An investigation found that a large share of soft loans under the Research, Development and Innovation (RDI) Fund went to firms linked to the fund’s own selection panel. The tension is between fast tracking private deep tech financing and preserving impartial public fund governance.
What is the Research, Development and Innovation (RDI) Fund?
Corpus: A Rs 1 lakh crore fund to provide low cost, long tenure financing for private research and deep technology.
Anchor body: It operates under the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) framework, with the Technology Development Board (TDB) disbursing loans.
What is the conflict of interest concern?
Panel linkage: Members of the selection panel had financial ties to firms that received public funding.
Concentration: A majority of the sanctioned loans went to entities connected to those approving them.
What safeguards does the government cite?
Super majority: Approvals require a super majority of the selection committee.
Stake disqualification: Members holding a stake above a threshold are barred from that decision.
Cost cap: Public funding is capped at a share of total project cost.
Disclosure: Members must declare any negative interest before voting.
Why does the safeguard design still draw scrutiny?
Small expert pool: India’s narrow deep tech expert base makes overlaps between funders and funded hard to avoid.
Verification gap: Declared interests need independent audit to prevent capture.
Meta is reported to be removing protest and political reels after routing takedown requests through the Ministry of Home Affairs Sahyog portal. The conflict is between the state’s power to order content removal and the citizen’s right to free speech online.
What is Section 79(3)(b) of the Information Technology Act, 2000?
Safe harbour condition: Section 79 gives intermediaries legal immunity for user content, conditional on acting on a government or court order.
Takedown trigger: Under 79(3)(b), an intermediary must remove content on receiving actual knowledge through such an order.
How does this differ from the Section 69A route?
Procedural safeguards:Section 69A blocking requires a reasoned order and a review committee, with recorded justification.
Weaker check: The 79(3)(b) route lacks the same documented safeguards, enabling faster and broader removals.
Portal channel: Requests are routed through the MHA’s Sahyog portal, widening the volume of takedowns.
Why does this raise a free speech concern?
Political speech: Removal of protest reels targets expression at the core of Article 19(1)(a) protection.
Opaque process: Users often receive no reasoned order they can challenge.
What is the state’s justification?
Public order: Removal is defended on grounds of preventing unrest and misinformation.
Conclusion
The dispute is over whether a fast track takedown route bypasses the procedural checks that protect online speech. The unresolved question is whether courts will require 69A style safeguards for 79(3)(b) removals.
Back2Basics: Shreya Singhal Judgment (2015)
Ruling: The Supreme Court struck down Section 66A of the IT Act for vagueness.
Section 79: It read down Section 79(3)(b) to require a court or government order before takedown.
Matching Previous Year Question
“[2014, GS2, 12.5 marks] What do you understand by the concept ‘freedom of speech and expression’? Does it cover hate speech also? Why do the films in India stand on a slightly different plane from other forms of expression? Discuss.”
The Supreme Court has agreed to examine whether the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 is being used to defeat the Right to Information Act, 2005. The conflict is between the right to informational privacy and the right of citizens to access public information.
What is Section 44(3) of the DPDP Act, 2023?
Amending provision: Section 44(3) amended Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act, which governs exemption of personal information.
Effect: It removed the earlier public interest override, allowing any personal information to be withheld.
Why does this threaten the Right to Information?
Blanket exemption: Officials can now deny information by labelling it ‘personal data’ without a public interest test.
Journalism risk: Investigative reporting that relies on named records could be gagged.
Accountability loss: Asset disclosures and beneficiary lists that expose wrongdoing may fall outside access.
What is the case for the privacy safeguard?
Fundamental right: Privacy was recognised as a fundamental right under Article 21 in the K.S. Puttaswamy judgment.
Data misuse: Uncontrolled disclosure of personal data can enable profiling and harm.
What must be resolved for the two laws to coexist?
Public interest test: A restored balancing standard is the missing precondition for reconciling access and privacy.
Conclusion
The central question is whether privacy protection can be read so widely that it nullifies transparency. The next milestone is the Court’s substantive hearing on the challenge to Section 44(3).
Back2Basics: Right to Information Act, 2005
Objective: Empowers citizens to seek information from public authorities to promote transparency and accountability.
Key body: Central and State Information Commissions adjudicate appeals and complaints.
Section 8: Lists exemptions from disclosure, including the personal information clause now amended.
“[2020, GS2, 10 marks] ‘Recent amendments to the Right to Information Act will have profound impact on the autonomy and independence of the Information Commission’. Discuss.”
The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2026 has become a flashpoint of the Monsoon Session, with the Opposition demanding it be scrapped or sent to a Joint Committee of Parliament (JPC). The contest is between the state’s interest in policing foreign funds and the operating space of civil society and minority run institutions.
What is the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), 2010?
Governing law: The FCRA regulates the receipt and use of foreign contributions by individuals, associations, and NGOs in India.
Enforcing authority: The Ministry of Home Affairs grants, renews, suspends, and cancels FCRA registration.
What does the Amendment change?
Asset vesting: On cancellation of registration, an entity’s assets could vest in a government designated authority.
Fund routing: Proceeds from such assets could flow to the Consolidated Fund of India.
Why is the Opposition resisting the Bill?
Procedural demand: The INDIA bloc seeks a JPC review before passage, alleging inadequate scrutiny.
Minority institutions:Christian charitable bodies, major service providers in tribal areas, have sought legal clarity on the ‘religion neutral’ framing.
Chilling effect: Wider cancellation and vesting powers could deter legitimate foreign funded welfare work.
What is the counter case for tighter FCRA control?
Sovereignty concern: Foreign funds can be used to influence domestic policy and public order.
Accountability: Stricter vesting rules aim to prevent misuse of assets built with foreign money.
Conclusion
The Bill tests the balance between regulating foreign money and protecting civil society autonomy. Its trajectory now depends on whether it is referred to a JPC or pushed through in the current session.
Back2Basics: Consolidated Fund of India
Constitutional basis: Established under Article 266(1) of the Constitution.
Composition: Holds all revenues received, loans raised, and receipts from loan recovery by the Union government.
Withdrawal rule: No money can be withdrawn from it except by law passed by Parliament.
“[2015, GS2, 12.5 marks] Examine critically the recent changes in the rules governing foreign funding of NGOs under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), 1976.”
A government move that could permit charges on Unified Payments Interface (UPI) transactions has revived the question of a Merchant Discount Rate (MDR). The tension is between funding the rising cost of a free public payments rail and preserving the zero cost model that drove its mass adoption.
What is the Merchant Discount Rate (MDR)?
Definition: The MDR is the fee a merchant pays a bank for accepting a digital payment from a customer.
Current position: MDR on UPI and RuPay debit card payments has been zero since 2020, shifting the settlement cost onto the system.
How would the proposed charge actually work?
Large merchants only: Any MDR would apply to person to merchant (P2M) payments above a threshold, not to small traders.
Enabling law: The change is routed through the Taxation and Other Laws (Amendment) Bill 2026.
What is the case against charging for UPI?
Adoption risk: A fee could push small merchants back toward cash and reverse formalisation gains.
Alternative funding: The RBI’s surplus could subsidise the payments rail instead of a merchant levy.
What are the pressures forcing the question?
Scale cost: Processing billions of monthly transactions imposes real infrastructure and settlement costs on banks.
Sustainability: A permanently free model leaves no revenue to maintain and expand the network.
“[2018] Which one of the following best describes the term ‘Merchant Discount Rate’ sometimes seen in news? (a) The incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit cards pertaining to that bank. (b) The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards for financial transactions for purchasing goods or services. (c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank’s debit cards. (d) The incentive given by the Government to merchants for promoting digital payments by their customers through Point of Sale (PoS) machines and debit cards.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) kept its repo rate unchanged at 5.25% for a fourth consecutive Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) meeting. The decision exposes the tension between reviving growth through cheaper credit and defending price stability while inflation sits above target.
What is the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?
Statutory body: The MPC is the six member committee that sets the benchmark repo rate to keep retail inflation within a legislated band.
Mandate: It is tasked with holding Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation at 4%, within a tolerance range of 2% to 6%.
Why has the RBI chosen to hold rather than cut?
Inflation above target: Retail inflation has stayed above the 4% midpoint, removing headroom for a rate cut.
Geopolitical spillover: The bank flagged the West Asia conflict and crude price risk as reasons to preserve policy space.
External buffer: Protecting foreign exchange reserves and the rupee against capital outflows outranked a growth focused easing.
What are the risks in a prolonged hold?
Growth drag: A sustained high rate raises borrowing costs for firms and households and can slow investment.
Transmission gap: Banks may not pass rate signals through fully, weakening the policy’s real economy effect.
Fiscal friction: Elevated rates raise the government’s own interest burden on fresh borrowing.
Conclusion
The RBI is prioritising price and currency stability over a growth stimulus while inflation remains above target. The next MPC review will turn on whether inflation cools back toward 4% and whether the external environment stabilises.
Back2Basics: Repo Rate
Definition: The rate at which the RBI lends short term funds to commercial banks against securities.
Function: It is the primary tool of monetary policy transmission; a higher repo rate raises the cost of money and cools demand.
Matching Previous Year Question
“[2017] Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)? 1. It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates. 2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year. 3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Answer: (a)”
An investigation found that 15 of the 22 companies receiving the first round of assistance from the Research, Development and Innovation (RDI) Fund had investment links with members of the fund’s selection committee. The panel approved Rs 2,192 crore in soft loans, raising concerns over conflict of interest and transparency.
What is the Research, Development and Innovation (RDI) Fund?
Definition: A Rs 1 lakh crore fund to support private sector research in strategic and deep tech sectors.
Focus Areas: Artificial Intelligence, Quantum Technology, Space, Defence, Robotics, Clean Energy, Semiconductors and Digital Healthcare.
Financial Support: Collateral free loans up to 50% of project cost, at 2 to 4% interest for up to 15 years.
Custodian: Managed through a Special Purpose Fund under the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF).
Fund Managers: Loans are disbursed through Second Level Fund Managers (SLFMs), currently the Technology Development Board (TDB) and Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC).
How are companies selected?
Investment Committees: Each SLFM forms an independent investment committee to evaluate proposals.
Composition: The TDB committee had 12 members, largely from private equity and technology, with one non voting government representative.
Eligibility: Projects must have achieved at least Technology Readiness Level (TRL) 4, meaning laboratory validation is complete.
Selection Criteria: Scientific, technological, financial and commercial viability, with decisions taken by majority vote.
What did the investigation reveal?
Conflict Links:15 of 22 beneficiaries had investment ties with 7 committee members.
Funding Concentration: These firms received over Rs 1,377 crore of the total approved amount.
Chairman’s Role: Nine selected firms were linked to the committee chairman, who reportedly also held a personal stake in one beneficiary.
Committee’s Defence: Members stated that interests were disclosed and they recused themselves from related decisions.
Governance Concern: The episode has renewed demands for stronger safeguards in the use of public funds.
Existing safeguards
Mandatory disclosure of financial interests by committee members.
Recusal from decisions involving associated companies.
Background verification of applicants by fund managers.
Expert driven selection to improve technical assessment.
However, only two SLFMs currently operate the scheme, concentrating decision making and highlighting the need for greater transparency.
Back2Basics: Research, Development and Innovation (RDI) Fund
Launched: 2025
Corpus: Rs 1 lakh crore
Nodal Framework: Operates under the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF)
Objective: Provide long term, low cost financing for private sector research in deep tech and strategic sectors.
Implementing Agencies: Technology Development Board (TDB) and Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC) as Second Level Fund Managers.
Key Feature: Collateral free loans covering up to 50% of project cost through independent investment committees.
India has achieved nearly 20% ethanol blending (E20) in petrol by 2025, making it one of the world’s largest biofuel programmes. As the blending target is achieved, attention is shifting from quantity to the programme’s water use, life cycle emissions and energy efficiency.
What is the E20 Ethanol Blending Programme?
Definition: E20 is petrol blended with 20% ethanol.
Progress: Ethanol blending increased from about 1.5% in 2013-14 to nearly 20% in 2025, with annual consumption of around 700 crore litres.
Benefits: Reduces crude oil imports, boosts farmers’ income and strengthens energy security. Ethanol is often described as a low-carbon fuel because sugarcane absorbs atmospheric carbon dioxide during growth.
What is Energy Return on Energy Invested (EROEI)?
Definition: EROEI measures the usable energy obtained from a fuel relative to the energy spent producing it.
Sugarcane Ethanol: EROEI of about 2 to 4 due to efficient bagasse based distilleries.
Grain Ethanol: EROEI ranges from 1.2 to 2 because of higher fossil fuel inputs.
Significance: Higher EROEI indicates a more energy efficient fuel.
Why is water the biggest concern?
High Water Demand: Estimates by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices and NITI Aayog suggest that sugarcane requires 1,500 to 2,500 mm of water during cultivation.
Large Water Footprint: Producing one litre of sugarcane ethanol may consume 2,000 to 3,500 litres of water.
Groundwater Stress: Major sugarcane growing states already face groundwater depletion.
Resource Trade-off: Excessive ethanol production may replace oil dependence with freshwater dependence.
Distorting Subsidies: Subsidised electricity and fertilisers encourage over extraction of groundwater and excessive fertiliser use. Subsidised urea promotes overuse of nitrogen fertilisers.
What are the other challenges?
Lower Energy Density: Ethanol contains about 21 MJ/litre, compared to 32 MJ/litre for petrol, reducing fuel efficiency by about 6 to 7% under E20 blends. However, ethanol has a much higher octane rating, allowing engines specifically calibrated for higher ethanol blends to achieve more efficient combustion and partially offset this disadvantage. The overall outcome depends on engine design rather than fuel properties alone.
Life Cycle Emissions: Sugarcane ethanol can reduce emissions by 50 to 70%, while grain ethanol offers 20 to 50% reduction, depending on production methods.
Vehicle Compatibility: E20 can corrode certain engine components in older vehicles. Vehicles manufactured from April 2023 onwards are required to be E20 compatible.
Conclusion
India’s ethanol programme represents an important step towards greater energy security, but its long-term success will depend on aligning environmental objectives with sound economics. A resilient biofuel strategy must be guided by transparent life-cycle carbon accounting, rigorous assessment of water use, technology-neutral incentives and market signals that reflect the true value of natural resources.
PYQ Relevance
[2020] According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw materials for the production of biofuels? 1. Cassava
2. Damaged wheat grains
3. Groundnut seeds
4. Horse gram
5. Rotten potatoes
6. Sugar beet Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only (b) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
The Supreme Court has clarified that its earlier direction restricting mining within a 10 km radius of the Asan Wetland Conservation Reserve now applies to all Wetland Conservation Reserves across India. Mining in such areas will require prior approval from the competent authority.
What did the Supreme Court clarify?
Nationwide Application: The 10 km mining safeguard around the Asan Wetland Conservation Reserve will now apply to all Wetland Conservation Reserves.
Uniform Principle: The Court held that the protection should apply uniformly across the country.
Case Background: The clarification came while hearing an application filed by the Himachal Pradesh Government.
State’s Argument: Himachal Pradesh contended that Wetland Conservation Reserves do not have a statutory buffer zone unlike national parks.
Further Direction: The Court asked the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) or the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) to examine whether the Asan Wetland extends into Himachal Pradesh.
What is the Asan Wetland Conservation Reserve?
Location: Situated at the confluence of the Asan and Yamuna rivers in Uttarakhand.
Ramsar Status: Declared a Ramsar Site in 2020.
Ecological Importance: Supports migratory waterbirds and rich aquatic biodiversity.
Judicial Protection: Mining within a 10 km radius requires prior clearance from the NBWL or MoEFCC.
What are Ramsar Sites?
Definition: Wetlands designated under the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands (1971) for their international ecological importance.
India’s Membership: India became a party to the Convention in 1982.
Current Status: India has 101 Ramsar Sites, the highest in Asia.
Significance: Ramsar designation commits countries to maintain the ecological character of wetlands but does not itself create a separate statutory protection regime.
What is the legal position on mining near wetlands?
No Statutory Buffer: The Ramsar Convention and the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017 do not prescribe a fixed buffer zone around wetlands.
2010 Rules: Earlier rules listed prohibited activities and required prior approval for activities within the wetland’s zone of influence.
2017 Rules: Replaced the earlier framework with a decentralised system led by State Wetland Authorities.
Judicial Safeguard: The Supreme Court’s ruling fills this regulatory gap by requiring prior clearance for mining near Wetland Conservation Reserves.
[2022] Consider the following pairs: Wetland/Lake — Location 1. Hokera Wetland — Punjab 2. Renuka Wetland — Himachal Pradesh 3. Rudrasagar Lake — Tripura 4. Sasthamkotta Lake — Tamil Nadu How many pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) Only one pair
The Supreme Court passed an order on 4 August 2026 on the digital arrest scam. It directed banks, states and regulators toward faster action on mule accounts and cyber fraud. The scams persist because they are run largely from overseas hubs.
What is the digital arrest scam?
Definition: Fraudsters impersonate authorities and coerce victims into transferring money under threat of fake arrest. There is no legal basis or process called digital arrest.
Targets: Older victims fall prey through deference to authority and fear of legal trouble.
New targets: Scammers now also target youth and professionals, and senior citizens whom advisories have not reached.
Why are digital arrests keep happening?
Human Psychology & Social Engineering: Cybercriminals use social engineering tactics to manipulate people into revealing sensitive information. Fraudsters also exploit emotions like fear (threatening legal action), excitement (fake lottery wins), or urgency (fake emergency fund requests). Cybercriminals often impersonate trusted sources such as banks, government agencies, or even close friends.
Weak Cybersecurity Practices: Common weaknesses include weak password and credentials use, unpatched software and system and poor security hygiene.
Rapidly Evolving Cybercrime Techniques: Cybercriminals constantly evolve their methods to stay ahead of security measures.
Digital Payments & Financial Fraud Risks: With the rise of digital transactions, cybercriminals have developed sophisticated methods to exploit online payment systems like fake UPI requests & QR codes, card skimming & SIM swaps and crypto & investment scams.
Dark Web & Cybercrime Networks: The dark web serves as a marketplace for stolen data, malware tools, and illegal activities. Cybercrime has become an organized industry where criminals buy and sell stolen data and identity theft, organised cyber-crime syndicates and also offer Ransomware-as-a-Service (RaaS) as well.
Lack of Strong Cyber Laws & Enforcement: Despite increasing cyber threats, many scams go unpunished due to slow law enforcements response, cross border crime challenges and lack of cyber crime awareness and policies.
What did the Supreme Court order?
Debit holds: It directed the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to circulate a standard operating procedure for temporary debit holds on mule accounts.
State action: States must notify cybercrime coordination centres and operationalise electronic Zero FIRs.
Compensation: An inter departmental committee must examine a victim compensation framework.
Data cited: Complaints on the National Cyber Crime Reporting Portal fell from 1,23,672 in 2024 to 16,377 in the first half of 2026.
Recovery: Money was restored in 36,290 cases involving Rs 18.05 crore.
What are the key terms in the response?
Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre (I4C): the nodal body coordinating action against cyber fraud and running the reporting portal.
Mule account: a bank account used to receive and move fraud proceeds across states.
Zero FIR: a First Information Report that can be filed at any police station regardless of jurisdiction.
MuleHunter.AI: a detection system used in over 20 banks to flag mule accounts.
Why do these scams persist despite falling complaints?
Nimble methods: Fraudsters route calls through SIM boxes to mask origin and appear as Indian numbers.
Deepfakes: They deploy deepfakes on video calls to dupe victims and stay untraceable.
Few convictions: Convictions are rare as many schemes are run from overseas scam compounds.
Overseas hubs: Compounds operate in Myanmar, the wider Golden Triangle and Cambodia, some with official patronage.
Trafficking link: Indians are trafficked and coerced to run digital crimes against fellow citizens.
Conclusion
Detection systems and swift account freezes limit the damage even when perpetrators escape conviction. The core problem lies in overseas scam compounds beyond domestic law enforcement reach. New Delhi must use diplomatic pressure with China, the United States and ASEAN to compel host countries to act.
Back2Basics
Electronic-Zero FIR (e-zero FIR)
An e-Zero FIR is an automated digital system in India that converts high-value cyber financial fraud complaints (above ₹10 lakh) filed via the National Cyber Crime Reporting Portal or the 1930 helpline directly into a Zero FIR. It eliminates jurisdictional delays during the critical “golden hour” for fund recovery
Key Features and Workflow
Automatic Registration: Eligible financial fraud reports trigger an instant e-Zero FIR without requiring an initial physical station visit.
System Integration: Combines the I4C portal, state e-FIR mechanisms, and the NCRB’s Crime and Criminal Tracking Network & Systems (CCTNS).
Auto-Routing: The system instantly routes the electronic document to the correct territorial cybercrime station based on the victim’s location.
Mandatory Follow-Up: Complainants must visit the designated local police station within three days to sign and convert the e-Zero FIR into a regular FIR under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS).
PYQ Relevance
[UPSC 2022] What are the different elements of cyber security? Keeping in view the challenges in cyber security, examine the extent to which India has successfully developed a comprehensive National Cyber Security Strategy.
Linkage: The PYQ tests India’s cyber security framework and response to cybercrime. The article highlights recent measures to strengthen India’s response to digital arrest scams and cyber fraud.
