💥UPSC 2027,2028 Mentorship (April Batch) + Access XFactor Notes & Microthemes PDF

Archives: News

  • Wildlife Conservation Efforts

    Bengal Florican: The Last Dance in Shrinking Grasslands

    Why in the News?

    The Bengal Florican, a rare grassland bird, is facing severe population decline, with fewer than 1,000 individuals remaining worldwide due to shrinking floodplain grasslands.

    About Bengal Florican

    • Scientific Name: Houbaropsis bengalensis
    • Type: Bustard species
    • Habitat:
      • Alluvial floodplain grasslands
      • Gangetic Brahmaputra plains

    Grass species in habitat:

    • Imperata cylindrica
    • Saccharum spontaneum
    • Saccharum bengalense
    • Desmostachya bipinnata

    Unique Behaviour

    • Male performs vertical jumps
    • Displays wing movements and vocal calls
    • Known as Lekking behaviour
      • Multiple males display together
      • Attract females

    Local Names:

    • Assamese: Ulu mora
    • Bodo: Daotriling

    Distribution

    India

    Major strongholds:

    • Dudhwa National Park (Uttar Pradesh)
    • Manas National Park (Assam)
    • Kaziranga National Park
    • Orang National Park
    • Dibru Saikhowa National Park
    • Majuli river islands
    • Arunachal Pradesh grasslands

    Outside India

    • Nepal
    • Cambodia (Tonle Sap floodplain)

    Why Bengal Florican is Important

    • Indicator species for grassland ecosystem
    • Flagship species for South Asian grasslands
    • Helps maintain ecological balance
    [2020] With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct? 1 It is spread over two districts. 2 There is no human habitation inside the Park. 3 It is one of the natural habitats of Great Indian Bustard. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
  • Civil Services Reforms

    Sādhana Saptah 2026 Under Mission Karmayogi

    Why in the News?

    Sādhana Saptah 2026 has been launched under Mission Karmayogi to strengthen future ready, citizen centric civil services in India.

    What is Sādhana Saptah

    • Sādhana Saptah stands for:Strengthening Adaptive Development and Humane Aptitude for National Advancement
    • It is:
      • A capacity building initiative
      • For civil servants across India
      • Focused on citizen centric governance

    Parent Initiative

    • Under Mission Karmayogi
    • Also called: National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (NPCSCB)

    Key Objectives

    • Build future ready bureaucracy
    • Improve governance delivery
    • Promote citizen centric administration
    • Strengthen administrative capacity
    [2020] In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy? (a) An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy (b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism (c) An agency for facilitating political stability and economic growth (d) An agency for the implementation of public policy
  • Minority Issues – SC, ST, Dalits, OBC, Reservations, etc.

    Jiyo Parsi Scheme: Government Push to Arrest Declining Parsi Population

    Why in the News?

    The Ministry of Minority Affairs organised a Universal Parsi Registration Drive, resulting in around 300 new registrations on the Jiyo Parsi portal.

    About Jiyo Parsi Scheme

    • Launched: 2013–14
    • Type: Central Sector Scheme
    • Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Minority Affairs
    • Objective: Arrest declining population of Parsi community

    Why the Scheme Was Launched

    Parsi population in India:

    • 1941: ~1,14,000
    • 2011 Census: ~57,000
    • Continuous decline due to:
      • Low fertility rates
      • Late marriages
      • Ageing population

    Who are Parsis

    • Followers of Zoroastrianism
    • Migrated from Persia (Iran) to India
    • Mainly settled in: Mumbai and Gujarat 
    [2011] In India, if a religious sect/community is given “the status of a national minority”, what special advantages is it entitled to? 1 It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions. 2 The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha. 3 It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
  • The Crisis In The Middle East

    FAO Food Price Index Rises Amid West Asia Conflict

    Why in the News?

    The FAO Food Price Index increased in March 2026, mainly due to rising energy costs linked to the West Asia conflict, which pushed up global food prices.

    What is FAO Food Price Index

    The FAO Food Price Index (FFPI):

    • Measures monthly change in global food prices
    • Tracks international food commodity prices
    • Published by Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)

    Components of FAO Food Price Index

    • The index includes five commodity groups:
      • Cereals
      • Vegetable oils
      • Dairy
      • Meat
      • Sugar
    • These are weighted based on average export shares.

    Base Year

    • Base period: 2014–2016 = 100

    About FAO

    Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)

    • Specialized agency of United Nations
    • Established: 1945
    • Headquarters: Rome, Italy
    • Members: 195
      • 194 countries
      • European Union
    [2016] The FAO accords the status of ‘Globally Important Agricultural Heritage System (GIAHS)’ to traditional agricultural systems. What is the overall goal of this initiative? 
    1 To provide modern technology, training in modern farming methods and financial support to local communities of identified GIAHS so as to greatly enhance their agricultural productivity.
    2 To identify and safeguard eco-friendly traditional farm practices and their associated landscapes, agricultural biodiversity and knowledge systems of the local communities. 
    3 To provide Geographical Indication status to all the varieties of agricultural produce in such identified GIAHS. 
    Select the correct answer using the code given below: 
    (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
  • NGOs vs. GoI: The Conflicts and Scrutinies

    [4th April 2026] The Hindu OpED: Fear of the foreign: On the FCRA amendments

    Mentor’s Comment

    The proposed amendments to the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA) mark a significant shift in the regulatory architecture governing foreign funding in India. The controversy arises from the introduction of sweeping executive powers allowing the State to seize and manage assets of NGOs without judicial oversight, raising concerns of natural justice, federal balance, and regulatory fairness. This issue lies at the intersection of national security, civil society autonomy, and constitutional governance.

    What are the key provisions of the FCRA Amendment Bill, 2026?

    The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2026 seeks to amend the FCRA, 2010, primarily to establish a comprehensive framework for managing the assets of organisations whose registration has been cancelled, surrendered, or has ceased

    The proposed legislation introduces several significant changes, including: 

    1. Asset Management: The Central Government is empowered to appoint a “Designated Authority” to manage, transfer, or sell assets created with foreign funds if an organization’s FCRA registration is cancelled or suspended.
    2. Vesting of Assets: Assets can vest provisionally during suspension or permanently upon cancellation, with proceeds potentially transferred to the Consolidated Fund of India.
    3. Broader Liability: The definition of “key functionary” is expanded, making individuals in leadership positions more liable for compliance.
    4. Procedural Changes: Investigations now require prior government approval, and registrations automatically cease upon non-renewal.
    5. Penalties: Maximum imprisonment for certain violations is reduced to one year.

    Why has the FCRA amendment become a major policy controversy?

    1. Executive Overreach: Enables the Centre to seize and manage assets of NGOs without judicial determination.
    2. Automatic Action Mechanism: Provides for instantaneous takeover of assets upon cancellation of FCRA licence.
    3. Absence of Adjudication: Eliminates requirement of judicial or quasi-judicial review, raising rule-of-law concerns.
    4. Shift from Past Practice: Earlier, cancellation affected funding access, not ownership/control of assets.
    5. Scale of Impact: Affects thousands of NGOs, including those running schools, hospitals, and welfare institutions.

    How does the proposed “designated authority” alter the regulatory framework?

    1. Centralised Control: Establishes a statutory authority to seize, manage, and dispose of assets.
    2. Expanded State Power: Extends regulation from fund flow control to asset ownership control.
    3. No Due Process Requirement: Removes safeguards such as judicial review or appeal mechanisms.
    4. Permanent Asset Transfer Risk: Allows the State to retain or repurpose assets built through foreign funds.
    5. Institutional Impact: Directly affects infrastructure like schools, hospitals, and religious institutions.

    Does the amendment violate principles of natural justice and constitutional governance?

    1. Violation of Natural Justice: Enables action without hearing or adjudication, breaching audi alteram partem.
    2. Arbitrariness: Grants unchecked discretionary power to the executive.
    3. Conflict of Interest: Same authority can grant, withdraw, and benefit from decisions.
    4. Rule of Law Concerns: Undermines procedural fairness and accountability mechanisms.
    5. Property Rights Implication: Raises concerns under Article 300A (right to property).

    What concerns arise regarding transparency and selective application?

    1. Opacity in Implementation: Lack of publicly available data on FCRA cancellations since 2024.
    2. Parliamentary Oversight Weakening: Questions on FCRA actions reportedly disallowed in Parliament.
    3. Selective Regulation: Perception that only certain organisations are targeted.
    4. Credibility Deficit: Weakens trust in regulatory institutions due to lack of even-handed enforcement.
    5. Stakeholder Impact: Religious and civil society groups express disproportionate vulnerability.

    How does the amendment reflect broader contradictions in India’s foreign funding policy?

    1. Policy Inconsistency: State actively seeks foreign investment in infrastructure, tech, and real estate.
    2. Civil Society Restrictions: Simultaneously imposes stringent controls on NGO funding.
    3. Economic vs Social Sector Divide: Liberal approach in economic domains, restrictive in civil society.
    4. Regulatory Asymmetry: Creates unequal standards across sectors receiving foreign capital.
    5. Global Image Concerns: Impacts India’s standing on civil liberties and democratic governance indices.

    What has been the trajectory of FCRA regulation in India?

    1. 1976 Act: Introduced to regulate foreign funding during Emergency-era concerns.
    2. 2010 Re-enactment: Strengthened compliance and reporting norms under UPA government.
    3. 2020 Amendment: Imposed stricter limits on sub-granting and administrative expenses.
    4. 2026 Proposal: Moves toward asset control and centralised authority, marking a qualitative shift.
    5. Trend: Progressive tightening of foreign funding ecosystem

    Conclusion

    The proposed FCRA amendments shift the framework from regulation of foreign contributions to control over civil society assets, raising concerns of executive overreach, procedural unfairness, and erosion of institutional safeguards. A credible regulatory regime requires transparency, consistency, and adherence to constitutional principles, particularly natural justice and rule of law. Ensuring judicial oversight, clear accountability mechanisms, and non-discriminatory application remains essential to balance national security interests with democratic freedoms and civil society autonomy.

    PYQ Relevance

    [UPSC 2024] “Public charitable trusts have the potential to make India’s development more inclusive as they relate to certain vital public issues.” Comment.

    Linkage: The PYQ highlights the role of NGOs and charitable trusts in inclusive development, directly linking to FCRA regulation of foreign funding. It provides a framework to critically assess how restrictive FCRA amendments may affect service delivery, autonomy, and civil society participation.

  • Indian Navy Updates

    The significance of India’s third nuclear submarine

    Why in the News?

    India has inducted INS Aridaman, its third SSBN, marking the first time India operates three nuclear ballistic submarines simultaneously. This significantly strengthens India’s second-strike capability, a cornerstone of its nuclear doctrine. The induction represents a shift from limited deterrence to continuous sea-based nuclear readiness, especially amid growing regional strategic competition. The ability to carry K-4 missiles (3,500 km range) marks a major qualitative upgrade over earlier capabilities.

    What are Ship Submersible Ballistic Nuclear (SSBN)?

    1. Definition: Nuclear-powered submarines equipped with submarine-launched ballistic missiles (SLBMs) carrying nuclear warheads.
    2. Core function: Ensures second-strike capability, enabling retaliation even after a nuclear attack.
    3. Endurance: Uses nuclear reactors, allowing months-long submerged operations without surfacing.
    4. Stealth capability: Operates undetected in deep oceans, ensuring survivability of nuclear arsenal.
    5. Strategic role: Forms the most secure leg of the nuclear triad, unlike vulnerable land or air systems.

    Which are India’s earlier SSBNs?

    1. INS Arihant (Commissioned: 2016):
      1. Significance: India’s first indigenous nuclear-powered submarine; marked entry into nuclear triad.
      2. Missile capability: K-15 (700 km range).
      3. Displacement: ~6,000 tonnes.
      4. Role: Established India’s sea-based deterrence foundation.
    2. INS Arighaat (Commissioned: 2024):
      1. Technological upgrade: Improved stealth, endurance, and reactor efficiency over Arihant.
      2. Missile capability: Supports both K-15 and K-4 (3,500 km) missiles.
      3. Role: Strengthened credible deterrence with longer-range strike capability.

    How does INS Aridaman strengthen India’s nuclear deterrence?

    1. Second-strike capability: Ensures survivable nuclear retaliation even after a first strike; SSBNs remain undetected underwater for months.
    2. Extended range missiles: Supports K-4 SLBMs (3,500 km), enabling deep-strike capability beyond immediate neighbourhood.
    3. Operational continuity: Facilitates continuous at-sea deterrence, unlike earlier limited deployment cycles.
    4. Technological upgrade: Incorporates advanced nuclear reactors, enhancing endurance and stealth.

    Why is sea-based deterrence central to India’s nuclear doctrine?

    1. Nuclear triad completion: Integrates land (Agni missiles), air (Rafale, Su-30), and sea-based platforms.
    2. No First Use (NFU): Requires assured retaliation; SSBNs provide guaranteed survivability.
    3. Stealth advantage: Submerged platforms reduce detection risk compared to land and air assets.
    4. Credible deterrence: Enhances deterrence credibility against nuclear adversaries.

    What are the key features of Arihant-class submarines?

    1. INS Arihant (2016):
      1. K-15 Sagarika missiles: Range ~700 km
      2. Displacement: ~6,000 tonnes
      3. Launch tubes: Four
    2. INS Arighaat (2024):
      1. Enhanced technology: Improved stealth and endurance
      2. Missile capability: K-15 + K-4
    3. INS Aridaman (2026):
      1. Displacement: ~7,000 tonnes
      2. Launch tubes: Estimated eight
      3. Missile capability: Higher K-4 payload

    What distinguishes SSBNs from other submarine types?

    1. SSBN (Ballistic nuclear): Enables nuclear deterrence via long-range ballistic missiles.
    2. SSGN (Guided nuclear): Carries conventional guided missiles for tactical operations.
    3. SSN (Nuclear attack): Focuses on anti-submarine and anti-surface warfare.
    4. Strategic significance: SSBNs represent the most survivable nuclear delivery platform.

    How do SSBNs function as strategic deterrence platforms?

    1. Ballistic missile capability: Carries Submarine-Launched Ballistic Missiles (SLBMs) with nuclear warheads; enables long-range strikes (e.g., K-4 ~3,500 km) from secure maritime zones.
    2. Second-strike assurance: Ensures retaliation even after a nuclear first strike; forms the backbone of credible minimum deterrence.
    3. Stealth endurance: Operates silently for months underwater using nuclear propulsion, reducing detection probability.
    4. Strategic targeting: Focuses on counter-value and counter-force targets, influencing adversary calculations at the strategic level.

    How do Ship Submersible Guided Nuclear (SSGNs) differ in role and operational utility?

    1. Guided missile systems: Equipped with cruise missiles (e.g., land-attack or anti-ship missiles) instead of ballistic missiles.
    2. Conventional strike role: Conducts precision strikes on tactical targets such as military bases, ports, and infrastructure.
    3. Versatility: Supports special operations forces (SOF deployment) and intelligence missions.
    4. Operational scope: Used in limited conflicts and conventional warfare, not primarily for nuclear deterrence.

    What defines Ship Submersible Nuclear (SSNs) as attack submarines?

    1. Primary mission: Conducts anti-submarine warfare (ASW) and anti-surface warfare (ASuW) to neutralize enemy naval assets.
    2. Fleet support: Escorts aircraft carriers and protects SSBNs, ensuring layered maritime defence.
    3. High mobility: Nuclear propulsion enables high speed and sustained underwater operations for tracking enemy vessels.
    4. Tactical dominance: Engages in sea denial strategies, restricting adversary movement in strategic waters.

    Why are Ship Submersible Ballistic Nuclear (SSBNs) considered the most survivable nuclear platforms?

    1. Stealth advantage: Deep-sea deployment makes detection extremely difficult compared to fixed land silos or air bases.
    2. Mobility: Constant movement complicates enemy targeting and pre-emption strategies.
    3. Redundancy: Even if land and air assets are destroyed, SSBNs ensure assured retaliation capability.
    4. Deterrence stability: Reduces incentives for a first strike by adversaries, thereby promoting strategic stability. 

    What technological and strategic challenges remain?

    1. Limited fleet size: Three SSBNs insufficient for full-time deterrence patrol cycles.
    2. Dependence on foreign inputs: Reactor and propulsion technologies involve external collaboration.
    3. Detection risks: Advances in anti-submarine warfare (ASW) technologies.
    4. Operational gaps: India currently operates 16 conventional submarines, below required strength (~18-24).

    What are India’s future submarine plans?

    1. SSN programme: Plans to build six nuclear attack submarines domestically.
    2. Lease model: Acquisition of SSN from Russia to bridge capability gaps.
    3. Project-75I: Collaboration with Germany’s ThyssenKrupp Marine Systems for AIP submarines.
    4. Expansion objective: Achieve full-spectrum underwater capability.

    Conclusion

    INS Aridaman marks a transition from symbolic deterrence to operationally credible nuclear deterrence. Sustained investment in SSBN and SSN fleets remains essential for ensuring strategic stability.

    PYQ Relevance

    [UPSC 2022] What are the maritime security challenges in India? Discuss the organisational, technical and procedural initiatives taken to improve maritime security.

    Linkage: SSBNs like INS Aridaman strengthen maritime security by ensuring credible nuclear deterrence and second-strike capability within India’s oceanic domain. The question enables integration of submarine capability, naval modernization, and Indo-Pacific strategic challenges, making SSBNs a key technical initiative in maritime security.

  • Right to be considered for promotion, how it is implemented

    Why in the News?

    The Punjab and Haryana High Court (March 2025) held that denial of fair consideration for promotion violates fundamental rights under Articles 14 and 16. The recent High Court judgment has elevated the “right to be considered for promotion” to a fundamental rights issue, marking a significant shift from its earlier treatment as a mere statutory entitlement. The case exposes systemic administrative failures such as delayed Departmental Promotion Committee (DPC) meetings and misinterpretation of service rules. With multiple High Courts flagging similar violations, the issue reflects a widespread governance gap affecting career progression of public servants.

    What distinguishes the right to promotion from the right to be considered?

    1. The fundamental distinction between the right to promotion and the right to be considered for promotion lies in their legal status: promotion itself is generally not a Fundamental Right, whereas the right to be considered for promotion is a constitutionally protected Fundamental Right, provided the employee meets eligibility criteria. 
    2. While an employee cannot demand an automatic promotion merely by meeting minimum qualifications or due to a vacancy, they have a right to a fair, timely, and lawful evaluation process for that promotion. 

    Key Differences

    1. Right to Consideration (Fundamental/Constitutional):
      1. Basis: Rooted in Articles 14 (Equality before Law) and 16(1) (Equality of Opportunity in Public Employment) of the Indian Constitution.
      2. Scope: Every employee falling within the “zone of consideration” (i.e., meeting eligibility, seniority, and qualifications) has a right to have their service records evaluated by the Departmental Promotion Committee (DPC).
      3. Violations: Failure to hold DPCs regularly, arbitrary exclusion, or delayed evaluation constitutes a violation of this Fundamental Right.
      4. Nature: Active, enforceable right; if ignored, the employee can approach the courts to compel the DPC to meet.
    2. Right to Promotion (Statutory/Vested):
      1. Basis: Depends on the existence of vacancies, merit, performance, and specific Service Rules.
      2. Scope: An employee has no automatic or inherent right to be promoted just because a vacancy exists or they have completed a minimum service period.
      3. Violations: Promotion can be denied based on merit, penalty records, or lack of vacancy, as long as the denial is not arbitrary or discriminatory.
      4. Nature: Not an automatic right. It only vests once the selection process is complete and an order is issued. 

    How is the right to be considered rooted in constitutional provisions?

    1. Article 14 (Equality before law): Ensures non-arbitrary evaluation.
    2. Article 16(1) (Equal opportunity): Guarantees fairness in public employment.
    3. Expansion of ‘employment’: Courts interpret it to include career progression.
    4. Ajit Singh vs State of Punjab (1999): Recognizes denial of consideration as violation of Fundamental Rights.

    What administrative failures undermine the Right to Consideration for Promotion in practice?

    1. Delayed DPC meetings: Causes stagnation and career uncertainty.
    2. Misinterpretation of rules: Example: Kulwant Singh case, distance education wrongly treated as disqualification.
    3. Inconsistent application: States fail to follow amended service rules.
    4. Lack of accountability: No strict enforcement of timelines for promotions.

    How has the judiciary enforced this right across cases?

    1. Punjab & Haryana HC (2025) (Kulwant Singh vs. State of Punjab and others): Recognized denial as violation of fundamental right.
    2. Supreme Court (July 2024) (Major General S.S. Gill vs. Union of India (and similar cases like Arun Kumar M. vs. Union of India): Reaffirmed right as fundamental, though promotion itself is not.
    3. Himachal Pradesh HC (2025): Directed fast-tracking of DPC for lecturers above 57 years.
    4. Manipur HC (2022): Granted relief to inspectors eligible since 2007 but promoted in 2021.
    5. Delhi HC (2024): Mandated regular DPC intervals.

    What are the broader implications for governance and public administration?

    1. Ensures administrative fairness: Prevents arbitrary exclusion.
    2. Improves efficiency: Motivates employees through career progression.
    3. Reduces litigation: Clear rules reduce disputes.
    4. Strengthens rule of law: Enforces accountability of executive actions.

    Why is this issue significant in the context of public employment reforms?

    1. Systemic delays: Reflect institutional inefficiencies.
    2. Career stagnation: Impacts morale and productivity.
    3. Equity concerns: Unequal application affects fairness.
    4. Judicial overreach concerns: Frequent court interventions indicate executive failure.

    Conclusion

    Recognition of the right to be considered for promotion as a fundamental right strengthens constitutional governance. Administrative reforms ensuring timely DPCs and rule clarity are essential to uphold equality and efficiency in public services.

    PYQ Relevance

    [UPSC 2023] The Constitution of India is a living instrument with capabilities of enormous dynamism. Illustrate with special reference to the expanding horizons of the right to life and personal liberty.

    Linkage: It demonstrates how constitutional interpretation evolves, with courts expanding Fundamental Rights beyond original text (Articles 14, 16, 21). The “right to be considered for promotion” reflects this dynamism, as judiciary has elevated service-related fairness into a facet of equality and fundamental rights.

  • Indian Navy Updates

    INS Taragiri Commissioned into Indian Navy

    Why in the News?

    India commissioned INS Taragiri (F41), an indigenously built stealth guided missile frigate, at Visakhapatnam, boosting maritime security and indigenous defence capability.

    INS Taragiri: Key Details

    • Name: INS Taragiri
    • Type: Stealth Guided Missile Frigate
    • Commissioned at: Visakhapatnam
    • Fleet: Eastern Fleet
    • Indigenous content: Over 75%
    • Built by: Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL)

    Project 17A Frigate

    • INS Taragiri belongs to: Project 17A stealth frigates
    • Project 17A ships: INS Nilgiri
      • INS Udaygiri
      • INS Taragiri
      • INS Himgiri
      • INS Dunagiri
      • INS Mahendragiri
      • INS Surat (depending classification variations)
    [2009] Consider the following statements: 
    1 INS Sindhughosh is an aircraft carrier. 
    2 INS Viraat is a submarine. 
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
  • INS Aridhaman Joins Indian Navy, Strengthens Nuclear Deterrence

    Why in the News?

    India quietly commissioned INS Aridhaman, the third indigenously built nuclear powered ballistic missile submarine (SSBN), at Visakhapatnam, strengthening India’s nuclear triad capability.

    INS Aridhaman: Key Details

    • Name: INS Aridhaman (S4)
    • Type: Nuclear Powered Ballistic Missile Submarine (SSBN)
    • Class: Arihant Class
    • Displacement: ~7,000 tonnes
    • Built under: Advanced Technology Vessel (ATV) Project
    • Built at: Ship Building Centre, Visakhapatnam

    Missile Capability

    INS Aridhaman can carry:

    • K 15 Sagarika missiles
      • Up to 24 missiles
      • Range: ~750 km
    • K 4 missiles
      • Up to 8 missiles
      • Range: ~3,500 km
    • Future capability:
      • K 5 nuclear capable missiles (under development)
    • This gives greater firepower compared to earlier submarines.

    India’s Nuclear Triad

    India now maintains Nuclear Triad:

    • Land Based: Agni missiles
    • Air Based: Fighter aircraft nuclear delivery
    • Sea Based: SSBN submarines (like INS Aridhaman)
    • Countries with Nuclear Triad: India, USA, Russia, China, and France

    India’s SSBN Fleet

    • INS Arihant — 2016
    • INS Arighaat — 2024
    • INS Aridhaman — 2026
    • S4* (likely INS Arisudan) — Under trials
    [2016] Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was in the news recently? (a) Amphibious warfare ship (b) Nuclear-powered submarine (c) Torpedo launch and recovery vessel (d) Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier
  • Tribes in News

    Great Nicobar Project: Tribal Relocation Plan Raises Concerns

    Why in the News

    A draft relocation plan for Nicobarese tribal communities linked to the ₹92,000 crore Great Nicobar Island (GNI) mega project has triggered fresh concerns and protests.

    Great Nicobar Infrastructure Project

    • Location: Great Nicobar Island
    • Project Cost: ₹92,000 crore
    • Objective:
      • Infrastructure development
      • Strategic maritime hub
      • Port and airport development

    Project is strategically important for:

    • Indo Pacific presence
    • Maritime trade routes
    • National security

    Tribes of Andaman & Nicobar 

    Major tribes:

    • Nicobarese
    • Shompen
    • Jarawa
    • Sentinelese
    • Onge
    • Great Andamanese
    [2014] Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the ‘Ten Degree Channel’? (a) Andaman and Nicobar (b) Nicobar and Sumatra (c) Maldives and Lakshadweep (d) Sumatra and Java

Join the Community

Join us across Social Media platforms.