Why in the News?
The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has introduced new Cost Regulations 2025 to check if companies are selling below cost to unfairly drive out competitors.
About Competition Commission of India (CCI):
- The CCI was established on 14 October 2003 and became fully operational in May 2009.
- It aims to eliminate anti-competitive practices, prevent abuse of dominant positions, and promote fair competition.
- It was formed under the Competition Act, 2002, later amended in 2007, replacing the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969 based on Raghavan Committee recommendations.
- The headquarters is located in Kidwai Nagar (East), New Delhi, and the Commission includes 1 Chairperson and up to 6 Members, all appointed by the Central Government.
- Members must have at least 15 years of experience in areas such as law, economics, business, finance, or public administration.
- Jurisdiction of CCI:
- It is a quasi-judicial statutory body under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
- It has the authority to initiate cases suo motu or respond to public/institutional complaints, and can impose penalties for violations.
- Its jurisdiction spans all sectors across India, and it is empowered to frame its own regulations under the Act.
New Cost Definitions under Cost Regulations, 2025:
- Under the Cost Regulations 2025, Average Variable Cost (AVC) is used to measure cost, calculated by dividing total variable costs by total output.
- Variable cost excludes fixed costs and overheads and varies with production.
- Although a sector-specific approach was considered, the CCI adopted a case-by-case evaluation after stakeholder feedback.
- The new framework is sector-agnostic, allowing flexibility for diverse industries, including the digital economy, and supports better adaptation to market dynamics.
| [UPSC 2020] With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited. 2. They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services. 3. They are not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Options: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only* (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
A 500-kg piece of a Soviet spacecraft, part of the Kosmos 482 mission launched in 1972, is expected to crash back to Earth.
About Kosmos 482 Mission:
- Kosmos 482 was a Soviet space probe launched on March 31, 1972 as part of the Venera Program, aimed at exploring Venus.
- It was launched just four days after its twin mission, Venera 8, which successfully landed on Venus 117 days later.
- The mission’s goal was to:
- Study Venus’s atmosphere and surface
- Demonstrate technological and scientific superiority during the Cold War
- Kosmos 482 was equipped with instruments to measure:
- Temperature, pressure, and wind speed
- Atmospheric gases and rock composition
- Capable of transmitting data back to Earth
- Venus was a target due to:
- Speculation about life beneath its thick clouds
- Its strategic importance in space exploration rivalry
- Under the broader Venera Program (1961–1984):
- 28 missions were launched toward Venus
- 13 probes entered the atmosphere
- 10 probes landed, but could only function for 23 minutes to 2 hours due to harsh surface conditions
| [UPSC 2014] Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Spacecraft: Purpose
1. Cassini-Huygens : Orbiting the Venus and transmitting data to the Earth.
2. Messenger : Mapping and investigating.
3. Voyager 1 and 2 : Exploring the outer solar system.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only* (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
To channel investments into clean-energy projects and climate-resilient infrastructure, the Finance Ministry has released a draft document titled ‘Framework of India’s Climate Finance Taxonomy’.
What is a Climate Finance Taxonomy?
- A CFT is a classification system that defines which economic activities qualify as climate-friendly or sustainable investments.
- It helps investors, financial institutions, and policymakers channel funds into low-emission and climate-resilient projects.
- It acts as a safeguard against green-washing, where non-sustainable initiatives are falsely labelled as green.
- It supports the mobilization of finance necessary to achieve global climate goals, including Net Zero targets.
- It offers a structured decision-making framework to ensure that investments deliver measurable environmental benefits.
About India’s Draft ‘Climate Taxonomy’ (May 2025)
- The Finance Ministry released the draft ‘Framework of India’s Climate Finance Taxonomy’ to help meet India’s Net Zero by 2070 goal while maintaining energy access.
- It categorizes activities as:
- Climate Supportive Activities: Those that reduce GHG emissions, enable adaptation, or promote clean tech R&D.
- Climate Transition Activities: Those that encourage gradual progress, especially in hard-to-abate sectors like steel, iron, and cement.
- It aligns with the national vision of ‘Viksit Bharat 2047’.
- It includes key sectors such as power, mobility, buildings, agriculture, food, and water security.
- The framework was first announced in the Union Budget 2025.
Global Context and Negotiation Relevance:
- A standard taxonomy is critical in global forums like the Conference of Parties (COP) to resolve disputes over climate finance commitments.
- Developing nations, including India, advocate for grants and technology transfers, while developed countries often include private investments in their finance counts.
- At the Baku Climate Conference, developed countries pledged $300 billion annually by 2035, far below the $1.35 trillion required.
- India’s taxonomy aims to provide a clear benchmark for climate-related financial flows, promoting transparency, credibility, and trust in international climate funding.
| [UPSC 2015] With reference to ‘Green Climate Fund’ is/are correct?
1. It is intended to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change.
2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and World Bank.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Options: (a) 1 only* (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
The Union Culture Ministry has successfully halted the auction of the sacred ‘Piprahwa’ Buddhist relics by Hong Kong.
About the Piprahwa Relics:
- The Piprahwa relics were discovered in 1898 by William Claxton Peppe, an English engineer, during an excavation in Siddharthnagar district, UP, near the Nepal border.
- The site is believed to be ancient Kapilavastu, the capital of the Shakya republic, where Prince Siddhartha (later the Buddha) lived before his renunciation.
- Peppe excavated a stupa and unearthed a large stone coffer buried beneath it.
- The coffer contained bone fragments (believed to be Buddha’s cremated remains), caskets of soapstone and crystal, a sandstone coffer, and several gold ornaments and gemstones.
- The British Crown claimed the relics under the Indian Treasure Trove Act of 1878.
- A majority of the artifacts — about 1,800 pearls, rubies, topaz, sapphires, and gold sheets — were transferred to the Indian Museum in Kolkata.
Stupas with Buddha’s Relics:
- After the Buddha’s death (Mahaparinirvana), his cremated relics were divided among 8 kingdoms and a Brahmin named Drona, who coordinated their distribution.
- Each recipient built a Stupa to enshrine their share of the relics, creating important pilgrimage sites and early centers of Buddhist worship.
- The 9 stupas were located in Rajagriha, Vaishali, Kapilavastu, Allakappa, Ramagrama, Vethadipa, Pava, Kushinagar, and Pippalivana.
- Emperor Ashoka (3rd century BCE) redistributed the relics from these stupas into thousands of new stupas across his empire.
- The stupa at Ramagrama is unique because it is believed to remain untouched and still holds the original relics.
- A typical early Buddhist stupa included a hemispherical mound (anda), a square railing (harmika), a central pillar (yashti) with umbrellas (chatra), and a path for circumambulation (pradakshinapatha).
| [UPSC 2023] With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements:
1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin.
2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics.
3. Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Options: (a) Only one (b) Only two* (c) All three (d) None |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
The Art Deco style, first showcased at the Paris Exposition on April 29, 1925, took a decade to arrive in Madras. It spread to India via Bombay, where the country’s first Art Deco structure — the Syndicate Bank building — was completed in 1932.
About Art Deco Style of Architecture:
- Art Deco Style is a design style that emerged in the 1920s and 30s, characterized by sleek, geometric shapes, luxurious materials, and a focus on manufactured goods.
- It signified a break from older styles like Neo-classical, Indo-Saracenic, and Bombay Gothic.
- The style was embraced by Indian banks, insurance companies, cinemas, studios, and business houses to symbolize modernity and cultural identity.
- In Madras, Art Deco became visible in cinema theatres like Casino (1941), preview halls of Gemini, AVM, and Vijaya-Vauhini studios, commercial buildings like Dare House (1938), hotels such as Oceanic and Dasaprakash, and residential areas including T. Nagar, Mylapore, Alwarpet, and Adyar.
- Art Deco influenced furniture design, silverware, and even fonts in print.
- By the 1950s, it was gradually replaced by Modernist/Brutalist styles, aligned with Socialist ideology.
Contributions of Laxman Mahadeo Chitale:
- Chitale (1892–1960) was a prominent architect who introduced Art Deco to Madras.
- Recognized for his drawing skills by Maharaja Sayaji Rao Gaekwad III of Baroda.
- He trained under H.V. Lanchester, a British architect associated with New Delhi‘s early planning.
- He worked on the Umaid Bhavan Palace in Jodhpur, a grand Art Deco residence.
- After returning from England, Chitale settled in Madras and joined the PWD.
- In 1932, he started his independent practice, marking the beginning of Art Deco architecture in the city.
- His major works included the Oriental Insurance Building on Armenian Street, the National Insurance Building (1938) on China Bazaar Road, and the Andhra Insurance Building (1939).
- His architectural style often included corner entrances and street-facing facades, inspired by Sir Edwin Lutyens.
| [UPSC 2007] Which one of the following was the first fort constructed by the British in India?
Options: (a) Fort William (b) Fort St. George* (c) Fort St. David (d) Fort St. Angelo |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
India and the United Kingdom signed a Free Trade Agreement (FTA), ending nearly 3 years of negotiations, with an aim to boost trade and investment between the two nations.
What is Free Trade Agreement (FTA)?
- An FTA is an agreement between two or more countries to reduce or eliminate customs tariffs and non-tariff barriers on trade between them.
- Objective: To promote trade by making it easier and more cost-effective for businesses to import and export goods and services.
- FTAs can cover goods, services, investment, and intellectual property rights.
- By reducing trade barriers, FTAs also benefit consumers by offering a wider range of products at lower prices.
- FTAs play a key role in boosting economic growth and job creation by facilitating trade between countries.
- India’s FTAs:
- India has signed FTAs with 16 countries or regional blocs as of May 2025.
- These FTAs cover major partners such as Sri Lanka, Bhutan, Thailand, Singapore, Malaysia, South Korea, Japan, Australia, UAE, Mauritius, ASEAN (10 countries), and EFTA (4 countries).
Key terms of the UK-India FTA:
- Trade Growth: Expected to boost bilateral trade by £25.5 billion annually by 2040.
- Whisky and Gin Tariffs: Tariffs reduced from 150% to 75%, eventually to 40% over 10 years.
- Automobile Tariffs: India to reduce automotive tariffs from over 100% to 10%.
- Other Goods: Tariffs reduced on cosmetics, aerospace, medical devices, chocolate, and more.
- Services and Work Permits: Increased quotas for Indian workers in IT and healthcare, with 100 new visas annually for professionals.
- Carbon Tax: Dispute over UK’s proposed carbon tax on metal imports.
- Supply Chain Resilience: FTA aims to reduce reliance on China and improve supply chain security.
| [UPSC 2017] The term ‘Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and:
Options: (a) European Union* (b) Gulf Cooperation Council (c) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (d) Shanghai Cooperation Organization. |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
The Union Home Ministry directed all states and Union Territories to conduct a Civil Defence Mock Drill, aimed at assessing and enhancing the readiness of India’s civil defence mechanisms.
About Civil Defence under the Civil Defence Act, 1968
- The Civil Defence Act, 1968 was enacted to ensure measures for civil defence to protect citizens, properties, and establishments from hostile attacks or natural disasters.
- It aims to prepare the population to respond to emergencies such as military attacks, terrorist activities, and natural calamities.
- Civil Defence Corps is formed at both national and state levels. Volunteers from various sectors are enlisted and trained.
- The corps operates under the Central Government’s rules for civil defence.
- Key functions include- Evacuation of civilians; Protection from danger and destruction; Salvage of property; Managing hazardous materials.
- The Central Government has the authority to:
- Make rules for civil defence across India.
- Enforce evacuation procedures, control over dangerous substances, and manage disaster relief.
- Penalties for non-compliance with the civil defence regulations.
Recent Context: Civil Defence Mock Drill on 7th May
- This exercise assesses and enhances the readiness of India’s civil defence systems to respond promptly during emergencies.
- The drills will occur across nearly 300 civil defence districts, including sensitive locations like Mumbai, Uran (Jawaharlal Nehru Port), and Tarapur (nuclear power plant).
- The mock drill aims to improve response time for rescue and relief operations, focusing on critical situations in the first few minutes of an emergency.
| [UPSC 2010] With reference to the National Rehabilitation and Resettlement Policy, 2007, consider the following statements:
1. This policy is applicable only to the persons affected by the acquisition of land for projects and not to the involuntary displacement due to any other reason.
2. This policy has been formulated by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2* |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
Recent research has uncovered evidence of ancient wildfires (palaeofires) in the Godavari Basin, shedding light on Earth’s geological and climatic history from over 250 million years ago.
What are Palaeofires?
- Palaeofires refer to ancient wildfires that occurred in the Earth’s past, influencing the vegetation, climate, and even the formation of coal.
- These fires, spanning from the Late Silurian (419.2 to 443.8 million years ago) to the Quaternary (2.58 million years ago), left their mark across various landscapes.
|
Ancient Palaeofires in the Godavari Basin:
- Palaeofires, traced back to the Permian period, provide evidence of how fires influenced prehistoric landscapes.
- Advanced techniques like Raman Spectroscopy and FTIR Spectroscopy were used to differentiate between in situ (on-site) and ex situ (transported) charcoal.
- The research also highlighted how sea level changes impacted charcoal deposition, with well-preserved fire signatures during regressive phases and more oxidized charcoal during transgressive phases.
- These findings contribute to understanding carbon storage in the Earth’s crust and provide insights into past climate dynamics and fire behavior.
Role of Palaeofires in Earth’s Past:
- Palaeofires were crucial in shaping Earth’s climate, vegetation, and contributing to coal formation across various geological periods.
- During the Permian period, palaeofires were widespread in Gondwana, affecting plant life and coal deposits.
- Fossil charcoal found in coal-bearing formations like the Raniganj Coalfield suggested a connection between seasonal droughts and wildfires.
- These wildfires influenced vegetation patterns and led to the accumulation of carbon-rich deposits.
- High atmospheric oxygen levels likely intensified these wildfires, significantly affecting both climate and ecosystem changes.
- Understanding palaeofires helps in grasping long-term carbon sequestration processes.
| [UPSC 2001] The approximate age of the Aravalli range is:
Options: (a) 370 million years (b) 470 million years (c) 570 million years* (d) 670 million years |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
A recent legal dispute between the US and Russia has brought the issue of Total Allowable Catch (TAC) into the spotlight.
About Total Allowable Catch (TAC):
- TAC refers to the maximum quantity of a specific fish species that can be legally harvested in a defined period.
- It is established to prevent overfishing and ensure sustainable fish populations.
- These limits are essential for maintaining ecological balance and supporting long-term fishing industries.
Various Laws Governing TAC:
- TACs are set by international fisheries management organizations like:
- FAO (Food and Agriculture Organization).
- RFMOs (Regional Fisheries Management Organizations) for shared or migratory fish stocks.
- European Union (EU): TACs are managed under the Common Fisheries Policy (CFP), which sets quotas for member states based on scientific advice. Landing obligations ensure that all catches are counted against quotas, preventing waste.
- India: India enforces a seasonal fishing ban in its Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) for 61 days to protect breeding fish. This ban serves as a TAC equivalent of zero for specific periods, supporting fish stock regeneration.
- New Zealand: The Fisheries Act sets TACs for various stocks and specifies catch limits in terms of weight or numbers, updated by official notices.
| [UPSC 2013] The most important fishing grounds of the world are found in the regions where:
Options: (a) Warm and cold atmospheric currents meet (b) Rivers drain out large amounts of freshwater into the sea (c) Warm and cold oceanic currents meet* (d) continental shelf is undulating. |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
The National Dam Safety Authority (NDSA) has reported major structural and operational defects in Telangana’s Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project (KLIP), citing “irreparable damage” to three key barrages, including Medigadda.
About Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project (KLIP)
- KLIP, located on the Godavari River in Telangana, is the world’s largest multi-stage lift irrigation project, inaugurated on June 21, 2019.
- The project aims to irrigate 45 lakh acres, supply drinking water to Hyderabad, and support industrial use.
- It plans to lift 240 TMC of water, with 195 TMC from Medigadda, 20 TMC from Sripada Yellampalli, and 25 TMC from groundwater.
- The infrastructure includes 7 links, 28 packages, a 500 km span, 1,800+ km canal network, 20 reservoirs, and Asia’s largest pump house at Ramadugu.
- Estimated cost: ₹80,000 crore to ₹1.2 lakh crore.
Issues with the Project
- In October 2023, Pillar No. 20 of the Medigadda barrage sank, causing flood-related damages.
- NDSA’s April 2024 report identified structural distress in all 3 barrages (Medigadda, Annaram, Sundilla) due to poor design, lack of geotechnical studies, and inadequate safety protocols.
- Overloading of barrages (10 TMC water stored instead of 2 TMC) caused foundation damage.
- The state incurs ₹16,000 crore annually in loan and interest repayments, despite the project being criticized as a “man-made disaster.”
Back2Basics: Godavari River
- The Godavari, also known as Dakshin Ganga, is the largest peninsular river in India.
- Originates from Trimbakeshwar in Maharashtra, flowing 1465 km to the Bay of Bengal.
- Its basin spans: Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and parts of Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, and Puducherry.
- Right bank tributaries include Pravara, Manjira, and Maner; Left bank tributaries include Purna, Pranhita, Indravati, and Sabari.
|
| [UPSC 2024] Recently, the term “pumped-storage hydropower” is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following?
Options: (a) Irrigation of terraced crop fields (b) Lift irrigation of cereal crops (c) Long duration energy storage* (d) Rainwater harvesting system |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
NASA has released an image of a fractured structure in the Milky Way’s galactic centre. The feature, named G359.13, was captured using X-ray data from Chandra and radio data from South Africa’s MeerKAT array.
What is G359.13?
- G359.13 is a long, linear structure near the centre of the Milky Way.
- It is often referred to as a cosmic bone due to its shape and density.
- It stretches about 230 light-years in length, making it one of the longest and brightest features of its kind in the galaxy.
- It lies about 26,000 light-years from Earth, close to the Milky Way’s centre.
- For context, over 800 stars exist within a radius of 230 light-years from Earth—the same length as this cosmic bone.
New Discovery: A Fracture in G359.13
- Astronomers identified a distinct break or fracture in the structure’s continuous body.
- An X-ray and radio source was also detected precisely at the location of the fracture.
- Scientists believe a pulsar—a magnetised, rotating neutron star—collided with G359.13.
- The pulsar was likely moving at a speed of 1–2 million miles per hour at the time of impact.
- The collision disrupted the structure, creating a visible fracture.
Back2Basics: What is a Pulsar?
- A pulsar is a neutron star that emits beams of electromagnetic radiation from its magnetic poles.
- Though only about 20 km in diameter, it is more massive than the Sun.
- Pulsars rotate extremely rapidly, some spinning hundreds of times per second.
- When their radiation beam crosses Earth’s line of sight, we observe pulses of radiation, hence the name.
|
| [UPSC 2003] The time taken by the sun to revolve around the centre of our galaxy is
Options: (a) 25 million years (b) 100 million years (c) 250 million years* (d) 500 million years |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
A study published in Nature reveals that microplastics have deeply infiltrated the ocean, affecting the planet’s biogeochemical and carbon cycles.
Key Findings of the Study:
- Microplastics (1–100 micrometres) dominate the ocean’s water column, especially below surface layers, unlike larger plastic fragments (100–5,000 micrometres) which remain near the surface.
- Subsurface microplastics were found as deep as 100 metres within ocean gyres—rotating currents that trap and accumulate debris.
- Data was compiled from 1,885 ocean stations (2014–2024), focusing on 50 cm below surface (subsurface layer).
- Over 56 polymer types were detected; buoyant polymers, common in global plastic production, were most prevalent.
- Sources identified:
- Fishing gear, including nylon and polyester nets, was a significant contributor to deep-sea microplastics.
- Plastics sampled often had production dates from the 20th century, highlighting their long degradation timelines.
- Atmospheric deposition contributes 0.013–25 million tonnes annually, with polyester dominant in airborne microplastics.
About Allochthonous Carbon:
- Allochthonous carbon is carbon from external sources introduced into an ecosystem, not produced within it.
- In oceans, plastics are a major source of allochthonous carbon, as they come from land-based human activities.
- Microplastics contribute measurable carbon mass to marine systems, altering natural carbon ratios in ocean layers.
- This distorts the marine carbon pump by affecting the flow and composition of particulate organic carbon (POC).
- Impacts:
- Plastic-derived carbon lacks radiocarbon, which may cause marine POC samples to appear around 420 years older.
- It disrupts microbial activity, nutrient cycling like nitrification and denitrification, and organic matter decomposition.
- Marine microbes ingest plastic-C, affecting food chains and altering biological processes at the base of ecosystems.
| [UPSC 2012] What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason?
Statements:
1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected.
2. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected.
3. The density of ocean water would drastically decrease.
Options: (a) 1 and 2 only* (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) has released new rules to regulate access to biological resources and ensure fair and equitable benefit sharing, as approved by the Central Government.
About New Biodiversity Regulation, 2025:
- It governs how benefits from the use of biological resources and associated traditional knowledge or digital sequence information (DSI) are to be shared.
- It introduces a tiered benefit-sharing structure based on annual turnover of the user:
- No sharing for turnover up to ₹5 crore.
- 0.2% for turnover between ₹5–50 crore.
- 0.4% for ₹50–250 crore, and 0.6% above ₹250 crore.
- Users must submit resource usage statements annually if turnover exceeds ₹1 crore.
- Cultivated medicinal plants are exempt, aligning with the Biodiversity (Amendment) Act, 2023.
- For high-value or threatened species like red sanders, agarwood, and sandalwood, sharing must be at least 5%, rising to 20% or more for commercial use.
- The Regulation covers researchers, IP right seekers, and includes digital data as part of benefit sharing for the first time.
Back2Basics: Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD):
- CBD was adopted at the 1992 Rio Earth Summit; it came into force since 29 December 1993 with secretariat in Montreal, Canada.
- It is ratified by 196 countries, excluding the US.
- Key objectives:
-
- Conservation of biological diversity.
- Sustainable use of biodiversity components.
- Fair sharing of benefits from genetic resources.
- It is governed by the Conference of the Parties (COP), meeting biennially.
- COP16 (2024) in Colombia established a multilateral benefit-sharing mechanism for Digital Sequence Information (DSI).
- It ensures fair reward for communities protecting biodiversity when their knowledge or genetic data is used commercially.
Nagoya Protocol on ABS:
- It was adopted in 2010, enforced in 2014, it supplements the CBD.
- It provides a legal framework for fair benefit-sharing from the use of genetic resources with the country of origin or local communities.
- It strengthens the global framework for responsible biodiversity use.
|
| [UPSC 2023] Consider the following statements:
1. In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.
2. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining acces and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2* (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
Tensions escalated between Punjab and Haryana after the Bhakra Beas Management Board (BBMB) decided to release an extra 4,500 cusecs of water from the Bhakra dam to Haryana, sparking political and legal opposition from Punjab.
About the Punjab-Haryana Water Dispute:
- The dispute dates back to 1966 when Haryana was created from Punjab and was promised a share of river waters from the Ravi and Beas rivers.
- The Satluj-Yamuna Link (SYL) canal was proposed to deliver Haryana’s share but remains incomplete due to Punjab’s resistance.
- The current issue involves Punjab and Haryana over the release of additional water from the Bhakra dam, managed by the Bhakra Beas Management Board (BBMB).
- On April 30, 2025, BBMB ordered the release of 8,500 cusecs of water to Haryana for drinking needs, which Punjab opposed, claiming Haryana had already withdrawn 104% of its annual share.
- Water levels in the Bhakra, Pong, and Ranjit Sagar dams are low due to poor snowfall in the Himalayas.
- Punjab argues that BBMB’s decision is unilateral and has refused to open the Nangal dam sluice gates.
Inter-State Water Dispute Resolution in India:
- Article 262 of the Constitution empowers Parliament to legislate on inter-state river water disputes and bar courts from intervening in such matters.
- River Boards Act, 1956 allows creation of boards for inter-state river management, but no such board has ever been constituted.
- Inter-State Water Disputes Act, 1956 provides for:
- Conciliation by the Centre among aggrieved states.
- Tribunal formation if conciliation fails.
- The 2002 amendment mandates:
- Formation of a tribunal within 1 year.
- Tribunal decision within 3 years.
- Supreme Court cannot question the award of a tribunal but can examine procedural issues.
- Other prominent disputes include Krishna, Cauvery, and the Satluj Yamuna Link canal disputes.
| [UPSC 2006] Recently Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh governments signed a Memorandum of Understanding for the linking of two rivers as a link project. Which are these two rivers?
Options: (a) Betwa and Chambal (b) Betwa and Ken* (c) Chambal and Son (d) Ken and Narmada |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
India’s Agriculture Minister has introduced ‘Kamala’ and ‘Pusa DST Rice 1’, the country’s first genome-edited rice varieties, developed by ICAR. These are also the world’s first genome-edited rice varieties.
About ‘Kamala’ and ‘Pusa DST Rice 1’:
- Kamala (DRR Dhan 100): Developed by ICAR-IIRR Hyderabad, derived from Samba Mahsuri; shows higher yield, early maturity, drought tolerance.
- Pusa DST Rice 1: Developed by ICAR-IARI Delhi, based on MTU1010; improves drought and salinity tolerance.
- Agencies involved: Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), ICAR-IIRR, ICAR-IARI.
- They were created using CRISPR-Cas9-based genome editing, specifically Site Directed Nuclease 1 (SDN1). It has NO foreign DNA inserted.
- It has been approved by Institutional Biosafety Committees (IBC) and Review Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM) under relaxed genome-edit rules.
Specific Benefits Offered:
- Yield boost:
- Kamala: +19% over Samba Mahsuri (avg. 5.37 t/ha, max. up to 9 t/ha).
- Pusa DST Rice 1: +9.6% to +30.4% over MTU1010 under stress conditions.
- Climate resilience:
- Kamala: Drought tolerance, early maturity.
- Pusa DST: Salt and drought tolerance for saline/alkaline/coastal soils.
- Water saving: Kamala matures 20 days early → saves 3 irrigations, i.e., 7,500 million m³ water.
- Emission reduction: Cultivation over 5 million ha may reduce 32,000 tonnes GHG emissions (20% drop).
- Food security support: Improved paddy output enhances India’s average yield, critical for 40% of total foodgrain basket.
| [UPSC 2018] With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements:
1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests.
2.GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization.
3.GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only* (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
The Committee formed to design India’s Repairability Index (RI) framework has submitted its report to Department of Consumer Affairs.
About Repairability Index (RI):
- The RI is a standardized label that indicates how easily a product can be repaired by assessing multiple parameters.
- It is designed to empower consumers to make informed decisions and promote sustainable consumption.
- The RI is applicable initially to smartphones and tablets and uses a 5-point numeric scale for scoring.
- The six key parameters used to calculate RI are:
-
- Disassembly Depth
- Repair Information
- Spare Parts Availability
- Software Updates
- Tools Required
- Fasteners Used
- The scoring covers priority components such as battery, display, cameras, charging port, microphone, speaker, and hinge mechanism.
- RI labels must be displayed at the point of sale, on e-commerce platforms, and via QR code on packaging.
Recommendations of the RI Framework:
- The RI framework must align with global best practices while maintaining ease of doing business for manufacturers.
- Original Equipment Manufacturers (OEMs) will self-declare RI scores based on standard criteria, with no extra compliance burden.
- A clear scoring methodology has been developed, with weightages assigned to each parameter for key parts.
- The committee identified smartphones and tablets as the initial focus under the RI framework.
- Stakeholder consultations included manufacturers, consumer groups, academic bodies, and government departments.
- The framework complements the existing Right to Repair Portal (launched in 2022), which provides repair-related information across four sectors.
- The committee emphasized the need for a robust post-sale ecosystem for both urban and rural consumers.
| [UPSC 2021] R2 Code of Practices’ constitutes a tool available for promoting the adoption of:
Options: (a) environmentally responsible practices in electronics recycling industry*
(b) ecological management of Wetlands of International Importance under the Ramsar Convention
(c) sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded land
(d) ‘Environmental Impact Assessment’ in the exploitation of natural resources |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
Japanese companies, along with other global players, are increasingly turning to India under the China Plus One strategy, aiming to diversify supply chains and reduce overdependence on China.
About China Plus One Strategy:
- It is a global business model introduced in 2013 to reduce dependence on China by adding another country to the manufacturing or sourcing base.
- It emerged due to concerns about geopolitical risks, trade tensions, and regulatory unpredictability in China.
- The strategy gained momentum after the US–China trade war, China’s Zero-Covid policy, and increasing labour and compliance costs.
- Its goal is to create resilient and diversified supply chains by operating in China and one or more alternative countries.
- Vietnam, Mexico, and Taiwan have become early beneficiaries in sectors like machinery, electronics, and transport.
Benefits for India:
- India offers a large market, skilled labor, and cost advantages, making it an attractive destination for diversification.
- The growing digital infrastructure and industrial corridors support the relocation of manufacturing, with government schemes like PLI and Make in India aligning with the China Plus One goals.
- Challenges:
- India faces limited integration into global value chains, logistics inefficiencies, and regulatory bottlenecks.
- Historical protectionist trade policies and lack of participation in trade agreements like RCEP hinder its full potential.
- To compete with nations like Vietnam or Mexico, India needs labour reforms, improved ease of doing business, and better trade facilitation.
| [UPSC 2021] Consider the following:
1.Foreign currency convertible bonds 2.Foreign institutional investment with certain conditions 3.Global depository receipts 4.Non-resident external deposits Which of the above can be included in Foreign Direct Investments?
Options: (a) 1, 2 and 3* (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
Prime Minister has formally commissioned India’s first deep-sea transshipment port at Vizhinjam in Kerala.
About Vizhinjam Port
- Vizhinjam Port is India’s first deep-sea transshipment port located near Thiruvananthapuram.
- Developed under a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model, the port cost ₹8,900 crore to build.
- It is operated by Adani Vizhinjam Port Pvt. Ltd., with a 61.5% stake held by Kerala’s government and 9.6% by the Central government.
- Commercial operations began in December 2024, following a trial run in July 2024.
- The port has handled 285 ships and processed 5.48 lakh TEUs since its operational launch.
- Positioned just 10 nautical miles from a major international shipping route, it provides quick access to global trade lanes.
Notable Features of the Port:
- It is India’s first semi-automated port, utilizing AI-powered control rooms and the Indigenous Vessel Traffic Management System (VTMS).
- Its deep natural draft (up to 24 meters) allows it to accommodate Ultra Large Container Vessels (ULCVs).
- The current infrastructure includes a 3,000-meter breakwater and an 800-meter container berth, with full capacity expected by 2028–29 at 6.2 million TEUs annually.
- The port is designed as a multi-purpose, green port, ensuring year-round operations.
- Positioned 20 kilometers from Trivandrum International Airport, it offers seamless air-sea connectivity.
| [UPSC 2023] Consider the following pairs:
Port—–Well known as
1. Kamarajar Port—-First major port in India registered as a company
2. Mundra Port—–Largest privately owned port in India
3. Visakhapatnam—-Largest container port in India
Options: (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs* (c) All three pairs (d) None of the pairs |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) has launched Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme (GHCS) under the National Green Hydrogen Mission.
About Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme (GHCS):
- GHCS aims to certify that hydrogen produced in India meets the criteria to be labelled as “green hydrogen”, based on verified emissions data.
- The scheme enhances transparency, credibility, and traceability in hydrogen production and supports India’s goal of becoming a global hub for green hydrogen exports.
- The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) is the nodal agency responsible for the implementation of this scheme.
- Certification under GHCS also helps producers access carbon credits under the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS), subject to additional requirements.
- The scheme covers hydrogen produced using electrolysis with renewable energy or biomass conversion.
Key Features of GHCS:
- Hydrogen will be certified as “green” if its non-biogenic greenhouse gas emissions are ≤ 2 kg CO₂ equivalent per kg of hydrogen, averaged over 12 months.
- The certification process includes four stages:
- Concept Certificate (project design stage)
- Facility-Level Certificate (infrastructure readiness)
- Provisional Certificate (early production data)
- Final Certificate (verified emissions based on actual production)
- Only the Final Certificate is mandatory for producers seeking government incentives or selling hydrogen in the domestic market.
- Producers must appoint Accredited Carbon Verification (ACV) agencies for independent verification, recognized by the BEE.
- The scheme is aligned with international standards like ISO 19870:2023, ensuring global credibility.
- Certificates are issued in multiples of 100 kg of hydrogen, containing details on emission intensity and production sources.
| [UPSC 2023] With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements:
1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion. 2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation . 3. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles. How may of the above statements are correct?
Options: (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three * (d) None |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
Heavy rainfall and strong winds disrupted life in Delhi due to a fresh splash of Western Disturbances over North India.
What are Western Disturbances?
- Western Disturbances are extra-tropical weather systems that originate near the Mediterranean region.
- They carry moisture from the Mediterranean Sea, Black Sea, Caspian Sea, and Arabian Sea.
- These disturbances are embedded within the subtropical westerly jet stream, a fast-moving air current in the upper atmosphere.
- They bring rain, snow, and fog, especially from December to March, as they encounter the Himalayas, causing rainfall in the plains and snowfall at higher altitudes.
- They are responsible for most of the winter and pre-monsoon rainfall in Northwest India and are critical for rabi crops like wheat.
Recent Changes in its Pattern:
- Recent observations show an increase in frequency, particularly from late January onwards, with disturbances now occurring outside the winter season.
- These disturbances have been observed even in May, June, and July, where they were once rare.
- The geographic spread of these disturbances is widening, affecting larger parts of North and Northwest India.
- Reasons behind:
- The strengthening of the subtropical westerly jet stream, likely influenced by rising global temperatures, is a key factor.
- The delayed retreat of the jet stream is affecting the timing of the summer monsoon, leading to overlapping weather patterns.
- The warming of the Arabian Sea (by 1.2°C to 1.4°C over recent decades) is increasing moisture, intensifying rainfall.
| [UPSC 2015] Consider the following statements:
1. The winds which blow between 30° N and 60° S latitudes throughout the year are known as westerlies. 2. The moist air masses that cause winter rains in North-Western region of India are part of westerlies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only * (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now