Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Nicaragua and its location
Why in the News?
- Indian and Nicaragua has signed an umbrella agreement on Quick Impact Projects (QIPs).
- The agreement aims at socio-economic development by implementing QIPs in Nicaragua, which will directly benefit local communities.
About Nicaragua: Quick Facts
- Nicaragua is located in Central America, bordered by Honduras to the north, Costa Rica to the south, the Pacific Ocean to the west, and the Caribbean Sea to the east.
- The capital of Nicaragua is Managua; official language spoken in Nicaragua is Spanish; currency is the Nicaraguan córdoba (NIO).
- Nicaragua operates as a unitary presidential republic.
- The country’s economy is primarily based on agriculture, including coffee, bananas, and sugar, along with manufacturing and mining.
Geographical Features:
- Nicaragua’s topography is predominantly mountainous in the interior, with lowland plains along its Pacific and Caribbean coasts.
- The country is home to over 20 volcanoes, with active ones such as Masaya and San Cristóbal.
- The largest lake in Nicaragua is Lake Cocibolca, also known as Lake Nicaragua, which is one of the largest lakes in Latin America.
- Nicaragua is also known for its significant rivers, including the San Juan River, which flows into the Caribbean Sea, and the Río Coco, the longest river in Central America.
India- Nicaragua Relations:
- Diplomatic relations were established in March 1983, and the Indian Embassy in Panama is concurrently accredited to Nicaragua.
- Nicaragua’s embassy in India was closed in 1990, and currently, Nicaragua is represented in India through its Embassy in Tokyo.
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What are Quick Impact Projects (QIPs)?
- QIPs are initiatives designed to deliver rapid and visible benefits to local communities, especially in areas with critical infrastructure and social development needs.
- These projects are often implemented in a short time frame.
- They are focused on addressing urgent and immediate issues that can have a significant positive impact on the community.
- The term is commonly used by organizations like the UNHCR to describe such initiatives in crisis or displacement situations.
- Examples of QIPs may include:
- Building roads in remote areas to improve connectivity.
- Establishing community centers that serve as hubs for local services.
- Improving healthcare facilities with basic medical equipment and services.
- Upgrading educational infrastructure by building schools or providing learning materials.
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Green Steel Taxonomy and its features
Why in the News?
The Ministry of Steel unveiled the world’s first Taxonomy of Green Steel, setting a benchmark for decarbonizing the steel industry.
About the Green Steel Taxonomy:
| What is it? |
- A formal framework introduced by India to define and promote the production of steel with reduced carbon emissions.
- It sets clear standards for what constitutes green steel, aiming to help the Indian steel sector transition to low-carbon production methods.
- The taxonomy defines greenness percentages based on the steel plant’s carbon emission intensity.
- Seeks to ensure that production aligns with India’s goal of net-zero emissions by 2070.
|
| Key Features |
- Emissions Threshold: Green Steel is defined based on emissions intensity, with steel plants needing to keep emissions below 2.2 tCO2 per tonne of finished steel (tfs) to be classified as green.
-
- Five-star: Emission intensity lower than 1.6 t-CO2e/tfs.
- Four-star: Emission intensity between 1.6 and 2.0 t-CO2e/tfs.
- Three-star: Emission intensity between 2.0 and 2.2 t-CO2e/tfs.
- Steel exceeding 2.2 t-CO2e/tfs does not qualify as green steel.
- Emissions Scope: Includes Scope 1, Scope 2, and limited Scope 3 emissions, covering production, agglomeration, beneficiation, and emissions from raw materials and intermediates.
- Certification: NISST will oversee Measurement, Reporting, and Verification (MRV), issuing greenness certificates and star ratings annually.
- Review Period: The thresholds for green ratings will be reviewed every 3 years.
|
| Significance |
- Environmental Sustainability: Aims to reduce carbon footprint in line with national climate goals.
- Market Creation: Promotes innovation in low-carbon steel products.
- Global Competitiveness: Ensures Indian steel meets international sustainability standards.
- Guidance for Industry: Encourages adoption of greener practices.
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| Other Key Initiatives |
- National Mission on Green Steel (NMGS): Policy support, funding, and incentives for low-carbon technologies.
- Electrification of Steelmaking: Use of electric arc furnaces (EAF) to reduce reliance on coal.
- Hydrogen-based Steelmaking: Exploring hydrogen as a clean fuel.
- Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS): Technologies to capture CO2 emissions.
- Public Procurement Policies: Promotes green steel use in public infrastructure.
- Research and Development: Investments in low-carbon technologies and materials.
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PYQ:
[2020] Steel slag can be the material for which of the following
1. Construction of base road
2. Improvement of agricultural soil
3. Production of cement
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: CWC; Important highlights of the report
Why in the News?
- The Central Water Commission (CWC) recently released its study titled ‘Assessment of Water Resources of India, 2024.
- It estimated India’s average annual water availability from 1985 to 2023 at 2,115.95 billion cubic meters (BCM).
Key Highlights of CWC’s ‘Assessment of Water Resources of India 2024’ Report:
- Total Water Availability: India’s average annual water availability between 1985 and 2023 is estimated at 2,115.95 billion cubic meters (BCM).
- Top 3 Basins in (annual water availability):
- Brahmaputra Basin: 592.32 BCM
- Ganga Basin: 581.75 BCM
- Godavari Basin: 129.17 BCM
- Bottom 3 Basins in (annual water availability):
- Sabarmati Basin: 9.87 BCM
- Pennar Basin: 10.42 BCM
- Mahi Basin: 13.03 BCM
- Comparison to Previous Assessment (2019):
- The current figure of 2,115.95 BCM is higher than the 1,999.2 BCM estimated in 2019.
- The increase is due to the inclusion of Bhutan’s contribution to the Brahmaputra basin and Nepal’s contribution to the Ganga basin.
- Per Capita Water Availability:
- Based on the 2019 study: 1,486 cubic meters for the year 2021.
- For 2024, with the new data, the per capita availability is projected to be 1,513 cubic meters (based on a population of 1.398 billion).
- Despite the increase, India remains under water stress (less than 1,700 cubic meters per capita).
- Utilizable Water Resources:
- The CWC estimates utilizable surface water at 690 BCM out of the total 1,999.2 BCM.
- Smaller basins have a higher proportion of utilisable water compared to larger ones like the Brahmaputra sub-basin.
About the Central Water Commission (CWC):
- CWC was established in 1945 as the Central Waterways, Irrigation and Navigation Commission (CWINC) on the advice of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar.
- Operates under the Ministry of Jal Shakti, Department of Water Resources, River Development, and Ganga Rejuvenation.
- A statutory advisory body for water resource development and management.
- Headquarters: New Delhi.
- Chairman serves as the Ex-Officio Secretary to the Government of India.
- Responsibilities include:
- Control, conservation, and utilization of water resources.
- Maintaining the National Register of Large Dams (NRLD).
- Conducting hydrological surveys.
- Handles surface water, while the Central Groundwater Board (CGWB) manages groundwater resources.
- Wings:
- Designs and Research (D&R) Wing.
- River Management (RM) Wing.
- Water Planning and Projects (WP&P) Wing.
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PYQ:
[2020] Consider the following statements:
1. 36% of India’s districts are classified as “overexploited” or “critical” by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA).
2. CGWA was formed under the Environment (Protection) Act.
3. India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: DAE - Homi Bhabha Chair Scheme
Why in the News?
The DAE—Homi Bhabha Chair for Distinguished Scientists/Professors was launched in 2021 by the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE).
About DAE – Homi Bhabha Chair Scheme
|
Details |
| Aims and Objectives |
- To recognize outstanding contributions by scientists, including retired professionals, in atomic energy and related technologies.
- Allow retired professionals to continue research aligned with the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE).
- Focus on research in sensitive atomic energy technologies, benefiting strategic sectors.
|
| Provisions and Features |
- Honorarium: Rs. 200,000 per month (capped at last drawn salary).
- Contingency Grant: Rs. 76,000 per year for secretarial assistance, telephone bills, etc.
- Equipment and Book Allowance: Rs. 1,25,000 for equipment and Rs. 10,000 for books.
- Transport Allowance: Fixed monthly transport allowance for those without an official vehicle.
|
| Structural Mandate and Implementation |
- Eligibility: Open to distinguished scientists, including retirees involved in critical atomic technologies.
- Tenure: 1 to 5 years, decided by a Selection Committee.
- Implementation: Administered by DAE, providing research support and necessary infrastructure.
|
| Present Challenges |
- Financial Constraints: Budget limitations can affect the scale of research.
- Integration of New Technologies: Adapting to the fast-changing technological landscape poses challenges.
- Coordination across Stakeholders: Bureaucratic delays and communication issues can arise.
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Who was Homi Bhabha?
- Homi Jehangir Bhabha (1909–1966) was a pioneering Indian physicist and the father of India’s nuclear programme.
- He founded the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR) in 1945 and the Atomic Energy Establishment, Trombay (later Bhabha Atomic Research Centre, BARC) in 1954.
- Bhabha formulated India’s three-stage nuclear power programme in the 1950s and emphasized nuclear power for military and energy purposes.
- He was the first Indian to receive the Adams Prize in 1942 and served as the President of the UN Conference on Peaceful Uses of Atomic Energy in 1955.
- Bhabha activated Apsara, Asia’s first research reactor, at BARC in 1956, and was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 1954.
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PYQ:
[2015] Indira Gandhi Peace Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2014 was given to which of the following?
(a) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
(b) Indian Institute of Science
(c) Indian Space Research Organization
(d) Tata Institute of Fundamental Research |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Durgadi Fort
Why in the News?
- The Kalyan civil court ruled that Durgadi Fort is owned by the Maharashtra government, dismissing the claims of the Majlis-E-Mushawarat Trust.
- The Trust first filed its claim in 1976, arguing that the fort houses a mosque and an idgah (prayer hall) alongside a temple dedicated to Goddess Durga.
Key facts about Durgadi Fort:
| Historical Significance |
- It dates back to the 16th century, part of the Bijapur-based Adil Shahi Sultanate, located in Kalyan.
- Mentioned in British documents since 1570, housing a tomb, prayer place, and other structures.
- In 1760, after the Marathas captured Kalyan, they built a wooden temple dedicated to Durgadevi and renamed it Durgadi Killa.
- After the British took control in 1818, the temple ceased to function, and by 1876, the image of the goddess was stolen.
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| Geographical Location |
- Located in Kalyan (Thane district), about 50 km northeast of Mumbai it is situated on elevated ground and offers scenic views over the Ulhas River.
|
| Cultural and Religious Impact |
- The fort had a significant religious impact on both Hindus and Muslims.
- It originally housed a mosque and was later modified to include a Durga temple by the Marathas.
- The fort has been a site of communal tensions, reflecting the complex intersection of religious identity and historical heritage in Maharashtra.
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Impeachment of Judges
Why in the News?
The Opposition in Rajya Sabha is preparing to move a motion for impeachment of Allahabad High Court Judge for his controversial remarks inciting communal hatred.
Impeachment Process for Judges in India:
| About |
- The process involves Parliament passing an address to the President to remove the judge.
- To pass the motion, two–thirds of the MPs present and voting in both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha;
- Must approve it, with a majority of more than 50% of the total membership of each House.
|
| Key Constitutional Provisions |
- Article 124(4): The judge can only be removed by a Presidential order, passed after a majority vote in both Houses of Parliament.
- The vote must come from two-thirds of the members present and voting.
- Articles 218 of the Constitution extends the same rules to High Court judges.
- The impeachment process ensures judicial independence by maintaining a high bar for removal, limiting political influence.
|
| Grounds for Impeachment |
- A judge of the Supreme Court or High Court can be impeached on two grounds: “proved misbehaviour” or “incapacity” as per the Constitution of India.
- Further clarified in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, including:
- Misuse of office
- Grave offences that undermine the judge’s integrity
- Contravention of the provisions of the Constitution.
|
| What does the process entail? |
Procedure under the Judges Inquiry Act, 1968:
Initial Step: The impeachment motion must be signed by at least 100 MPs in the Lok Sabha and 50 MPs in the Rajya Sabha.
Committee Formation: Once the motion is introduced, the Speaker or Chairperson of the respective House forms a three-member inquiry committee:
- Headed by the Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court judge.
- The second member is usually a Chief Justice of any High Court.
- The third member is a distinguished jurist, appointed by the Speaker or Chairman.
Inquiry Process: The committee investigates the charges, cross-examines witnesses, and regulates its procedure.
The committee may also request a medical test if the charge relates to mental incapacity.
Outcome: If the committee finds the judge not guilty, the motion is dismissed. If found guilty, it will be reported back to the House for further action. |
Instances of Impeachment in India:
- 1993: Justice V Ramaswami (Supreme Court) faced impeachment proceedings on financial impropriety. The motion was unsuccessful despite a guilty finding.
- 2011: Justice Soumitra Sen (Calcutta High Court) was impeached for corruption but resigned before Lok Sabha could take up the matter.
- 2015: Justice S K Gangele (Madhya Pradesh High Court) faced impeachment on charges of sexual harassment, but the committee cleared him in 2017.
- 2015: Justice J B Pardiwala (Gujarat High Court) faced impeachment for controversial remarks about reservation but the motion was dropped after the judge expunged the remarks.
- 2017: Justice C V Nagarjuna (Andhra Pradesh & Telangana High Court) faced impeachment for financial misconduct and victimizing a Dalit judge, but the motion was not pursued.
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PYQ:
[2019] Consider the following statements:
1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Notifiable Diseases
Why in the News?
The Union Health Ministry has urged states to make snakebites a Notifiable Disease, meaning both private and public hospitals must report it to the government.
Snakebites Menace in India:
- Snakebites are a significant public health concern in India, with approximately 3 to 4 million cases reported annually.
- It causes an estimated 58,000 deaths every year, according to the 2020 Indian Million Death Study.
- States such as Bihar, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Rajasthan, and Gujarat report the highest number of snakebites.
- The National Action Plan for Prevention and Control of Snakebite Envenoming (NAPSE), launched by the government earlier in 2024, aims to halve snakebite deaths by 2030 and includes making snakebites notifiable.
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What are Notifiable Diseases?
- Notifiable diseases are those that must be reported to the government for effective public health monitoring and management. These are typically:
- Infectious diseases likely to cause outbreaks.
- Diseases that result in deaths or require quick action to prevent wider transmission.
-
- According to WHO’s International Health Regulations, 1969, disease reporting is mandatory for global surveillance.
- The primary law governing notifiable diseases is the Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897 which outlines the reporting requirements for diseases considered a public health threat.
- However, the specific list of notifiable diseases can vary across different states and is typically determined by the respective state governments under their individual public health acts.
- Common examples of notifiable diseases include tuberculosis, HIV, cholera, malaria, dengue, and hepatitis.
Why snakebite is considered a Notifiable Disease?
- Snakebites can cause severe health issues, including paralysis, fatal hemorrhages, and tissue damage, making it crucial for timely intervention.
- Victims need immediate antivenom treatment to prevent death and long-term effects.
- In 2009, the WHO added snakebite to its list of Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTD), acknowledging its widespread impact on public health.
- Making snakebites a notifiable disease will enhance surveillance, help track case numbers, and improve treatment strategies across the country.
- It will ensure the availability of adequate antivenoms in regions where snakebites are frequent.
- Medical staff will receive training to handle snakebite cases effectively, reducing mortality rates.
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Jan Aushadhi Kendras
Why in the News?
- The Government has empowered Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) to operate Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Jan Aushadhi Kendras (PMBJK), aiming to provide generic medicines at affordable prices to underserved rural areas.
About Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Jan Aushadhi Kendras (PMBJK) by PACS:
| Details |
- PMBJKs were established in November 2008.
- Government-established outlets that provide affordable, quality generic medicines.
- Operated by PACS (Primary Agricultural Credit Societies) in rural areas.
- PACS are empowered to run these Kendras to ensure accessibility in remote regions under the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Jan Aushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP).
|
| Aims and Objectives |
To provide affordable medicines, promote healthcare equity, and reduce medical expenses for farmers, while generating local employment and ensuring PACS’ financial sustainability through the sale of medicines and allied products. |
| Structural Mandate and Implementation |
- Administered by the Department of Pharmaceuticals under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers;
- Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI) is the implementation agency.
Implementation:
- PACS receive technical and administrative support from the Department of Pharmaceuticals.
- PACS leverage their existing infrastructure, including land, buildings, and storage, to run the Kendras.
- PACS-run Kendras receive a 20% incentive on monthly purchases, capped at Rs. 20,000 per month.
- Kendra owners receive a 20% margin on MRP (excluding taxes).
- They can sell allied medical products.
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| Features and Significance |
- Affordable Medicine Distribution: Ensures that generic medicines are affordable in rural areas.
- Economic and Healthcare Benefits: Reduces medical costs and improves healthcare outcomes for farmers.
- Alignment with National Health Policy: Supports equitable healthcare access, especially in remote areas.
- Strengthening Rural Infrastructure: Utilizes PACS’ infrastructure to boost rural healthcare.
|
PYQ:
[2015] Public health system has limitations in providing universal health coverage. Do you think that private sector could help in bridging the gap? What other viable alternatives would you suggest? |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Draft UGC Regulations, 2024
Why in the News?
- The University Grants Commission (UGC) released the Draft UGC (Minimum Standards of Instructions in the Award of UG and PG Degrees) 2024 to bring sweeping reforms in India’s higher education sector.
- The new regulations will apply to all Central, State, Private, and Deemed Universities across India.
Back2Basics: University Grants Commission (UGC)
- UGC was inaugurated in 1953 by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, then Minister of Education.
- it was established as a statutory body in November 1956 under the UGC Act 1956.
- The Sargeant Report (1944) recommended a University Grants Committee, established in 1945, initially handling all universities by 1947.
- Post-independence, the University Education Commission (1948) under Dr. S Radhakrishnan proposed reorganizing the committee along the lines of the UK’s University Grants Commission.
- A proposal to replace UGC with the Higher Education Commission of India (HECI) is under consideration.
- UGC handles:
-
- Providing funds to higher education institutions.
- Coordination, determination, and maintenance of academic standards.
|
About the Draft UGC Regulations, 2024:
| Aims and Objectives |
- To reform India’s higher education system.
- To introduce flexibility, multidisciplinary learning, and inclusivity in higher education while removing disciplinary rigidities.
|
| Key Provisions and Features |
- Biannual Admissions: Institutions can admit students twice a year (July/August and January/February).
- Multiple Entry and Exit: Students can enter or exit their programs multiple times, with continuous assessments, recognition of prior learning, and the possibility to pursue two programs at the same time.
- Flexibility for Students: Students can choose any discipline for UG and PG programs, irrespective of their background, subject to clearing entrance exams (e.g., CUET or university-specific exams).
- Minimum Attendance Requirement: Institutions will set the minimum attendance based on program-specific requirements and statutory approvals, in line with the NEP 2020.
- UG Degree Credits: At least 50% of credits must be earned in the major discipline for an undergraduate degree. The remaining 50% credits can be from skill courses, apprenticeships, or multidisciplinary subjects.
- Duration of Degrees: UG degrees can be completed in 3 to 4 years, depending on the course structure. PG degrees will typically take 1 to 2 years, though they can be longer or shorter based on the program.
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| Accelerated and Extended Degree Programs: |
- ADP (Accelerated Degree Programs): Allows students to complete their degree in a shorter duration while covering the full curriculum.
- EDP (Extended Degree Programs): Extends the duration for students who need more time to complete the program.
- Up to 10% of the sanctioned intake can be earmarked for ADP. Students can choose ADP or EDP by the end of the first or second semester.
- ADP/EDP degrees will include a note specifying the adjusted duration, while ensuring the full academic content is covered.
- Postgraduate Eligibility: Students completing a four-year undergraduate degree (Hons./Research, BTech, BE) will be eligible for a two-year postgraduate program.
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PYQ:
[2012] Which of the following provisions of the Constitution does India have a bearing on Education?
- Directive Principles of State Policy
- Rural and Urban Local Bodies
- Fifth Schedule
- Sixth Schedule
- Seventh Schedule
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: New National Manuscripts Mission
Why in the News?
The Union Ministry of Culture is planning to revive and relaunch the National Mission for Manuscripts (NMM) and is considering the formation of an autonomous body to help preserve India’s ancient texts.
Why Center is re-evolving this scheme?
- Currently, the NMM operates as part of the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts.
- The new entity, expected to be named the National Manuscripts Authority, will likely function as an autonomous body under the Ministry of Tourism and Culture.
|
About the National Mission for Manuscripts (NMM):
| Aims and Objectives |
- To document, conserve, digitize, and disseminate India’s manuscript heritage.
- Set up over 100 Manuscripts Resource Centres and Manuscripts Conservation Centres across India.
- Manuscripts are often on materials like paper, bark, cloth, metal, or palm leaf, and are at least 75 years old, with significant scientific, historical, or aesthetic value.
- India has an estimated 10 million manuscripts covering various themes, languages, scripts, and illustrations.
- Manuscripts primarily contain knowledge content, unlike historical records.
- 80% of manuscripts are privately owned, limiting public availability.
|
|
| Structural Mandate |
- Formed in 2003 by the Ministry of Tourism and Culture.
- Managed by the National Archives of India.
- Currently operates as part of the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts.
|
| Features and Programs under the Mission |
- Documented metadata for 5.2 million manuscripts and digitized 300,000 titles, though only a third of them have been uploaded.
- Only 70,000 of the 130,000 manuscripts uploaded are accessible for viewing due to the absence of an access policy.
- Preventive and curative conservation of 9 crore folios has been conducted over 21 years.
|
PYQ:
[2008] Recently, the manuscripts of which one of the following have been included in the UNESCO’s Memory of World Register?
(a) Abhidhamma Pitaka
(b) Mahabharata
(c) Ramayana
(d) Rig-Veda |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: National Food Security Act, 2013
Why in the News?
The Supreme Court remarked that a long-term solution to food security issues is generating employment, while advocate Prashant Bhushan pointed out that the National Food Security Act (NFSA) still relies on 2011 census data.
About National Food Security Act, 2013:
|
Details |
| Launch |
- NFSA was signed into law on 12th September 2013, with retroactive effect from 5th July 2013.
- It aims to provide subsidized food grains to approximately 2/3rd of India’s population.
|
| Aims and Objectives |
- Provide subsidized food grains to 2/3rd of India’s population, covering about 75% of rural and 50% of urban areas.
- Converts food security programs into legal entitlements.
- Recognizes maternity entitlements for pregnant women, lactating mothers, and children.
|
| Structural Mandate |
- Central Government directs states to implement the provisions of the Act (Section 38).
- Mandates that the subsidized prices remain fixed for 3 years (with no revision yet).
- Ensures that eligible households have a legal right to food grains at subsidized rates under the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS).
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| Features and Programs |
- PDS provides 5 kg/person/month: Rice (₹3/kg), Wheat (₹2/kg), Coarse grains (₹1/kg).
- Eldest woman (18 years or above) in the household is considered the head of the family for issuing ration cards.
- Provides free meals to pregnant women, lactating mothers, and children aged 6 months to 14 years under ICDS and mid-day meal schemes.
- Ensures pregnant and lactating women receive a ₹6,000 cash benefit, payable in installments.
- Midday Meal and ICDS are universal, and PDS reaches 75% of rural and 50% of urban populations.
- Priority Households get 5 kg of food grains per person per month, and Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) households get 35 kg per month.
|
Why figures from 2011 Census still drive it?
- Data Discrepancy: The 2021 census is getting extensions indiscriminately. It would have identified additional beneficiaries, possibly up to 10 crore more people.
- Ration Card Issue: Many migrant workers had still not received ration cards, despite several court orders.
- Logistical and Administrative Constraints: Updating census-based allocations requires substantial administrative coordination and a shift in policy across the Centre and States.
PYQ:
[2018] With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements:
- The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidised food grains.
- The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
- Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a ‘take-home ration’ of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: CCEA, ECTA
Why in the News?
A stocktake visit for the India-Australia Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) recently concluded in New Delhi.
Key Takeaways from the Meet
- The discussions covered a wide range of critical aspects of the CECA, including:
- Trade in goods and services
- Mobility and agri-tech cooperation
- Market access modalities that align with India’s food security objectives.
- Both sides emphasized their shared commitment to ensuring that the CECA produces meaningful benefits and delivers a balanced outcome for both nations.
- The discussions have opened up pathways for enhanced collaboration in areas such as agricultural innovation, market access, and supply chain resilience.
About India-Australia CCEA Negotiations:
- CECA is a comprehensive trade agreement between India and Australia.
- More comprehensive than the earlier India-Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA) , which is a limited trade agreement in force since December 2022.
- Negotiations for CECA began in May 2011, suspended in 2016, and re-launched in 2021 after concluding the ECTA.
- So far 10 rounds of negotiations have taken place.
Key Features of CECA:
- Covers goods, services, digital trade, government procurement, and Rules of Origin/Product-Specific Rules Schedule.
- New areas: competition policy, MSMEs, innovation, agri-tech, critical minerals, sports.
India-AU Trade Statistics:
- 2023-24:
- India’s imports from Australia fell by 15% to USD 16.15 billion.
- India’s exports to Australia rose by 14.23% to USD 7.94 billion.
Australia is India’s 13th largest export destination and 14th largest import source. |
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PYQ:
[2017] ‘Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and:
(a) European Union
(b) Gulf Cooperation Council
(c) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
(d) Shanghai Cooperation Organization |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Emissions Gap Report 2024; Important Highlights
Mains level: Climate change; Pollution; Global Climate Goals;
Why in the News?
According to the recently released ‘Emission Gap Report 2024’ presented by UNEP, Global Greenhouse Gas (GHG) emissions have reached a new high of 57.1 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent in 2023, a 1.3% rise compared to 2022.
What are the key points of Emissions Gap Report 2024?
- Urgent Emission Reduction Targets: To align with the 1.5°C goal of the Paris Agreement, global greenhouse gas emissions must decrease by 42% by 2030 and 57% by 2035 compared to 2019 levels.
- For a 2°C target, reductions of 28% by 2030 and 37% by 2035 are necessary. Current commitments and policies are insufficient, putting the world on track for a temperature rise of 2.6-3.1°C, which would lead to severe climate impacts.
- Potential for Significant Reductions: The report highlights that it is still technically feasible to achieve the 1.5°C pathway through aggressive action, including increased deployment of renewable energy sources like solar and wind, which could contribute 27% of the necessary reductions by 2030 and 38% by 2035.
- Additionally, actions related to forests could provide around 20% of the potential reductions in both years. A comprehensive approach involving government action, investment in mitigation strategies, and international cooperation is essential to realize these opportunities.
What are the Global Emission trends?
- Global greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions have continued to rise, reaching a record high of 57.1 gigatons of carbon dioxide equivalent in 2023. This marks an increase from previous years, with fossil fuel CO₂ emissions projected at 37.4 billion tonnes, up 0.8% from 2023, and total CO₂ emissions—including land-use changes—projected to be 41.6 billion tonnes in 2024.
- The increase is attributed primarily to rising emissions from major economies such as China and India, with India experiencing the largest relative increase at 6.1% and China contributing the most in absolute terms.
- The overall trend indicates that despite some positive developments in renewable energy adoption, there is no sign that global fossil fuel emissions have peaked, necessitating immediate and substantial reductions to meet climate targets.
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What is the progress of G20 countries towards NDCs?
- Mixed Progress on NDCs: Among G20 countries, six members (China, India, Indonesia, Japan, Russia, and Turkey) are projected to meet their unconditional Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) targets with current policies.
- However, eight members (Argentina, Australia, Canada, the EU, South Korea, South Africa, and the United States) require further action to achieve their targets.
- This indicates a significant disparity in progress across different G20 nations, with many needing to be on track to meet their commitments under the Paris Agreement.
- Need for Enhanced Ambition: The G20 must significantly ramp up its climate ambitions in the next round of NDCs to align with the goals of limiting global warming to 1.5°C. This includes committing to substantial emissions reductions—42% by 2030 and 57% by 2035.
What is the NCD target?
- Collective Emission Reduction Goals: G20 countries have pledged to reduce greenhouse gas emissions through Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs), targeting a 42% reduction by 2030 and 57% by 2035, aligned with the Paris Agreement to limit warming below 2°C.
- Diverse Member Targets and Progress: G20 members have varied NDC targets, such as China aiming to peak CO2 emissions by 2030 with a 60-65% reduction in carbon intensity, while Argentina caps net emissions at 483 million tons of CO2 equivalent.
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What is needed to bridge the gap between 2030 and 2035 goals? (Way forward)
- Significant Annual Emission Reductions: A reduction of 7.5% per year until 2035 is necessary to align with the 1.5°C pathway, while a 4% annual reduction is needed for the 2°C target.
- Investment in Renewable Energy: The increased deployment of solar and wind technologies could deliver approximately 27% of the total emission reduction potential by 2030 and 38% by 2035.
- Action on Forests: Protecting and restoring forests could provide around 20% of the required reductions in both years.
- Comprehensive Policy Measures: A whole-of-government approach is essential, maximizing socioeconomic and environmental co-benefits while minimizing trade-offs.
- Increased Mitigation Investment: A minimum six-fold increase in investments for climate mitigation is critical, necessitating reforms in global financial systems and strong private sector involvement.
Mains PYQ:
Q Discuss global warming and mention its effects on the global climate. Explain the control measures to bring down the level of greenhouse gases that cause global warming, in the light of the Kyoto Protocol, 1997. (UPSC IAS/2022)
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Good Governance Week
Why in the News?
“Prashasan Gaon Ki Ore” a nationwide campaign is launched by the Government of India, from December 19–24, 2024, as part of the 4th Good Governance Week.
About the Nationwide Campaign ‘Prashasan Gaon Ki Ore’
- It is a nationwide campaign to address public grievances and improve service delivery across rural and urban areas.
- It aims to strengthen governance at the grassroots level and bring effective solutions to the common people.
- It will be conducted in all districts, states, and union territories of India, with a focus on delivering timely solutions and improving the quality of services provided to citizens.
- Key objectives of the campaign include:
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- Redressing Public Grievances: Ensuring that citizens’ complaints related to government services are resolved swiftly.
- Improving Service Delivery: Enhancing the efficiency of government services at the local level.
- Creating Awareness: Spreading knowledge about good governance practices and encouraging citizens to be proactive in using available services.
Key Observations from the Good Governance Index (GGI) 2022
- The GGI, 2022 evaluates 58 indicators across 10 governance sectors, such as agriculture and allied sectors, human resource development, public health, and law and order, among others. The key observations are as follows:
- Top Performers: Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Maharashtra ranked highest for good governance, excelling in public health, human resources, and economic governance.
- Service Delivery: States like Tamil Nadu and Kerala were praised for transparency, accountability, and citizen-focused policies, leading in service delivery.
- Agriculture & Rural Development: Uttar Pradesh and Bihar showed improvements in agriculture and rural development, aligning with the goals of Prashasan Gaon Ki Ore.
- Health & Education: Kerala and Tamil Nadu excelled in healthcare and education, with significant investments in infrastructure and public schemes.
- Sustainable Development: States like Sikkim emphasized environmental governance and sustainable development practices.
PYQ:
[2016] What do you understand by the terms ‘governance’, ‘good governance’ and ‘ethical governance’? (150 words) |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Eurasian Little Gull
Why in the News?
For the first time, the Eurasian Little Gull was spotted in the National Capital Region (NCR) near Sultanpur National Park at Chandu.
About the Eurasian Little Gull:
|
Details |
| Overview and Physical Characteristics |
- Scientific Name: Larus minutus
- Common Name: Eurasian Little Gull
- Size: 30-33 cm in length, wingspan 75-85 cm; Weight: 70–150 grams
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| Habitat and Features |
- Breeding Habitat: Marshy wetlands, shallow freshwater lakes, and estuaries in Northern Eurasia (Russia, Eastern Europe).
- Winter Migration: Offshore waters, coastal areas, and estuaries around the Mediterranean Sea, Black Sea, and Caspian Sea.
- Migratory Pattern: Migrations from northern breeding grounds to warmer regions in winter.
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| Conservation Status |
- Conservation Status: Classified as Least Concern by the IUCN Red List.
- Rare sightings of the species in India, particularly inland regions like NCR.
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PYQ:
[2020] With reference to India’s biodiversity Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-chinned minivet and White-throated redstart are-
(a) Birds
(b) Primates
(c) Reptiles
(d) Amphibians |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: World Meditation Day
Why in the News?
India has played a leading role in co-sponsoring and guiding the unanimous adoption of a UN General Assembly draft resolution to declare December 21 as World Meditation Day.
- The theme for 2024 is- “Inner Peace, Global Harmony”.
About the World Meditation Day
- It is a global observance that was officially recognized following the adoption of a UN General Assembly resolution on December 6, 2024. However, the 21st of December has been designated as the date for this annual observance.
- It is also symbolic, of falling on the Winter Solstice (December 21), which is associated with new beginnings, reflection, and spiritual growth in Indian tradition.
- The date is also exactly six months after the International Day of Yoga on June 21, which marks the Summer Solstice.
The objective behind this Decision
- Promote Well-Being: To globally encourage meditation for enhancing mental health and overall wellness.
- Encourage Inner Reflection: Recognizing December 21 as a time for self-reflection and meditation, especially during Uttarayana in Indian tradition.
- India’s Global Leadership: Reinforces India’s commitment to global wellness, following its leadership in declaring International Day of Yoga.
PYQ:
[2012] With reference to the religious history of medieval India, the Sufi mystics were known to pursue which of the following practices?
1. Meditation and control of breath
2. Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place
3. Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of ecstasy in their audience
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Turner Prize
Why in the News?
- Jasleen Kaur, an Indian-origin artist, was awarded the Turner Prize for her exhibit that pays tribute to her family’s history of migration to Scotland.
What is the Turner Prize?
| About |
- Named after JMW Turner (1775-1851), known for his dramatic seascapes and innovative use of color and light, it was first awarded in 1984 by Patrons of New Art.
- It aims to promote interest in contemporary art and assist the Tate Gallery in acquiring new works.
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| What makes it special? |
- One of the most prestigious awards in contemporary art, awarded annually by the Tate Gallery to an outstanding British artist.
- Spotlights new talent and helps lesser-known artists gain international recognition.
- The winner receives £25,000, and shortlisted artists receive £10,000 each.
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| Significance in British Culture |
- A major cultural event in the UK, attracting wide media coverage and public attention.
- Its controversial nature fuels discussions about the definition of art and the role of contemporary artists.
- Winning the Prize often defines an artist’s place in British culture, establishing them as a significant figure in the art world.
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: CAR-T Cell Therapy
Why in the News?
The Department of Biotechnology (DBT) has been a key supporter of research projects focusing on CAR T-cell therapies for cancers.
About CAR T-Cell Therapy:
| What is it? |
- Acronym for Chimeric Antigen Receptor T–Cell Therapy;
- Innovative immunotherapy in which T-cells (a type of white blood cell) are genetically modified to express a receptor (CAR) that targets specific proteins on cancer cells.
- T-cells are part of the immune system and help identify and eliminate infected or cancerous cells.
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| Objective of the Therapy |
- To treat blood cancers, especially B Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (B-ALL) and Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (B-NHL).
- Aimed at patients whose disease relapsed or was resistant to conventional treatments (chemotherapy, radiation).
- Specifically targets CD19, a protein found on the surface of B-cells, which includes cancerous B-cells.
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| Implementation and Structural Mandate |
- Developed jointly by Indian Institute of Technology (IIT-Bombay) and Tata Memorial Center (TMC), Mumbai since 2015.
- Approved by DCGI (Drug Controller General of India) in March 2021 for Phase 1 trials in children and adults with relapsed B-ALL and B-NHL.
- Supported by academic grants from Department of Biotechnology and government agencies.
- Trials were conducted at Tata Memorial Center (TMC), and other hospitals.
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| Future Scope for Phase II |
- Phase 1 Trials: Conducted from 2021 to 2023 on children and adolescents with B-ALL and adults with B-NHL, with promising results matching international standards in terms of efficacy and safety.
- Phase 2 Trials: Have been approved and are currently ongoing. These trials will expand on the efficacy and long-term safety of the therapy, including larger cohorts of patients.
Future Scope: Holds the potential for expanding to other cancers, such as Multiple Myeloma, Glioblastoma, and Hepatocellular Carcinomas, based on continued research and results from Phase II trials. |
PYQ:
[2022] Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body?
(a) They protect the environmental allergens body.
(b) They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation.
(c) They act as immuno-suppressants in the body.
(d) They protect the body from diseases caused by pathogens. |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: National TB Elimination Programme (NTEP)
Why in the News?
The Union Ministry of Health has re-strategized the National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP) under the 100-Day TB Elimination Campaign to reduce TB cases and mortality through targeted interventions and a multi-pronged approach.
Menace of TB in India:
- According to the World Health Organization (WHO), India accounted for 26% of global TB cases and deaths in 2023.
- The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) conducted a National TB Prevalence Survey in 20 states, reporting 312 TB cases per lakh population.
- The TB incidence rate decreased by 17.7%, from 237 per 100,000 in 2015 to 195 per 100,000 in 2023.
- Similarly, TB-related deaths have declined by 21.4%, from 28 per lakh population in 2015 to 22 per lakh population in 2023.
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About the National TB Elimination Programme (NTEP):
|
Details |
| About |
- Former Name: Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme (RNTCP)
- Objective: To eliminate tuberculosis (TB) as a public health issue in India by 2025, as per PM Modi’s 2018 target.
- Focus Areas: Early detection, complete treatment, prevention, and strengthening TB care and control services.
Key Components of NTEP:
- Universal Drug Susceptibility Testing (UDST): Early detection of drug-resistant TB.
- Free Diagnosis and Treatment: Provided for all TB patients across India.
- Nikshay: A case-based web-enabled TB information system for monitoring and case management.
- Private Sector Engagement: Involving private healthcare providers for standardized care.
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| Objectives under the National Strategic Plan |
100-Day TB Elimination Campaign is an intensified effort launched to fast-track the detection and treatment of tuberculosis (TB) cases across the country.
- Eliminate TB as a public health problem by 2025.
- Achieve Universal Access to quality TB care.
- Prevent the emergence of drug-resistant TB through early diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
- Reduce the burden of TB through preventive interventions and awareness campaigns.
- Ensure better case management through Nikshay, a case-based monitoring system.
- 6. Engage with the private sector to ensure standardized and quality TB care.
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| Steps taken by Govt |
- Universal Drug Susceptibility Testing (UDST): Early detection of drug-resistant TB.
- Free Diagnosis and Treatment: Provided for all TB patients.
- Nikshay System: Web-enabled case-based monitoring and management system for TB patients.
- Private Sector Engagement: Ensuring standardized TB care by involving private healthcare providers.
- National TB Prevalence Survey: Conducted to assess the TB burden in 20 states.
- Enhanced Diagnostic Facilities: Including genetic and molecular tests for early detection.
- Targeted Interventions for Vulnerable Populations: Focus on high-risk groups, including children and marginalized populations.
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: INS TUSHIL
Why in the News?
INS Tushil, a multi-role stealth guided missile frigate, is set to be commissioned by the Indian Navy at Kaliningrad, Russia.
About INS Tushil:
| Details |
- INS Tushil is a multi-role stealth guided missile frigate, part of the Krivak III class (Project 1135.6).
- It is the seventh in the series of Krivak III frigates, following the Talwar-class ships (three built at Baltiysky Shipyard in St. Petersburg) and the Teg-class ships (three built at Yantar Shipyard in Kaliningrad).
Development of INS Tushil:
- Built at Yantar Shipyard in Kaliningrad, Russia.
- Contract signed in Oct 2016 between Indian Navy, JSC Rosoboronexport, and Government of India.
- Indian team of specialists from the Warship Overseeing Team monitored the construction.
- Extensive trials, including Factory Sea Trials, State Committee Trials, and Delivery Acceptance Trials, were conducted in 2024.
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| Special Features |
- Speed of over 30 knots
- Stealth design with advanced radar-absorbing features.
- Equipped with guided missiles, advanced weapon systems, and radars.
- Enhanced combat capabilities with a focus on anti-surface and anti-air warfare.
- Helicopter deck for operations.
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| Significance |
- Boosts India’s naval capabilities in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
- Part of an ongoing effort to modernize the fleet with advanced technologies.
- Strengthens India-Russia defence ties.
- Will be key in maritime security and regional defense, especially in contested waters.
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