Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Rana Sanga
Why in the News?
A recent statement by an MP in Parliament labelling Rajput ruler Rana Sanga a “traitor,” has sparked controversy over his role in inviting Babur to invade India.
Who was Rana Sanga?
- Rana Sanga, also known as Maharana Sangram Singh, was a Rajput king who ruled the kingdom of Mewar in present-day Rajasthan from 1509 to 1527.
- He expanded his kingdom significantly, conquering parts of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Haryana, and Sindh.
- He formed a powerful Rajput confederacy and led a massive army of 80,000 warhorses and 500 elephants.
- He was known for his military campaigns against the Lodi dynasty of Delhi, the Sultanates of Malwa and Gujarat, and even the Mughals.
- His most notable victories include the Battle of Gagron against Sultan Mahmud Khilji of Malwa and the Battle of Dholpur in 1519 against Ibrahim Lodi of Delhi.
- Battle with Babur:
- Rana Sanga eventually came into conflict with Babur, the founder of the Mughal Empire.
- The two fought in the Battle of Khanwa in 1527, where Babur’s forces defeated Sanga’s Rajput army.
- This marked the end of Rajput resistance to the Mughals in Northern India.
- Legacy:
- Despite his defeat at Khanwa, he is remembered as a hero of Rajput resistance and is considered one of the last independent Hindu rulers in Northern India before the rise of Mughal dominance.
Recent Controversy:
- The remarks were made amid growing debates about Medieval Indian history, particularly surrounding Aurangzeb and the role of various historical figures in Indian politics.
- Historians are divided on whether Rana Sanga explicitly invited Babur to invade India.
- Babur’s memoirs, the Baburnama, mention that Rana Sanga offered assistance against Ibrahim Lodi.
- Yet, historians like Satish Chandra propose that Rana Sanga might have viewed Babur as a means to weaken the Lodi Sultanate, possibly underestimating Babur’s intentions to establish his own rule in India.
- Some argue that Rana Sanga might have seen Babur as a useful ally against Ibrahim Lodi, while others believe his role was exaggerated by Babur in his memoir, the Baburnama.
| [UPSC 2023] With reference to the Mughal Empire, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) Mughal officials who were in charge of land revenue were known as Karoris.
(b) The term ‘Jagirdar’ was used for the holders of revenue assignments.
(c) The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ was related to the imperial household.
(d) The Rajput chiefs were integrated into the Mughal nobility. |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Section 44(3)
Why in the News?
Opposition parties have raised concerns over the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023, demanding the repeal of Section 44(3), claiming it could undermine the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005.
About DPDP Act and Section 44(3)
- Recognizing the right to privacy as fundamental in India, the Supreme Court in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy vs. Union of India (2017) led to the introduction of the DPDP Act in 2023.
- The Act regulates the processing of personal data, balancing individual privacy rights and lawful processing needs.
- Key Provisions: It mandates informed consent, establishes a Data Protection Board of India (DPBI), and outlines the responsibilities of data fiduciaries in ensuring data protection.
- Section 44(3) modifies Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act, which previously exempted personal information from disclosure unless public interest justified it.
- The amendment broadens this exemption, stating that all personal information should be exempt from disclosure, without requiring a public interest justification.
Concerns Related to Section 44(3)
- Reduced Transparency: Activists and critics argue that this section undermines the RTI Act, which has been a cornerstone of transparency and accountability in governance.
- Limited Access to Public Information: The broad exemption allows government officials to shield information like asset disclosures, which are critical for public accountability.
- Potential for Misuse: There are concerns that personal data protection could be used as an excuse to block vital information about government activities, weakening the public’s right to know.
- Conflict Between Public Interest and Privacy: Critics argue that privacy protection should not override the principle of transparency.
Back2Basics: Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005
- The RTI Act, 2005 empowers Indian citizens to seek information from public authorities, ensuring transparency and accountability in governance.
- RTI is considered a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution, which guarantees freedom of speech and expression,
- Key Features:
- Applicability: Covers all government bodies, including central, state, and local authorities.
- Public Information Officers (PIOs): Designated officials who are responsible for providing requested information within 30 days.
- Exemptions: Some categories of information are exempted, such as national security matters and personal privacy.
- Penalty: Officials can face fines for failing to provide information without valid reasons.
|
| [UPSC 2018] Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?
(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42ndAmendment to the Constitution.
(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV.
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III.
(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44thAmendment to the Constitution. |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: India BioEconomy Report
Why in the News?
The India BioEconomy Report has pegged the value of India’s bioeconomy in 2024 at more than $165 billion, accounting for over 4.2% of the country’s GDP.
What is Bioeconomy?
- Bioeconomy refers to the industrial use of biological resources (plants, animals, and microorganisms) and the replication of natural biological processes to produce goods and services.
- It incorporates sustainable methods to replace traditional, resource-intensive production systems.
- Applications:
- Biofuels, bioplastics, medicines, synthetic biology, and agriculture are key sectors where bioeconomy is being applied.
- Ex. Ethanol produced via microorganisms from crops like sugarcane and corn is a prime example of bioeconomy’s impact on reducing reliance on hydrocarbon-based fuels.
Key Highlights of the India Bioeconomy Report:
- Growth in Market Value:
- India’s bioeconomy has nearly doubled in value from $86 billion in 2020 to $165 billion in 2024.
- There has been a 90% increase in the number of companies in the bioeconomy sector, from 5,365 in 2021 to 10,075 in 2024, with projections to double again by 2030.
- Key Sectors:
- Industrial Sector: Contributes nearly $78 billion, driven by biofuels and bioplastics.
- Pharmaceuticals: Accounts for 35% of the total bioeconomy value, primarily driven by vaccines.
- Research and IT: The fastest-growing segment, especially in biotech software development and clinical trials.
- Regional Contribution:
- Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, Gujarat, and Andhra Pradesh account for over two-thirds of the bioeconomy value.
- The Eastern and Northeastern regions contribute less than 6%.
- Global Comparison:
- India’s bioeconomy share in GDP (4.2%) is comparable to countries like the US and China.
- However, countries like Spain and Italy have bioeconomy contributing more than 20% of their GDP.
- Policy Direction:
- The BioE3 policy (Biotechnology for Economy, Environment, and Employment), launched in 2024, aims to establish India as a global hub for bio-manufacturing and a major center for biotech R&D.
- The policy targets growth in areas such as bio-based chemicals, functional foods, precision biotherapeutics, marine and space biotechnology, and climate-resilient agriculture.
| [UPSC 2024] Consider the following materials:
1. Agricultural residues
2. Corn grain
3. Wastewater treatment sludge
4. Wood mill waste
Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 1,2,3 and 4 (d) 1,3 and 4 only |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: GAIA Mission
Why in the News?
The European Space Agency (ESA) officially shut down its Global Astrometric Interferometer for Astrophysics (GAIA) Mission, which had been operational for over a decade.
About the GAIA Mission
- It was launched in December 2013 with the primary goal to create the most accurate three-dimensional map of the Milky Way galaxy.
- It sought to measure the positions, distances, and movements of stars and other celestial bodies.
- Gaia was designed for astrometry, focusing on precise measurements of celestial object locations and motions.
- Positioned at Lagrange Point 2 (L2), 1.5 million kilometres behind Earth (as viewed from the Sun), Gaia was able to observe the universe without interference from Earth, the Sun, or the Moon.
- Gaia was equipped with two telescopes and a camera with nearly 1 billion pixels, the largest camera ever sent to space. Key instruments include:
- Astrometer: Measured the location and motion of stars.
- Photometer: Measured brightness of celestial objects.
- Spectrometer: Analyzed the composition and movement of stars.
- Discoveries and Achievements:
- Gaia mapped the Milky Way in 3D, uncovering its shape, structure, and movement. It also detected warping and wobbling in the galaxy.
- Gaia identified new types of black holes by observing their gravitational effects and tracked over 150,000 asteroids, contributing insights on their orbits and future impacts on Earth.
- Additionally, it provided new understanding of stellar evolution and the formation of stars, including the Sun.
- Gaia accumulated over 3 trillion observations, contributing to more than 13,000 scientific papers, revolutionizing knowledge about the Milky Way, the solar system, and galactic dynamics.
Why is Gaia being Decommissioned?
- After more than a decade of operations, the Gaia mission reached the end of its operational lifespan, making it unsustainable to continue its activities.
- After over 10 years in space, Gaia’s technology showed signs of wear, and continuing operations became unfeasible.
- On March 27, 2025, Gaia was successfully passivated, draining all internal energy sources. This means it can no longer be restarted or resumed for future operations.
| [UPSC 2023] Consider the following pairs: Objects in space Description
1. Cepheids : Giant clouds of dust and gas in space
2. Nebulae : Stars which brighten and dim periodically
3. Pulsars : Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a)Only one (b) Only two (c)All three (d) None |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Sir Syed Ahmad Khan (1817-1898)
Why in the News?
March 27 is the death anniversary of Sir Syed Ahmad Khan, a prominent 19th-century reformer and educationist who significantly advanced the social and educational development of Muslims.
About Sir Syed Ahmad Khan (1817-1898)
- Sir Syed Ahmad Khan was born in 1817 in Delhi, into a renowned Muslim family.
- He received education in Persian and Arabic and was well-versed in Islamic studies from an early age.
- Public Service and Recognition:
- He joined the British government’s judicial service in 1876 and was exposed to Western education and ideas, significantly influencing his later reforms.
- He served as a member of the Viceregal Council (1878-1883), the Lieutenant Governor’s Council of the North-Western Province (1887), and was involved in educational reforms as part of the Imperial Education Commission (1888) and the Royal Public Service Commission (1886).
- He was knighted by the British in 1888 for his contributions to social and educational reforms.
- Role During British Rule:
- After the 1857 revolt, Sir Syed helped change the British perception of Muslims, utilizing British support to improve Muslim progress.
- He focused on education and cultural reform within the British framework to improve Muslim society.
Key Contributions:
- Educational Reforms:
- Sir Syed founded Madrasatul Uloom in 1875, which later became Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental (MAO) College in 1877, laying the foundation for Aligarh Muslim University (AMU).
- He encouraged English education, believing it was essential for India’s progress. His visit to England in 1869-1870 further convinced him of its importance.
- Promotion of Critical Thinking and Modernity:
- Sir Syed advocated for the reconciliation of Islamic faith with modern scientific thought and believed Islamic principles could coexist with modernity and science.
- He emphasized reason and critical thinking, opposing blind tradition.
- Social and Religious Reforms:
- He supported women’s education, opposed purdah and polygamy, and advocated for easier divorce laws.
- He criticized the Piri and Muridi System and promoted self-discipline and independent thought.
- Political Views:
- While involved in governance, Sir Syed was cautious about direct political engagement to avoid hostility from the British.
- Literary Contributions:
- Sir Syed launched 3 bilingual periodicals — The Loyal Mohammedans of India (1860), The Aligarh Institute Gazette (1866), and Tehzibul Akhlakh (1870) — to promote modernity, rational thought, and cultural pluralism, combating sectarianism and bigotry.
- Hindu-Muslim Unity:
- He once famously described Hindus and Muslims as “two eyes of the beautiful bride, that if any of the eyes hurt, made the bride ugly.” He had declared in 1884 at Gurdaspur that the Hindus and Muslims should try to become one heart and soul and act in unison.
- The Aligarh Movement:
- It aimed to modernize the Muslim community by promoting modern education while preserving Islamic values.
- It led to social reforms such as the abolition of purdah and polygamy, and the promotion of widow remarriage and women’s education.
| [UPSC 2000] Consider the following pairs:
Institution – Founder
1. Sanskrit College at Benaras – William Jones
2. Calcutta Madarsa – Warren Hastings
3. Fort William College – Arthur Wellesley
4. Muhammedan Anglo-Oriental College at Aligarh – Syed Ahmad Khan
How many of the above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Finance Bill
Why in the News?
Initiating the debate on the Finance Bill in the Lok Sabha, Shashi Tharoor said south Indian States have been the engines of growth and revenue but don’t get their due share from the Central pool of revenue.
About Financial Bills:
- Article 117 of the Constitution governs financial bills. It stipulates special provisions for the introduction of financial bills, outlining their requirements and procedures.
- According to Rule 219 of the Rules of Procedure of the Lok Sabha, a Finance Bill is typically introduced to give effect to the financial proposals for the next financial year or to address supplementary financial proposals.
- A Finance Bill is introduced in the Lok Sabha after the annual budget has been presented.
- The Bill does not include provisions as per Article 110 but still involves expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India.
- It follows the same legislative process as an ordinary bill, where:
- Rajya Sabha can reject or amend it.
- In case of a deadlock, a joint sitting of both Houses may be convened.
- The President can either assent to the Bill or return it for reconsideration.
- All money bills are financial bills, but not all financial bills are money bills.
- Only bills that exclusively deal with matters listed in Article 110 (such as taxes, borrowing, or the management of Consolidated Fund of India ) qualify as money bills.
Types of Financial Bills:
- Type-I: Financial Bills under Article 110
- These bills contain provisions related to matters specified in Article 110(1)(a) to (f), which include taxation, borrowing, and the expenditure of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI).
- These bills are a combination of both money bills and ordinary bills. They are treated like money bills but also include non-financial matters that do not strictly fit into Article 110.
- Type-II: Financial Bills under Article 117(3)
- These bills involve expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India but do not fall under the money bill category.
- They follow the same legislative procedure as an ordinary bill and may be amended or rejected by the Rajya Sabha. In the case of disagreement between the two Houses, the President can call a joint sitting to resolve the deadlock.
| [UPSC 2022] With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: VLSRSAM
Why in the News?
The DRDO has successfully tested the Vertically- Launched Short-Range Surface-to-Air Missile (VLSRSAM) for the Indian Navy.
About VLSRSAM
- The VLSRSAM is a ship-borne surface-to-air missile designed to counter various aerial threats, particularly at short ranges.
- The missile is intended for neutralizing airborne threats at close ranges, including aircraft, helicopters, drones, and other incoming missiles, which are critical for naval defence operations.
- The VLSRSAM weighs around 170 kg and is powered by a solid propellant.
- The missile can reach a maximum speed of Mach 4.5.
- The missile can reach altitudes of 16 km and has a range sufficient to engage high-speed targets.
- Guidance System:
- Mid-course phase: The missile uses a fibre-optic gyroscope-based inertial guidance system, ensuring stable flight towards the target.
- Terminal phase: It switches to active radar homing for precise target acquisition and guidance, ensuring that it can engage targets with high accuracy even at low altitudes.
Strategic Significance
- With advanced guidance systems, the VLSRSAM demonstrates agility and precision in targeting, ensuring it is highly effective even against fast-moving, low-flying aerial threats.
- The missile has been tested for reliability and accuracy, successfully engaging targets at close range and low altitudes.
- It is seen as a force multiplier for the Indian Navy, significantly enhancing its air defence capabilities, particularly in protecting high-value assets in the maritime domain.
| [UPSC 2018] What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news ?
(a) An Israeli radar system
(b) India’s indigenous anti-missile programme
(c) An American anti-missile system
(d) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Vikramshila University
Why in the News?
A decade after the resurgence of Nalanda University, the Government of Bihar is now focusing on the revival of Vikramshila University.
About Vikramshila University
- Vikramshila University was founded by King Dharmapala of the Pala Dynasty in the 8th-9th century AD in Bhagalpur district, Bihar, near the Ganges River.
- It was established to address the decline in academic standards at Nalanda University.
- The university specialized in Tantric Buddhism and Vajrayana Buddhism. Subjects taught included philosophy, grammar, metaphysics, logic, and tantras.
- Notable scholars like Atisa Dipankara and Naropa were associated with Vikramshila.
- It housed over 1,000 students and employed more than 100 teachers.
- The university had 208 monastic cells, where monks studied and meditated.
- Administration was managed by a Kulpati, or Mahasthavir, overseeing both academics and operations.
- Key Features:
- The university’s iconic cruciform brick stupa stood at 15 meters.
- It also had a library with a unique cooling system to preserve manuscripts.
- The architecture included a square layout with gates at four cardinal directions and surrounding votive stupas.
- Decline and Destruction:
- It thrived for about 400 years before being destroyed by Muhammad Bakhtiyar Khalji in 1193 AD.
- The decline was due to the rise of Hinduism, the fall of Buddhism, and foreign invasions.
Cultural Significance of Vikramshila University
- Vikramshila was a major centre for Tantric and Vajrayana Buddhism, focusing on esoteric practices and rituals.
- The Cakrasamvara Tantra was developed here, with scholars like Buddhajnanapada contributing to its spread.
- The teachings from Vikramshila spread Buddhism across the Himalayas, Central Asia, and the Far East.
- Vikramshila represented the zenith of Buddhist scholarship in India and contributed significantly to Buddhist texts, some of which survived through Tibetan manuscripts.
| [UPSC 1998] Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
I. Lothal: Ancient dockyard
II. Sarnath: First Sermon of Buddha
III. Rajgir: Lion capital of Asoka
IV. Nalanda: Great seat of Buddhist learning
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) I, II, III and IV (b) III and IV (c) I, II and IV (d) I and II |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Priority Sector Lending (PSL)
Why in the News?
The RBI has issued revised guidelines for Priority Sector Lending (PSL), effective from April 1, 2025, to improve the targeting of bank credit to key sectors of the economy.
About Priority Sector Lending (PSL)
| What is it? |
- PSL refers to the portion of bank lending that must be directed to specific sectors identified as priorities for national development.
- The RBI mandates that banks must allocate a specified portion of their credit to these sectors to ensure inclusive growth.
Origin of PSL:
- PSL was introduced in India in the late 1960s.
- The term “priority sector” was first used in 1967 by Morarji Desai, then Deputy Prime Minister, and it led to legislative measures for social control over banks.
- In 1972, the RBI formally defined priority sectors, focusing initially on agriculture and small-scale industries.
|
| Which Banks are Covered Under PSL? |
1. Domestic Scheduled Commercial Banks, Cooperative Banks, and Foreign Banks: 40% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure (CEOBSE), whichever is higher.
2. Small Finance Banks and Regional Rural Banks (RRBs): 75% of ANBC or CEOBSE, whichever is higher.
3. Payment Banks: NOT subject to PSL targets. |
| Priority Sector Categories |
• Agriculture • Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) • Export Credit • Education • Housing • Social Infrastructure • Renewable Energy
• Others, including Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Persons with Disabilities.
• Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs) offering loans to individuals and Self-Help Groups (SHGs) are also eligible for PSL classification. |
| Consequences of Failing to Meet PSL Norms |
1. Investment in Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF): Banks falling short of PSL targets may be required to invest in the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF), managed by NABARD, or other designated funds like those managed by SIDBI and NHB.
2. Purchase of PSL Certificates: Banks can purchase Priority Sector Lending Certificates (PSLCs) to meet their PSL targets. |
| Priority Sector Lending Certificates (PSLCs) |
- Tradable certificates issued against priority sector loans by banks.
- Banks can purchase PSLCs to meet PSL targets if they fall short, while incentivizing surplus banks to lend more to these sectors.
|
Revised PSL Guidelines for 2025:
- Revised PSL guidelines for 2025 will enhance the targeting of bank credit to priority sectors.
- Loan limits for housing have been increased, with differentiated limits based on population size: ₹50 lakh (population ≥ 50 lakh), ₹45 lakh (population 10-50 lakh), and ₹35 lakh (population < 10 lakh).
- Renewable energy loans: Up to ₹35 crore for power generators and public utilities, and ₹10 lakh for individual households.
- Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs) have a revised PSL target of 60% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC).
- Weaker Section borrowers expanded and the cap on loans to individual women beneficiaries has been removed.
| [UPSC 2012] The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that the –
(a) big banks should try to open offices in each district
(b) there should be stiff competition among the various nationalized banks
(c) individual banks should adopt particular districts for intensive development
(d) all the banks should make intensive efforts to mobilize deposits |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: BHIM 3.0
Why in the News?
NPCI BHIM Services Ltd. (NBSL), a subsidiary of the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), launched BHIM 3.0 with new features aimed at enhancing the user experience and providing new offerings for businesses and banks.
About BHIM (Bharat Interface for Money):
- BHIM is a mobile payment app developed by NPCI, based on the Unified Payments Interface (UPI), aimed at promoting cashless transactions and digital payments directly through banks.
- Launched on December 30, 2016, BHIM facilitates instant money transfers between over 170 member banks using IMPS infrastructure.
- Unlike mobile wallets, BHIM transfers money directly between bank accounts, ensuring quick transactions at any time, including holidays.
- BHIM now supports Aadhaar-based authentication for easier digital payments.
- BHIM is available in more than 20 Indian languages and is designed to work effectively in areas with low or unstable internet connectivity.
- BHIM employs a robust three-factor authentication (3FA) process to ensure the security of transactions:
-
- Device ID and Mobile Number: The app binds with the user’s device ID and mobile number to verify the device.
- Bank Account Link: Users must sync their bank account (UPI-enabled or non-UPI-enabled) to the app for transactions.
- UPI PIN: A unique UPI PIN is required for completing transactions, which adds an extra layer of security.
- NPCI does not charge any fee for transactions between ₹1 and ₹100,000.
- Banks may charge fees for UPI or IMPS transfers, but there is no official information on BHIM-specific charges.
Key Features of BHIM 3.0
- Split Expenses: Users can now divide bills for shared expenses (e.g., rent, dining, group purchases) and settle payments instantly.
- Family Mode: Users can onboard family members, track shared expenses, and assign specific payments for better financial management.
- Spends Analytics: A new dashboard provides a detailed breakdown of monthly expenses, automatically categorizing them for easier budgeting.
- Action Needed Alerts: BHIM 3.0 includes reminders for pending bills, activation of UPI Lite, and low Lite balance alerts to help users stay updated.
- BHIM Vega: This feature allows merchants to accept in-app payments directly within the BHIM app, streamlining transactions without needing third-party apps.
| [UPSC 2018] With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:
1.BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account.
2. While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Equalization Levy
Why in the News?
The Centre is considering the withdrawal of the 6% Equalization Levy on online advertisement services provided by offshore digital economy firms to Indian businesses.
What is Equalization Levy?
- The Equalization Levy was introduced in 2016 under Section 165A of the Finance Act, primarily to tax digital transactions conducted by foreign e-commerce companies with Indian businesses.
- It was designed to ensure that foreign companies, particularly in the digital economy, pay taxes for benefiting from Indian markets without a physical presence in the country.
- It was primarily aimed at business-to-business (B2B) transactions, which is why it is often referred to as the “Google Tax”.
- The levy mechanism involves withholding the tax at the time of payment made by the Indian service recipient to a non-resident service provider.
- The annual payment threshold for the levy is ₹1,00,000 for a single service provider in a financial year.
- Services covered under the levy:
- Online advertisement services (effective from June 1, 2016).
- Provision of digital advertising space or sale of goods to Indian residents (effective from April 1, 2020).
- Tax Rates:
- 6% of the gross consideration is levied on online advertisement services.
- 2% of the gross consideration is levied on e-commerce transactions like the sale of goods or services.
- Exclusions:
- The levy does not apply if the non-resident has a permanent office in India related to the service.
- The payment for the service is below ₹1 lakh.
- Tax Withholding: The tax is withheld by the Indian service recipient at the time of payment.
Why it is being Abolished?
- This move is part of India’s attempt to reduce tensions with the US, which raised concerns over such taxes.
- Similarly, the UK is considering the abolition of its digital services tax by April 2025.
- In August 2024, the Indian government removed the 2% levy applied to offshore tech firms (e.g., cloud services, e-commerce).
- The 6% levy on online advertisements remained, impacting companies like Google and Meta.
- The Finance Bill 2025 proposes a sunset clause to phase out the 6% levy on online advertisements by April 1, 2025.
| [UPSC 2012] What is/are the recent policy initiative(s)of Government of India to promote the growth of manufacturing sector? Setting up of:
1. National Investment and Manufacturing Zones
2. Providing the benefit of ‘single window clearance’
3. Establishing the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (CGRFA)
Why in the News?
The 20th meeting of the Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (CGRFA-20) is currently underway in Rome.
About Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (CGRFA)
- The CGRFA is the only permanent intergovernmental body addressing all components of biodiversity-related to food and agriculture.
- It was established in 1983 as the Commission on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture.
- It operates under the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations.
- It aims to create international consensus on managing biodiversity in food systems and ensuring the fair and equitable sharing of benefits from these genetic resources.
- Membership: 179 countries (including India) and the European Union
- Focus: Coordinates global efforts on biodiversity affecting agriculture, forestry, livestock, and aquatic species, including pollinators, soil organisms, and other vital species for food production.
Structure and Mandate
- Structure:
- Governed by a biennial session where member countries discuss and make decisions.
- A bureau, elected by member states, guides the Commission’s work.
- The CGRFA Secretariat, hosted by FAO, offers technical and logistical support.
- Mandate:
- Policy Formulation: Develops global action plans, codes of conduct, and policy instruments for sustainable use and conservation of genetic resources for food and agriculture.
- Global Assessments: Guides preparation of periodic assessments to monitor the status and trends of genetic resources and biodiversity.
- Sustainable Use of Biodiversity: Promotes biodiversity use for food security, sustainable agriculture, and climate adaptation.
- Fair and Equitable Benefit Sharing: Ensures fair distribution of benefits from genetic resources, especially plant materials under international treaties.
-
- International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (ITPGRFA): Adopted in 2001, it recognizes farmers’ contributions to crop diversity and provides a global system for accessing plant genetic materials for breeders, farmers, and scientists.
| [UPSC 2014] Consider the following international agreements:
1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture
2. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
3. The World Heritage Convention
Which of the above has / have a bearing on the biodiversity?
Options: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Farakka Barrage
Why in the News?
It was nearly 50 years ago, that India had completed the construction of the Farakka Barrage.
About Farakka Barrage
- The Farakka Barrage is located on the Ganges River in Murshidabad District, West Bengal, India, about 18 km from the Bangladesh border.
- The barrage measures 2,304 meters (7,559 feet) in length.
- Its construction began in 1962 and was completed in 1970 at a cost of 1 billion dollars. It became operational on April 21, 1975.
- The Feeder Canal is approximately 42 km long, connecting the barrage to the Hooghly River.
- Purpose:
- It diverts water to the Hooghly River to maintain the navigability of Kolkata Port and to flush out sediment from the river.
- It diverts 1,800 cubic meters per second of water from the Ganges.
- Construction Details:
- Built by Hindustan Construction Company, it consists of 109 gates, with 108 over the river and one over low-lying land as a precaution.
- Supports the Farakka Super Thermal Power Station.
- The 1996 Ganges Water Sharing Treaty ensured fair water distribution:
- 70,000 cusecs or less: 50% to both India and Bangladesh.
- 70,000 – 75,000 cusecs: India gets 35,000 cusecs, Bangladesh the balance.
- 75,000 cusecs or more: India receives 40,000 cusecs, Bangladesh gets the remainder.
Significance in India-Bangladesh Water Sharing:
- The Farakka Barrage is crucial for irrigation in West Bengal, supporting agriculture during the dry season.
- Bangladesh, particularly Mongla and Khulna, depends on the Ganges for water.
- The diverted water has led to water scarcity, impacting agriculture, fisheries, and livelihoods in Bangladesh, causing diplomatic tensions.
- This treaty ensures equitable distribution and guarantees a minimum flow for Bangladesh.
-
- Water diversion has led to salinization and soil degradation in Bangladesh, affecting agriculture and freshwater supplies.
- Biodiversity loss and damage to the Sundarbans mangrove forests have been significant environmental impacts.
| [UPSC 1997] The canal-carrying capacity of Farakka is:
(a) 40,000 cusecs (b) 60,000 cusecs (c) 80,000 cusecs (d) 100,000 cusecs |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Exercise Aikeyme
Why in the News?
India is set to strengthen its military and maritime ties with African nations through two significant initiatives—Exercise Aikeyme (Africa-India Key Maritime Engagement) and IOS Sagar (Indian Ocean Ship Sagar).
About Exercise Aikeyme
- Aikeyme is India’s first-ever multilateral naval exercise with 10 African nations, aimed at improving maritime cooperation, enhancing maritime security, and addressing regional threats.
- It will be held off Dar-es-Salaam, Tanzania, from April 13 to 18, 2025.
- The nations taking part include Tanzania (co-host), Comoros, Djibouti, Eritrea, Kenya, Madagascar, Mauritius, Mozambique, Seychelles, and South Africa.
- It is aimed at increasing interoperability between the Indian Navy and African navies, with a focus on combating common threats like piracy and drug trafficking.
- The goal is to make this exercise a biennial event and expand participation in future editions to include West African nations.
- Key Features:
- Visit Board Search and Seizure (VBSS) drills.
- Arms firing exercises.
- Helicopter operations.
- Search and rescue missions.
- Table-top and command post exercises on anti-piracy operations and information-sharing.
IOS Sagar (Indian Ocean Ship) Initiative
- The IOS Sagar initiative focuses on deepening India’s maritime cooperation with IOR countries.
- It involves the deployment of the Indian Navy’s INS Sunayna, which will be manned by a combined crew of Indian sailors and 44 personnel from nine African countries.
- The initiative will take place from April 5 to May 8, 2025.
- Key Participating Countries: Sri Lanka, Maldives, Mauritius, Comoros, Kenya, Madagascar, Mozambique, Seychelles, and South Africa.
- Activities:
- The ship will undertake port calls at Dar-es-Salaam, Nacala, Port Louis, Port Victoria, and Male.
- The ship will also engage in joint surveillance of the Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs) of Tanzania, Mozambique, Mauritius, and Seychelles.
- The personnel will undergo two-week training capsules at Kochi, including sea training, watchkeeping, and other professional naval activities.
|
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Lapis Lazuli
Why in the News?
This newscard is an excerpt from the original article published in ‘The Hindu’.
About Lapis Lazuli
- Lapis lazuli is a deep-blue metamorphic rock prized for its vibrant colour, often used in jewellery and decorative items.
- It is composed mainly of lazurite, with other minerals like calcite and pyrite, which give it its characteristic golden specks.
- It is mainly found in Afghanistan’s Badakhshan province, though it is also present in Chile, Russia, and the US.
- It has been valued since ancient times, particularly in Egypt, Mesopotamia, and Greece, and is known for its use in making pigments, especially ultramarine.
Lapis Lazuli in Indus Valley Civilization (IVC):
- The Indus Valley Civilization (IVC) (3300-1900 BC) had extensive trade with Mesopotamia and Afghanistan, where lapis lazuli was imported.
- It was used for beads and ornaments found at Mohenjo-daro and Harappa, underscoring its value in Indus jewellery.
- It was a sacred stone, often used in beads, pendants, and amulets, symbolizing spirituality and high social status.
- It was likely associated with religious ceremonies and used to represent the gods.
- The Indus people were skilled at bead-making, often combining lapis lazuli with other stones, such as gold.
- The intricate designs, including incised or painted beads, reflect their technical expertise.
Other Semi-Precious Stones Found in IVC:
Several semi-precious stones were used by the IVC to create jewellery and ornaments:
- Carnelian beads were made into pendants and rings, valued for their reddish-orange hue and durability.
- Amethyst beads, a purple quartz variety, were also used, likely imported from other regions.
- Jasper, a chalcedony variety, was used for beads and pendants, valued for its earthy tones.
- Turquoise was used in beads, often combined with lapis lazuli and carnelian.
- Steatite (Soapstone) was used for seals and beads, often engraved with animal motifs or symbols.
- Crystal and quartz were used for translucent beads, adding a mystical quality to jewelry.
- Gold, combined with semi-precious stones like lapis lazuli, carnelian, and turquoise, was extensively used in necklaces, bracelets, and earrings.
|
| [UPSC 2023] Lothal, a significant site of the Indus Valley Civilization, was particularly well-known as a:
(a) major agricultural centre
(b) centre for textile production
(c) major trade hub for beads, gems, and ornaments
(d) site with extensive fire altars |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Removal of High Court Judges
Why in the News?
The Chief Justice of India (CJI) has set up a three-member panel to investigate the alleged discovery of a significant sum of money at the residence of a sitting Delhi High Court judge.
Appointment Process of High Court Judges:
- According to Article 217, the President of India appoints High Court judges after consulting with the CJI, the Governor of the respective state, and the Chief Justice of the High Court.
- In the case of the appointment of a judge other than the Chief Justice, the Chief Justice of the High Court is consulted as well.
- Consultation Process:
- The process of appointing judges is handled by a Collegium, which includes the CJI and the two senior-most judges of the Supreme Court.
- The Collegium System allows for a collaborative decision-making process where the Chief Justice of the High Court initiates the proposal, which is then forwarded to the Chief Minister.
- The Chief Minister, in turn, advises the Governor, who submits the proposal to the Union Law Minister.
- The Chief Justice of the High Court is appointed in accordance with a policy to ensure that Chief Justices are from outside the respective states.
- Appointment and Transfer of Judges:
- The CJI and the senior-most judges of the Supreme Court collectively decide on the appointment and transfer of judges, ensuring judicial independence and preventing executive interference.
Removal of Judges in the Higher Judiciary:
- Impeachment Process:
- Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts can only be removed by impeachment, which requires a motion signed by 100 Lok Sabha MPs or 50 Rajya Sabha MPs.
- The impeachment motion is investigated by a three-member judicial committee, and if the committee finds merit in the allegations, Parliament votes on the motion.
- A 2/3rd majority is needed in both Houses for removal.
- Parliament can, however, consider a motion to impeach a judge according to the procedure laid down in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
- In-House Inquiry Process:
- The CJI can initiate an in-house inquiry in the event of serious allegations against a judge. This process involves the Chief Justice of the High Court submitting a report, and if the allegations are deemed serious, a three-member committee is constituted to investigate the matter.
- If the committee recommends removal, the CJI may advise the judge to resign. If the judge refuses, their judicial work is withdrawn, and impeachment proceedings may be initiated.
Historical Impeachment Efforts:
- No judge has been impeached in India, though attempts have been made, including the failed motions against Justice V Ramaswami (1993) and Justice Soumitra Sen (2011).
- Justice V Ramaswami (1993): Faced impeachment for financial misconduct, but the motion failed in the Lok Sabha.
- Justice Soumitra Sen (2011): Resigned after impeachment proceedings for misappropriating funds.
- Justice K Veeraswamy: Chief Justice of Madras HC, investigated for corruption but challenged the investigation. The case remained unresolved until his death in 2010.
- Justice Shamit Mukherjee (2003), Justice Nirmal Yadav (2008), and Justice SN Shukla (2017): Faced criminal charges for corruption after in-house inquiries found substantial evidence against them.
|
[UPSC 2019] Consider the following statements:
1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Demands for Grants
Why in the News?
The Lok Sabha has passed the Demands for Grants of various Ministries for the financial year 2025-26, approving an expenditure of more than ₹50 lakh crore.
What are Demands for Grants?
- Demands for Grants refer to the expenditure estimates that require approval from the Lok Sabha under Article 113 of the Constitution of India.
- These demands are essentially requests for funds by different ministries to cover their respective expenditure needs.
- The Demands for Grants cover:
- Revenue expenditure: Routine expenses for the functioning of government.
- Capital expenditure: Investment-related spending, such as infrastructure and development projects.
- Grants to States/UTs: Funds allocated to state governments and Union Territories for various purposes.
- Loans & advances: Amounts lent to other entities or bodies.
- Each ministry or department presents its own demand for grants. Larger ministries may have multiple demands depending on the scope of their activities.
- Types of Expenditures in Demands for Grants:
- Voted expenditure: It refers to the part of the budget that requires approval from the Lok Sabha. This expenditure can be debated and voted on by members of the House.
- Charged expenditure: It includes items like the President’s salary, judges’ salaries, debt servicing, and other such payments. This expenditure does not require a vote and is automatically passed.
- Voting on Demands for Grants:
- Exclusivity of Lok Sabha: Only the Lok Sabha has the power to vote on Demands for Grants.
- Voting Process: Voting applies only to votable expenditure, with each demand voted on separately.
- Guillotine Process: If time runs out for discussion, the Speaker applies the guillotine, automatically approving remaining demands.
Constitutional Provisions on Demands for Grants
- Article 113: Requires the President’s recommendation before any demand for a grant can be made.
- Article 114: Money cannot be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without parliamentary approval.
- Article 115: Allows supplementary grants if the budget is insufficient.
- Article 116: Provides for Vote on Account and Vote of Credit if the budget is not passed before the start of the financial year.
[UPSC 2024] Consider the following statements regarding the financial procedure in the Indian Parliament:
1. The Appropriation Bill must be passed by the Lok Sabha after the Demands for Grants are voted upon.
2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Exercise Varuna
Why in the News?
India and France recently conducted the 23rd edition of Exercise Varuna, a key bilateral naval exercise aimed at enhancing interoperability and combat readiness between the two countries’ naval forces.
About Exercise Varuna
- Exercise Varuna is a bilateral naval exercise between India and France.
- It was first initiated in 1993 and officially named Varuna in 2001.
- The exercise focuses on enhancing combat readiness, improving interoperability, and deepening maritime security cooperation between the two nations.
- It spans multiple domains, including air, surface, and sub-surface operations, with a strong emphasis on anti-submarine warfare (ASW) and air combat drills.
- Key Highlights:
- The 2025 edition took place from March 19-22 off the coast of Goa, with participants such as INS Vikrant (India) and Charles de Gaulle (France).
- This year’s exercises included aircraft carrier operations, ASW drills, and joint surface warfare operations.
- Rafale-M (French Navy) and MiG-29K (Indian Navy) fighters participated in advanced air defence and mock air-to-air combat scenarios.
- Indian Scorpene-class submarines acted as aggressors, while French and Indian frigates protected high-value assets, including the French oiler Jacques Chevallier.
- These drills enhanced underwater domain awareness and improved ASW tactics.
Other Notable India-France Military Exercises:
- FRINJEX: A joint exercise between the Indian and French armies focused on ground operations.
- GARUDA: A bilateral air exercise between the Indian and French air forces, first held in 2003.
- SHAKTI: A biennial military exercise between India and France, focusing on counter-terrorism operations.
- La Pérouse: A multilateral maritime exercise led by the French Navy, with India participating for the first time in 2021.
|
| [UPSC 2024] Which of the following statements about ‘Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023’ are correct?
1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh.
2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune).
3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation.
4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: UN World Water Development Report, 2025
Why in the News?
On March 21, 2025, the United Nations marked the first-ever World Day for Glaciers, and in conjunction, the United Nations World Water Development Report issued a disturbing warning about the rapid loss of glaciers.
Key Highlights of the Report:
- Hindu Kush Himalayas (HKH) Glacier Loss: Glaciers are melting 65% faster (2011-2020) than the previous decade, with up to 50% shrinkage by 2100 if global temperatures rise by 1.5-2°C.
- WMO’s Climate Report: The 2024 climate year was the warmest in 175 years, reinforcing the link between rising temperatures and accelerated glacier melt.
- Unprecedented Glacier Mass Loss: Over 9,000 billion tonnes of ice lost since 1975, with 450 gigatons lost in 2024 alone.
- Rising Sea Levels: Melting glaciers contribute to sea level rise, displacing 200,000 to 300,000 people annually and increasing coastal flooding risks.
- Increased Wildfires and Dust Storms: Rising wildfires and dust storms accelerate glacier melt by darkening their surfaces.
- Permafrost Thawing: Thawing permafrost releases carbon and nutrients, worsening climate change and increasing landslide risks.
- Declining Snow Cover: A 7.79% global decline in persistent snow cover from 1979-2022 affects water resources.
About World Glaciers Day
- March 21, 2025, marked the first-ever World Day for Glaciers, aimed at raising awareness about glaciers and the risks posed by their loss due to climate change.
- It was declared by the UN in its resolution A/RES/77/158 along with the International Year of Glaciers 2025.
- The day calls for governments, organizations, and individuals to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and adopt sustainable water management practices.
| [UPSC 2019] Consider the following statements:
1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Public Accounts Committee, Swadesh Darshan Scheme (SDS)
Why in the News?
The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) has criticized the Ministry of Tourism for the poor execution of the Swadesh Darshan Scheme and highlighted lapses in planning, approvals, and project execution.
About Public Accounts Committee (PAC):
- The PAC was established in 1921 under the Government of India Act, 1919.
- It consists of 22 members, with 15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha, who are elected annually.
- The Chairman of the committee is traditionally selected from the Opposition since 1967.
- The PAC plays a crucial role in examining the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), focusing on public expenditure.
- It ensures that funds are utilized efficiently, and it checks for irregularities, corruption, waste, and inefficiencies in government spending.
About Swadesh Darshan Scheme (SDS):
- The Swadesh Darshan Scheme was launched in 2015 by the Ministry of Tourism.
- Objective: Developing theme-based tourist circuits such as Buddhist, Coastal, Heritage, and Eco-tourism circuits in India, emphasising sustainable tourism.
- The scheme is 100% centrally funded, and it provides financial assistance to state governments, Union Territory administrations, and central agencies for the development of tourism infrastructure.
- Swadesh Darshan 2.0 scheme (which began from January 2023) adopts a more holistic approach, shifting from circuit-based tourism to a destination-centric model.
- This new version aims to encourage private sector investment in tourism and hospitality, aligning with India’s ‘Vocal for Local’ and Aatmanirbhar Bharat vision.
- It prioritizes long-term growth and the development of sustainable tourism destinations.
- The Challenge-Based Destination Development (CBDD) is a sub-scheme under Swadesh Darshan 2.0, focusing on the competitive development of tourism destinations.
- This initiative aims to foster sustainability, digitalization, skill development, MSME support, and effective management, ensuring that the tourism sector thrives in a more modern and organized manner.
PYQ:
[UPSC 2007] Consider the following statements:
1. The Chairman of the Committee on Public Accounts is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
2. The Committee on Public Accounts comprises Members of Lok Sabha, Members of Rajya Sabha, and a few eminent persons of industry and trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now