the judgeâs conscience and discretion.
Judges may orally inform the parties, record it in the order, or sometimes recuse silently without explanation.
On Request:
Lawyers or parties may request recusal; final decision still rests with the judge.
Some judges have recused even without conflict, merely to avoid doubt. Others refuse if no genuine bias exists.
Procedure: Once recusal is declared, the case is placed before the Chief Justice for reassignment to another Bench.
Concerns Related to Recusal:
Judicial Independence at Risk: Can be misused by litigants to bench hunt (cherry-pick a judge), undermining judicial impartiality.
Lack of Uniform Standards: Absence of formal rules might lead to inconsistent approaches by different judges.
Potential for Abuse:
Requests for recusal may be used to delay proceedings, intimidate judges, or obstruct justice.
This undermines both the integrity of courts and timely justice delivery.
[UPSC 2019] With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
Options:
(a) The decisions taken by the. Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by the laws made by Parliament.
(c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.
The NASA-ESA Solar Orbiter Mission has recently traced the origin of Solar Energetic Electrons (SEE), advancing knowledge of solar activity and space weather.
AboutNASAâESA Solar Orbiter Mission:
Launch & Cost: Launched in Feb 2020 on an Atlas V from Cape Canaveral; joint ESAâNASA mission worth $1.5 billion.
Duration: Primary mission till 2026, extendable to 2030.
Orbit: Highly eccentric, approaching 0.28 AU (inside Mercuryâs orbit); gradually tilts to image Sunâs poles.
Payload: 10 instruments â both in-situ (solar wind, magnetic fields, particles) and remote sensing (imaging, spectroscopy).
Firsts & Objectives: First to image solar poles; aims to study solar wind origin, solar cycle dynamics, causes of flares/CMEs, and their impact on heliosphere & space weather.
What are Solar Energetic Electrons (SEE)?
What are they: Streams of high-energy electrons released into space, travelling across the heliosphere.
Sources: Emerge from solar flares (sudden surface bursts) and coronal mass ejections (CMEs) (plasma + magnetic eruptions).
Patterns: Release not always immediate; often delayed by hours due to turbulence/scattering in interplanetary medium.
Solar Orbiter Observations: Detected 300+ bursts (2020â22), clearly linking SEE to solar flares/CMEs for the first time.
The Dongar cultivation, a hill-slope mixed cropping system of the Kondh tribals in Odishaâs Rayagada is now under decline due to eucalyptus monoculture.
What is Dongar Cultivation?
Overview: A traditional shifting/mixed cropping system practised on hill slopes (uplands) by the Kondh tribal community in Odisha.
Crops grown: Millets (finger millet, foxtail millet), pulses, oilseeds, and even uncultivated foods like wild tubers.
Benefits offered: Provides nutritional diversity, supports birds and biodiversity, and maintains soil fertility without chemical inputs.
Cultural practice: Linked to seed conservation, labour exchange, and community-based farming traditions, reflecting a holistic tribal food system.
Significance: Its poly-cropping nature makes it more resilient to rainfall variability and climate shocks, unlike monocultures.
Intensive valley wetland system; combines paddy farming with fish rearing; highly sustainable and productive.
[UPSC 2018] With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of âConservation Agricultureâ assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?
1. Avoiding the monoculture practices
2. Adopting minimum tillage
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface
5. Adopting spatial and temporal rop sequencing/crop rotations.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Options: (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (c) 2, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 5*
Matanomadh in Kutch, Gujarat, with jarosite deposits like those on Mars, is being considered by ISRO as a test site for future Mars missions.
What is Jarosite?
Composition: A yellow, iron-rich sulphate mineral containing iron, sulphur, oxygen, and potassium.
Formation: Develops when volcanic ash or sulphur-bearing minerals chemically react with water, making it a marker of past waterârock interaction.
Discovery in India: Reported in 2016 at Matanomadh, Kutch (Gujarat) by ISROâs Space Applications Centre; also found at Varkala cliffs, Kerala. Kutch is more suitable for planetary research.
Martian Link: Detected in 2004 by NASAâs Opportunity Rover. This referred as terrestrial clone of Martian surface.
Global Occurrence: Found in Mexico, Spain, Canada, Japan, and the USA (Utah, California), all serving as Mars analogue sites.
Matanomadhâs Significance for Mars Study:
Mars Analogue Value: Geological dating shows deposits about 55 million years old (Paleocene period), resembling early Martian conditions.
Test Bed for ISRO: Provides ground for testing rover mobility, drilling systems, geochemical studies, and remote sensing for Mangalyaan-2 and future missions.
Astrobiology Potential: Since jarosite can trap organic molecules, it helps in shaping strategies to search for signs of past life on Mars.
Complement to Ladakh: While Ladakh sites simulate Martian climate, Matanomadh represents Martian geology and mineralogy, creating a comprehensive Mars-analogue ecosystem in India.
Conservation Importance: Facing threats from waterlogging and coal mining; scientists urge its declaration as a Planetary Geo-heritage Site.
Strategic Edge: Strengthens Indiaâs role in planetary exploration, astrobiology research, and international collaborations.
[UPSC 2016] Consider the following statements:
1. The Mangalyaan launched by ISRO
2. is also called the Mars Orbiter Mission
3. made India the second country to have a spacecraft orbit the Mars after USA
4. made India the only country to be successful in making its spacecraft orbit the Mars in its very first attempt
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only  (b) 2 and 3 only  (c) 1 and 3 only * (d) 1, 2 and 3
A powerful earthquake in Afghanistan killed at least 800 people and injured thousands, highlighting the countryâs extreme vulnerability to seismic hazards.
Why is Afghanistan so prone to Earthquakes?
Geological Setting: Afghanistan lies in the Hindu Kush mountains, part of the Alpide Belt, the worldâs second most seismically active belt after the Circum-Pacific.
Tectonic Origin: The Alpide Belt was formed by the closure of the Tethys Ocean, following the collision of the African, Arabian, and Indian Plates with the Eurasian Plate.
Ongoing Collision: The Indian Plateâs continued movement into the Eurasian Plate builds mountain ranges (Himalayas, Hindu Kush) and drives strong seismic activity.
Seismic Characteristics: Afghanistan experiences both shallow-focus earthquakes (0â70 km depth) causing major destruction and rare deep-focus quakes (up to 200 km) unique to the Hindu Kush.
Fault Structures: Major faults occur where the Indian and Eurasian Plates meet, making Afghanistan heavily fractured and highly vulnerable to tremors.
Where do Afghanistanâs Earthquakes occur?
Hindu Kush Region (Northern Afghanistan): Produces both shallow and deep-focus quakes due to the Indian Plateâs lithosphere sinking into the mantle, making it one of the worldâs most unique seismic zones.
Sulaiman Range (SE Afghanistan & Western Pakistan): Known for shallow, thrust fault quakes, often destructive at the surface.
Main Pamir Thrust Zone: Another hotspot for shallow, surface-level earthquakes that cause high damage.
Overall Vulnerability: These regions together make Afghanistan one of the most earthquake-prone countries, with repeated deadly events since the 1990s.
[UPSC 2023] Consider the following statements:
1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves.
2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of waves propogation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a)Â 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 * (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Prelims Only | Polity | Mains Paper 2: Indian Constitution - historical underpinnings, evolution, features, amendments, significant provisions and basic structure
Why in the News?
The Supreme Court has referred to a larger Bench the question of whether Minority Educational Institutions (MEIs) are completely exempt from the purview of the Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009.
About Minority Educational Institutions (MEIs):
Constitutional Basis:
Article 30(1) grants religious and linguistic minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
Article 29 protects their cultural and educational rights.
Legal Framework:
Defined under the National Commission for Minority Educational Institutions (NCMEI) Act, 2004.
The NCMEI adjudicates disputes, grants recognition, and safeguards the autonomy of such institutions.
Recognized Minority Communities: Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, and Zoroastrians (Parsis) are notified as minorities by the Government of India.
Judicial Principles:
In T.M.A. Pai Foundation vs. State of Karnataka (2002), SC held that minority status is determined state-wise, not nationally.
Minority institutions can reserve seats for their community and enjoy greater control over administration and recruitment.
Purpose and Role:
Preserve the cultural, linguistic, and religious heritage of minority groups.
Provide quality education with constitutional protection from excessive state interference.
What is the Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009?
Genesis: Stemming from Unnikrishnan vs. State of Andhra Pradesh (1993), where SC declared education as a Fundamental Right under Article 21.
Later given constitutional backing through the 86th Amendment Act (2002), which inserted Article 21A â free and compulsory education for children aged 6â14 years.
Enactment: To operationalize Article 21A, Parliament passed the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009.
Key Provisions:
Free and compulsory education for all children aged 6â14 in a neighbourhood school.
25% reservation in private schools for children from disadvantaged groups and weaker sections.
No detention, expulsion, or board exams up to Class VIII (amended in 2019 to allow states discretion).
Teacher norms: TET (Teachers Eligibility Test) qualification mandatory; ban on private tuitions by teachers.
School Management Committees (SMCs): Parents, local authority reps, and teachers oversee school functioning.
Curriculum & Standards: Developed by an academic authority (often NCERT/SCERT).
Amendments:
2012: Included children with disabilities; exempted minority/religious institutions.
2019: Abolished uniform âno-detention policy,â left to statesâ choice.
[UPSC 2018] Consider the following statements:
1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only* (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
The Ramon Magsaysay Award 2025 has been awarded to Educate Girls, an Indian NGO working to promote girlsâ education in rural and disadvantaged regions.
Other winners include:
Shaahina Ali (Maldives): A noted environmental activist.
Fr. Flaviano Antonio L. Villanueva (Philippines): A human rights defender, critic of Duterteâs drug war.
About Educate Girls:
Founded as: Foundation to Educate Girls Globally; CEO: Gayatri Nair Lobo.
Mission: Address gender inequality in education and uplift rural communities through girlsâ schooling.
Impact:
Operates in Indiaâs most rural and remote regions.
Employs community workers (preraks, team balikas) to mobilise enrollment and retention.
Significance: It is the first Indian organisation to win the award since its inception in 1958.
About Ramon Magsaysay Award:
âNobel Prize of Asiaâ: Awarded annually since 1958.
Purpose: Celebrate âgreatness of spirit and transformative leadershipâ in Asia.
Recognition: Individuals/organisations showing integrity in governance, service, and idealism in democracy.
Origin:
Established April 1957 by Rockefeller Brothers Fund trustees with support of the Philippines govt.
Named in honour of Ramon Magsaysay, former Philippine President (1953â57), noted for administrative and military leadership.
Original Categories (1958â2008): Govt Service, Public Service, Community Leadership, Journalism & Arts, Peace & International Understanding, and later Emergent Leadership (2001).
Since 2009: Fixed categories dropped (except Emergent Leadership), award now honours diverse forms of excellence.
Notable Indian Recipients:
Vinoba Bhave (1958): Bhoodan movement.
Mother Teresa (1962): humanitarian service.
Satyajit Ray (1967): cinema.
M.S. Subbulakshmi (1974): music.
Arvind Kejriwal (2006): anti-corruption work.
Ravish Kumar (2019): journalism.
Sonam Wangchuk (2018): educational innovation.
Educate Girls (2025): first Indian organisation to be honoured.
[UPSC 2004] Sandeep Pandey, the winner of Ramon Magsaysay Award, is mainly an activist in:
Options: (a) a campaigner for urban sanitation (b) an anti-child labour activist (c) Environmental protection (d) Education and livelihood projects for Dalits*
The Ministry of Tribal Affairs has launched the Beta Version of âAdi Vaaniâ, Indiaâs first AI-based translator for tribal languages.
About Adi Vaani:
What is it: Indiaâs first AI-powered translator for tribal languages.
Launch: Released in Beta Version (2025) by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
Inception: Developed under Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh to empower tribal communities and safeguard endangered tribal languages.
Created by: A team led by IIT Delhi with BITS Pilani, IIIT Hyderabad, IIIT Nava Raipur, and Tribal Research Institutes.
Impact: Strengthens digital literacy, ensures inclusive governance, preserves cultural identity, and positions India as a global leader in AI for endangered languages.
Key Features:
Translation Modes: Text-to-Text, Text-to-Speech, Speech-to-Text, and Speech-to-Speech.
Languages (Beta): Santali, Bhili, Mundari, and Gondi. Kui and Garo to be added next.
AI Models: Based on NLLB(No Language Left Behind) and IndicTrans2, adapted for low-resource languages.
Community-Driven: Data collected, validated, and iteratively developed by local experts and Tribal Research Institutes.
Toolkit Additions: OCR for digitizing manuscripts, bilingual dictionaries, and curated repositories.
[UPSC 2020] With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following?
1. Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units 2. Create meaningful short stories and songs
3. Disease diagnosis 4. Text-to-Speech Conversion
5. Wireless transmission of electrical energy
Options: (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only* (c) 2, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
