Innovations in Biotechnology and Medical Sciences

Discovery of Amino Acid unveils How Light makes Stomata Open in Plants

Why in the news?

Scientists from Nagoya University have made a discovery about the regulation of Stomatal opening in plants, a process vital for efficient photosynthesis by a type of amino acid threonine (Thr881).

What are Stomatal Openings?

  • Stomata are microscopic pores on plant leaves crucial for gas exchange.
  • They particularly uptake carbon dioxide necessary for photosynthesis.

How does Light make Stomata Open?

  • Research unveiled a novel regulatory mechanism involving the phosphorylation of the 881st threonine residue (Thr881) of the plasma membrane proton pump in response to red and blue light.
  • Phosphorylation, a process involving the addition or removal of a phosphate group from amino acids, acts as a regulatory switch, influencing protein structure and function.
  • The researchers focused on the phosphorylation of Thr881 and its role in stomatal opening.
  • They observed phosphorylation in response to both red and blue light conditions, highlighting the interplay between photosynthesis and light signaling.

Significance of Thr881 Phosphorylation

  • Mutant studies confirmed the critical role of Thr881 phosphorylation in stomatal opening.
  • Plants expressing a mutant proton pump lacking Thr881 phosphorylation exhibited reduced stomatal aperture and transpiration rates, emphasizing the regulatory significance of this amino acid residue.
  • The study identified Thr881, along with Thr948, as crucial phosphorylation sites for the activation of the enzyme H+-ATPase, essential for stomatal opening.
  • Manipulating Thr881 could offer avenues for promoting plant growth, enhancing carbon dioxide absorption, and reducing fertilizer usage.

PYQ:

2014: Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?

a)    Potential energy is released to form free energy

b)    Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored

c)    Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide and water

d)    Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapour are given out

 

Practice MCQ:

What is the significance of phosphorylation of the threonine residue (Thr881) in the context of plants?

a)    It helps in reducing carbon dioxide uptake and photosynthesis efficiency.

b)    It enhances photosynthesis in dark conditions.

c)    It reduces transpiration leading to enhanced water conservation.

d)    It is essential for regulating stomatal aperture and facilitating gas exchange in plants.

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Capital Markets: Challenges and Developments

T + 0 Settlement System kick starts today

Note4Students

From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :

Prelims level: T+0 Settlement Cycle

Mains level: NA

Why in the news?

India’s stock market will begin the with a ‘beta version’ of T+0 settlement system (same day settlement) from today. This is the world’s fastest stock settlement system.

About T+0 Settlement Cycle

  • SEBI has planned to introduce the shorter cycle in two phases:
  1. T+0 Settlement Details: In Phase 1, trades executed until 1:30 PM will be settled by 4:30 PM on the same day.
  2. Instant Settlement Mechanics: Phase 2 envisages immediate trade-by-trade settlement, with trading continuing until 3:30 PM.

Features of the T+0 Settlement Mechanism

  • Early Pay-In Trend: A large percentage of retail investors already make early pay-ins of funds and securities, indicating readiness for instant settlement.
  • Instant Receipt Benefits: The mechanism enables instant receipt of funds and securities, reducing settlement shortages and enhancing investor control.
  • Investor Protection: Direct crediting of funds and securities into investors’ accounts, especially for UPI clients, strengthens investor protection.

Settlement Cycle: A Quick History  

 

  • SEBI shortened the settlement cycle from T+5 to T+3 in 2002, and then to T+2 in 2003.
  • The T+1 cycle was introduced in 2021 and fully implemented by January 2023.
  • In T+1, the settlement of funds and securities occurs on the next day after the trade.

Scope and Implementation of T+0

  • Initially, the T+0 settlement will be available for the top 500 listed equity shares based on market capitalization, implemented in three tranches.
  • The same surveillance measures applicable in the T+1 cycle will apply to the T+0 cycle.
  • Trade-for-trade settlement securities will NOT be eligible for T+0.

Rationale behind T+O Cycle

  • Market Growth and Efficiency: With the significant growth in market volumes and participants, SEBI aims to enhance market efficiency and safety, especially for retail investors.
  • Technological Advancements: The evolution of payment systems like UPI and the sophistication of market infrastructure support the feasibility of shorter settlement cycles.
  • Investor Attraction: Faster transactions, reliability, and low costs are key factors that attract investors, making Indian securities a more appealing asset class.

Benefits of the New Mechanism

  • Flexibility for Clients: The new mechanism offers faster payouts of funds to sellers and securities to buyers, providing greater flexibility and control.
  • Market Ecosystem Advantages: The faster settlement cycle is expected to enhance the operational efficiency of the securities market, benefiting the entire ecosystem.

 

PYQ:

2017: The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in the news refers to

a)    ASEAN

b)    BRICS

c)    EU

d)    G20

 

Practice MCQ:

With reference to the T+0 Settlement Cycle, consider the following statements:

1.    Trades executed until 1:30 PM will be settled by 4:30 PM on the same day.

2.    Trade-for-trade settlement securities will also be eligible for T+0.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

a)    Only 1

b)    Only 2

c)    Both 1 and 2

d)    Neither 1 nor 2

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International Space Agencies – Missions and Discoveries

Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO) discovers 5000th Comet

Note4Students

From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :

Prelims level: Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO)

Mains level: NA

Why in the news?

A Czech citizen has spotted a comet in an image from the Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO) spacecraft, which has now been confirmed to be the 5,000th comet discovered using SOHO data.

Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO)

  • The SOHO is a spacecraft jointly operated by the European Space Agency (ESA) and NASA.
  • Launched in December 1995, its primary mission is to study the Sun, particularly its outer atmosphere, known as the corona, and the solar wind.
  • SOHO observes the Sun in various wavelengths of light, enabling scientists to study phenomena such as sunspots, solar flares, and coronal mass ejections.
  • SOHO orbits the Sun at Lagrange Point L1, about 1.5 million kilometers (nearly 1 million miles) from Earth, providing an uninterrupted view of the Sun.
  • Its observations have led to discoveries such as-
  1. Identifying the source regions of solar wind,
  2. Tracking solar eruptions, and
  3. Monitoring changes in the Sun’s activity over its 11-year solar cycle.

 

What are Lagrange Points?

  • Lagrange Points are named after the French mathematician Joseph-Louis Lagrange who discovered them in 1772.
  • They are specific points in space where the gravitational forces of two large bodies, such as the Earth and the Sun, or the Earth and the Moon, balance the centrifugal force felt by a smaller body.
  • These points are stable locations where objects can maintain their relative positions concerning the larger bodies, without drifting away or falling towards them.

There are five Lagrange Points, denoted as L1, L2, L3, L4, and L5:

  1. L1: Located on the line connecting the two large bodies and closer to the smaller body, L1 is particularly useful for space observatories like the Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO) because it provides an unobstructed view of the Sun from Earth’s perspective.
  2. L2: Situated on the opposite side of the smaller body from the larger one, L2 is an excellent location for deep space observatories such as the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) because it remains relatively shielded from solar interference.
  3. L3: Located on the line connecting the two large bodies but on the opposite side of the larger body from the smaller one, L3 is less stable and less frequently used than the other Lagrange Points.
  4. L4 and L5: These points form equilateral triangles with the two large bodies, with the smaller body at the third vertex. L4 precedes the smaller body in its orbit, while L5 follows it. These points are stable and have been found to accumulate natural objects, such as asteroids, known as Trojan asteroids.

 

PYQ:

2013: Consider the following phenomena:

1. Size of the sun at dusk

2. Colure of the sun at dawn

3. Moon being visible at dawn

4. Twinkle of stars in the sky

5. Polestar being visible in the sky

Which of the above are optical illusions?

a)    1, 2 and 3

b)    3, 4 and 5

c)    1, 2 and 4

d)    2, 3 and 5

 

Practice MCQ:

Regarding the Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO), consider the following statement:

1.    SOHO spacecraft was launched in December 1995.

2.    It is jointly operated by the European Space Agency (ESA) and NASA.

3.    It orbits the Earth in sun-synchronous orbit.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

a)    One

b)    Two

c)    Three

d)    None

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Festivals, Dances, Theatre, Literature, Art in News

Artform in news: Mohiniyattam Danceform

Note4Students

From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :

Prelims level: Mohiniyattam and its features

Mains level: NA

Why in the news?

The Kerala Kalamandalam, a deemed university for arts and culture, has unanimously lifted gender restrictions allowing boys for learning Mohiniyattam, a classical dance form.

About Mohiniyattam

Description
Name Meaning Mohini – female enchantress avatar of Vishnu;

Aattam – rhythmic motion or dance (Malayalam)

Roots Natya Shastra, ancient Hindu Sanskrit text on performance arts
Style Lasya Style – delicate, eros-filled, and feminine
Performers Traditionally women, but men also perform in contemporary times
Music Includes Carnatic music, singing, and enactment of plays through dance
Language Manipravalam : a Malayalam-Sanskrit hybrid
Posture Parted feet, gentle swaying of body, soft footwork synchronized with music beats
Gestures Follow the classical text of Hastha Lakshanadeepika with elaborate mudras (hand gestures)
Costumes Plain white or off-white sarees with golden brocade, pleated sheets for freedom of movement, adorned with jewellery
Accessories Jewellery on fingers, wrists, neck, and ears, ankle bells (for female performers), dhotis and similar accessories (for male performers)
Makeup Natural with brilliant red lips, tikka (Gobi) on forehead, lined eyes
Music Various rhythms and compositions in Manipravalam, accompanied by instruments like Mridangam, Idakka, flute, Veena, and Kuzhitalam
Ragas Rendered in the Sopana Style, a slow melodic style rooted in the Natya Shastra

 

 


PYQ:

2012: How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dances?

  1. Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found in Kuchipudi dance but not in Bharatanatyam.
  2. Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of Bharatanatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of movements.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Practice MCQ:

Which of the following statements about Mohiniyattam is not true?

  1. Mohiniyattam derives its name from “Mohini,” the female enchantress avatar of Vishnu, and “Aattam,” meaning rhythmic motion or dance in Malayalam.
  2. Its roots can be traced back to the Natya Shastra, an ancient Hindu Sanskrit text on performance arts.
  3. Mohiniyattam is characterized by the Tandava style, known for its vigorous movements.
  4. Performances of Mohiniyattam typically include enactment of plays through dance, accompanied by singing and Carnatic music.

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Historical and Archaeological Findings in News

50,000-year-old Magnetic Fossils found in Bay of Bengal

Note4Students

From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :

Prelims level: Magnetofossils, Magnetotactic bacteria

Mains level: NA

What is the news?

Scientists from the CSIR-National Institute of Oceanography, Goa have found in the Bay of Bengal a 50,000-year-old sediment containing giant magnetofossils, shedding light on ancient geological conditions.

What are Magnetofossils?

  • Magnetofossils are fossilized magnetic particles created by magnetotactic bacteria, aiding scientists in understanding past environmental conditions.
  • Described initially in the 1960s and 1970s, magnetotactic bacteria utilize iron-rich minerals to navigate the Earth’s magnetic field, leaving behind distinctive fossil remnants.
  • These unique creatures were first described in 1963, by Salvatore Bellini, an Italian doctor and then again in 1975 by Richard Blakemore of the Woods Hole Oceanographic Institution, Woods Hole, Massachusetts.
  • These organisms were believed to follow the magnetic field to reach places that had optimal oxygen concentration.
  • Using an electron microscope, Blakemore found the bacteria contained “novel structured particles, rich in iron” in small sacs that essentially worked as a compass.
  • These magnetotactic bacteria create tiny crystals made of the iron-rich minerals magnetite or greigite, aiding them in navigating changing oxygen levels in the water body they reside in.

Special Attributes of Bay of Bengal Sediment

  • Previous studies on magnetofossils often ascertained their origins to be hyperthermal vents, comet impacts, changes in oceanic ventilation, weathering or the presence of oxygen-poor regions.
  • Sediments deposited at the core site originate from the Godavari, Krishna, and Penner Rivers, highlighted on the map.

Findings of the Study

  • Scientific Approach: In the study, combined magnetic analyses and electron microscopy to study the sediment sample.
  • Sediment Characteristics: The three-metre-long sediment core from the southwestern Bay of Bengal consisted mainly of “pale green silty clays,” they wrote in their paper. They also reported finding abundant benthic and planktic foraminifera — single-celled organisms with shells found near the sea bed and free-floating in water.
  • Microscopic Revelations: High-resolution transmission electron microscopy revealed the fossil to be in the shape of needles, spindles, bullets, and spearheads.
  • Environmental Insights: Earlier, studies of sediments suggested that nearly 29,000 to 11,700 years ago, during the last Glacial Maximum-Holocene period, the northeast and southwest monsoon strengthened and resulted in significant weathering and sedimentation.

 


PYQ:

Consider the following kinds of organisms:

  1. Copepods
  2. Cyanobacteria
  3. Diatoms
  4. Foraminifera

Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 3 and 4
  4. 1 and 4

Practice MCQ:

Which of the following statements is correct about the ‘Magnetofossils’?

  1. They are fossilized magnetic particles created by magnetotactic bacteria.
  2. They follow the magnetic field to reach places that have optimal oxygen concentration.
  3. They are tiny crystals made of the iron-rich minerals magnetite or greigite.
  4. All of these.

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Historical and Archaeological Findings in News

Monuments of National Importance (MNI) and their Listing/De-Listing

Note4Students

From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :

Prelims level: Monuments of National Importance (MNI)

Mains level: NA

Why in the news?

  • The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) has decided to remove 18 “centrally protected monuments” from its list of Monuments of National Importance (MNI), citing a lack of national significance.
  • ASI currently has 3,693 monuments under its purview, which will fall to 3,675 once the current delisting exercise is completed in the next few weeks.

What are Monuments of National Importance (MNI)?

  • MNI in India are legally protected under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains (AMASR) Act, 1958.
  • This act empowers the Centre to declare certain monuments as MNIs through official notifications published in the Gazette of India.
  • It mandates the protection, preservation, and maintenance of MNIs to ensure their integrity and authenticity for future generations.
  • The Act empowers the central government to appoint authorities, such as the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), to oversee the protection and management of MNIs.

Key Features of MNI Protection

  • Prohibited Activities: The Act prohibits certain activities within the precincts of MNIs, such as construction, excavation, and removal of artifacts, without prior permission from the relevant authorities.
  • Designated Zones: Within a 100-meter radius of the monument, construction activities are prohibited to prevent encroachment and damage. An additional 200-meter radius (100 + 200 meters) constitutes a regulated area where construction is subject to specific regulations to maintain the monument’s integrity and surroundings.
  • Maintenance of Records: The Act requires the maintenance of records and registers documenting the history, conservation, and management of MNIs.

Understanding Monument Delisting

  • Once delisted, monuments are no longer subject to ASI conservation efforts, allowing for regular construction activities in the vicinity.
  • Section 35 of the AMASR Act allows for the delisting of monuments deemed to have lost national importance.
  • The delisting process involves official notifications, with a two-month public feedback period to address objections or suggestions.

 


PYQ:

2015: With reference to art and archaeological history of India, which one among the following was made earliest?

  1. Lingaraja Temple at Bhubaneswar
  2. Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli
  3. Rock-cut Monuments at Mahabalipuram
  4. Varaha Image at Udayagiri

 

Practice MCQ:

The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) has decided to remove 18 “centrally protected monuments”. This essentially implies:

  1. The site will no longer be conserved, protected, and maintained by the ASI.
  2. Activities related to construction and urbanisation in the area can be carried out in a regular manner.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

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Wildlife Conservation Efforts

Captive Elephant Transfer Rules, 2024

Note4Students

From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :

Prelims level: Captive Elephant Transfer Rules, 2024

Mains level: NA

What is the news?

  • The Union Environment Ministry has notified a set of rules called the Captive Elephant (Transfer or Transport) Rules, 2024.
  • Elephants, classified as Schedule I species under the Wildlife Protection Act, of 1972 enjoy special protection, but certain provisions allow for their translocation under specific circumstances.

Existing Regulations on Elephant Transfer

  • Legal Framework: The Wildlife Protection Act, of 1972 prohibits the capture or trade of elephants, whether wild or captive, without appropriate authorization.
  • Special Provisions: While strict regulations govern elephant transfer, exceptions exist for educational, scientific, or religious purposes, subject to approval from wildlife authorities.
  • Amendment: The Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Bill, 2022 expanded the scope of elephant transfers, raising concerns among activists about potential exploitation and illegal trafficking.

Captive Elephant Transfer Rules, 2024: Key Highlights

  1. Circumstances for the Transfer of Captive Elephants:

Transfer may be warranted under the following circumstances:

  • Incapability of the owner: When the owner is incapable of adequately ensuring the elephant’s welfare.
  • Superior Care: If it is determined that the elephant will receive superior care in the new environment compared to its current situation.
  • Improvised maintenance: The Chief Wildlife Warden may find it necessary to transfer the elephant for its improved maintenance based on the specific circumstances of the case.
  1. Transfer Within the State:
  • Veterinarian Check: Prior to any transfer within the state, a veterinarian must confirm the elephant’s health status.
  • New habitat verification: The suitability of both the current and prospective habitats must be assessed by the Deputy Conservator of Forests.
  • Chief Wildlife Warden’s Role: He/She holds the authority to approve or reject the transfer based on these evaluations.
  1. Transfer Outside the State:

Similar conditions apply for transferring elephants beyond state boundaries in addition to-

  • Genetic Profile Registration: Additionally, the elephant’s genetic profile must be registered with the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) before the transfer.
  1. Requirements for Elephant Transfer:
  • Accompanying the Master: The elephant must be accompanied by a mahout and an elephant assistant. Adequate provisions for feeding and watering must be arranged during transport.
  • Fitness Certificate: A health certificate issued by a veterinary practitioner confirming fitness for transport is obligatory.
  • Quarantine Mandate: Transport should commence after the completion of any required quarantine period for contagious diseases.
  • Refreshment: Tranquillisers or sedatives: This may be administered to manage nervous or temperamental elephants as prescribed by the veterinary practitioner.

 


PYQ:

2020: With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements:

  1. The leader of an elephant group is a female.
  2. The maximum gestation period can be 22 months.
  3. An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only.
  4. Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 4 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 3 and 4 only

 

Practice MCQ:

With reference to the Captive Elephant Transfer Rules, 2024 recently notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change of India (MoEFCC), consider the following statements:

  1. For transferring outside of a state, an elephant’s genetic profile must be registered with the Environment Ministry before the transfer.
  2. The authority to approve or reject the transfer vests with the Principal Chief Conservator of Forests.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

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Historical and Archaeological Findings in News

900-year-old Chalukyan Inscription discovered  

Note4Students

From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :

Prelims level: Kalyana Chalukya, their administration, arts, architecture etc.

Mains level: NA

What is the news?

A 900-year-old Kannada inscription from the Kalyana Chalukya dynasty has been discovered in a state of neglect at Gangapuram, a temple town in Jadcherla mandal, Mahabubnagar, Telangana.

  • The inscription dates back to June 8, 1134 CE (Friday) and was issued by the Customs Officers of Tailapa-III, son of Kalyana Chalukya Emperor ‘Bhulokamalla’ Someswara-III.
  • It records the remission of toll taxes for the perpetual lamp and incense of God Somanatha.

Who were the Chalukyas?

Origin and Expansion:

  • The Chalukyas emerged as a prominent dynasty in the 6th century CE, with their capital at Badami in present-day Karnataka.
  • Pulakeshin I, the founder of the dynasty, ascended to the throne around 543 CE and expanded the empire by defeating the Kadambas, Mauryas, and other neighboring kingdoms.
  • Pulakeshin II, one of the most illustrious rulers of the Chalukyan Empire, ascended the throne in 610 CE and significantly expanded its territory through military conquests and diplomatic alliances.
  • The empire reached its zenith under Pulakeshin II, extending its influence over large parts of Southern and Central India, including present-day Karnataka, Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Andhra Pradesh.

Dynastic Divisions:

  • The Chalukyan Empire witnessed the emergence of multiple dynastic branches, including the Badami Chalukyas, Western Chalukyas (also known as the Later Chalukyas), and Eastern Chalukyas (also known as the Chalukyas of Vengi).
  1. Badami Chalukyas ruled from their capital at Badami and were known for their contributions to art, architecture, and literature.
  2. Western Chalukyas, based in Kalyani (present-day Basavakalyan), continued the legacy of their predecessors and established their dominance over parts of present-day Karnataka and Maharashtra.
  3. Eastern Chalukyas, based in Vengi (present-day Andhra Pradesh), carved out their own kingdom and played a crucial role in the political dynamics of South India.

Religion and Faith:

  • The Chalukyas were patrons of art, literature, and architecture, fostering a rich cultural environment within their empire.
  • They promoted Hinduism as the dominant religion and contributed to the construction of numerous temples dedicated to Hindu deities, including the famous Virupaksha Temple at Pattadakal.
  • The Chalukyas also patronized Jainism and Buddhism, leading to the construction of Jain caves and monasteries in regions under their control.

Decline and Legacy:

  • The Chalukyan Empire faced internal conflicts, dynastic rivalries, and external invasions, leading to its gradual decline from the 12th century onwards.
  • The defeat of Vikramaditya VI by the Cholas in the 12th century marked the end of the Western Chalukya dynasty, while the Eastern Chalukyas continued to rule in Vengi until the 13th century.

Administration:

  • The empire was divided into administrative units known as ‘Rashtras or Mandalas’, each governed by a local administrative officer known as a ‘Mandaleshwara’.
  • At the higher levels of administration, provincial governors known asRashtrakutas’ were appointed to oversee multiple mandalas and report directly to the king.
  • Revenue administration played a crucial role in sustaining the empire, with land revenue being the primary source of income. The empire maintained a sophisticated system of land measurement and taxation to ensure a steady flow of revenue.

Arts and Culture:

  • Sculpture flourished under the patronage of the Chalukya rulers, with exquisite examples of stone carvings adorning temple complexes and royal monuments.
  • The famous Nataraja sculpture at Pattadakal, depicting Lord Shiva in his cosmic dance pose, is a masterpiece of Chalukyan art.
  • Pampa, a court poet of the Chalukyas, composed the epic poem “Vikramarjuna Vijaya” (also known as “Pampa Bharata” or “Pampa Ramayana”) in Kannada, narrating the story of the Mahabharata from the perspective of Arjuna.
  • The Chalukyan era witnessed the development of classical dance forms like Bharatanatyam, as evidenced by sculptures found in temples such as the Mallikarjuna Temple at Pattadakal.
  • Ranna, a prominent Kannada poet of the Chalukyan period, composed the “Ajita Tirthankara Purana,” an epic poem celebrating the lives of the Jain Tirthankaras.

Architecture:

  • Chalukyan temples are architectural marvels, characterized by their distinctive Dravidian and Nagara styles collectively called the ‘Gadag Style’ .
  • The Virupaksha Temple at Pattadakal, built by the Chalukyan king Vikramaditya II in the 8th century, is a UNESCO World Heritage Site renowned for its intricate carvings and towering gopurams (entrance gateways).
  • Similarly, the Durga Temple at Aihole, dating back to the 7th century, showcases exemplary Chalukyan architecture with its ornate pillars and sculpted panels depicting Hindu deities and mythological scenes.

 


PYQ:

2019: Building ‘Kalyaana Mandapas’ was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of

  1. Chalukya
  2. Chandela
  3. Rashtrakuta
  4. Vijayanagara

 

Practice MCQ:

The ‘Gadag Style’ of Temple Architecture is associated with which of the following dynasties?

  1. Chalukya
  2. Kakatiya
  3. Rashtrakuta
  4. Kadamba

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RBI Notifications

RBI Clampdown on Lenders could moderate Credit Growth in 2024-25

Note4Students

From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :

Prelims level: Laws governing Loans/Lending in India

Mains level: NA

What is the news?

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has undertaken rigorous regulatory actions to address lenders’ over-exuberance, enhance compliance culture, and protect customers.

RBI’s Regulatory Actions: An Overview

 

  • Recent Examples: Recent regulatory moves by the RBI, such as restraining lending by IIFL Finance and JM Financial Products, and implementing restrictions on customer onboarding at Paytm Payments Bank, mark a departure from historically nominal financial penalties.
  • Implications: S&P Global Ratings predicts that these actions will escalate the cost of capital and moderate loan growth in the fiscal year 2024-25, projecting a decrease from 16% to 14%.

 

How RBI regulates Lenders in India?

  1. Licensing and Regulation:
    • The Banking Regulation Act, 1949 empowers RBI to grant licenses to banks and regulate their operations.
    • Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) are regulated under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 and governed by guidelines issued by RBI under Section 45-IA of the RBI Act.
  2. Prudential Regulations:
    • RBI issues prudential regulations under various Acts, including the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 and the RBI Act, 1934.
    • These regulations include guidelines on capital adequacy (Basel III norms), asset classification, provisioning norms, liquidity management, exposure limits, and risk management practices.
    • Non-compliance with these regulations may attract penalties or other enforcement actions under the relevant Acts.
  3. Supervision and Monitoring:
    • RBI conducts supervision and monitoring of banks and NBFCs under Section 35A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 and Section 45L of the RBI Act, 1934.
    • It has the authority to conduct on-site inspections, off-site surveillance, and review financial reports to assess compliance with regulatory requirements.
    • RBI may issue directives, guidelines, or corrective actions under Section 35A and Section 45L to address deficiencies identified during supervision.
  4. Policy Framework:
    • Monetary policy frameworks are governed by the RBI Act, 1934 and the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934, which empower RBI to formulate and implement monetary policies.
    • RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) sets key policy rates such as the repo rate, reverse repo rate, and statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) to regulate credit flow, inflation, and overall economic conditions.
  5. Consumer Protection:
    • RBI issues guidelines under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 and the RBI Act, 1934 to ensure fair practices and consumer protection in banking and NBFC operations.
    • The Banking Ombudsman Scheme, 2006 provides a mechanism for redressal of customer grievances against banks.
    • Violations of consumer protection norms may result in penalties or enforcement actions under the relevant Acts.
  6. Financial Stability:
    • RBI’s mandate to maintain financial stability is enshrined in the RBI Act, 1934.
    • It monitors systemic risks, including interconnectedness among lenders, under Section 45J of the RBI Act, 1934, and takes measures to mitigate risks to financial stability.
    • RBI may intervene in the interest of financial stability under Section 45W of the RBI Act, 1934, to prevent disruptions to the functioning of the financial system.

 


PYQ:

2012: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers’ bank. This would imply which of the following?

  1. Banks retain their deposits with the RBI.
  2. The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need.
  3. The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 2 and 3 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

 

Practice MCQ:

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Payment Banks’ in India:

  1. Payment Banks have the authority to accept demand deposits but are prohibited from issuing credit cards, disbursing loans, offering mutual funds units, and providing insurance products.
  2. Unlike scheduled commercial banks, Payment Banks are exempted from the obligation to maintain a cash reserve ratio with the Reserve Bank.
  3. Payment Banks are mandated to invest a minimum of 75% of their demand deposit balances in Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) eligible Government securities/treasury bills.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. One
  2. Two
  3. Three
  4. None

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Disasters and Disaster Management – Sendai Framework, Floods, Cyclones, etc.

Karnataka approaches Supreme Court over NDRF Funds for Drought Management

Note4Students

From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :

Prelims level: National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF) and its management

Mains level: NA

What is the news?

  • The Karnataka government has approached the Supreme Court against the Union government, seeking the release of drought relief funds from the National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF).
  • This disagreement marks the second major dispute after alleged ‘injustice’ in tax devolution and other allocations.

Extent of Drought and Water Scarcity in Karnataka

  • Rainfall Deficit: During the last monsoon season, Karnataka experienced significant rainfall deficits, exacerbating the drought situation and affecting agricultural productivity.
  • Drought conditions: Karnataka faces extensive drought conditions, with 223 out of 236 taluks (mandals) declared as drought-hit areas, resulting in substantial crop loss.
  • Compensation Sought: The state has sought substantial financial assistance from the Centre, amounting to Rs 18,171 crores, to address the damages caused by drought.

Karnataka’s Writ Petition to the Supreme Court

 

  • Legal Action: Karnataka’s petition under Article 32 of the Constitution seeks relief against the Union government’s alleged inaction in providing financial assistance for drought management.
  • Basis of Petition: The petition argues that the delay in releasing funds violates fundamental rights guaranteed under Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution, pertaining to equality before the law and protection of life and personal liberty.

 

What is National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF)?

  • The NDRF is a statutory body constituted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
  • It supplements State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) of a State, in case of a disaster of severe nature, provided adequate funds are not available in SDRF.
  • The July 2015 guidelines states that natural calamities of cyclone, drought, earthquake, fire, flood, tsunami, hailstorm, landslide, avalanche, cloud burst, pest attack and cold wave and frost will qualify for immediate relief assistance from NDRF.
  • NDRF is managed in the “Public Accounts” under “Reserve Funds not bearing interest”.
  • The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) audits the accounts of NDRF.

Disaster Relief for Indian states

  • Under the 2005 Disaster Management Act, there is no definition of disasters.
  • It can include any event arising from natural or man-made causes that can severely disrupt life for people, going beyond their coping capacity.
  • The 15th Finance Commission introduced a new methodology for state-wise allocations, considering factors like past expenditure, risk exposure, hazard, and vulnerability.

Institutional Mechanism

  • States have the State Disaster Relief Funds (SDRF).
  • The Centre contributes 75% of the funds (and 90% for Himalayan and NE states) and states contribute the remainder.
  • The total amount is decided as part of the budgetary allocations and released periodically by the Centre.

In case a state needs the Centre’s assistance, it must follow a procedure:

  1. It should detail the extent of the damage in a memorandum and submit it
  2. If this is acknowledged by Centre, an Inter-Ministerial Central Team (IMCT) conducts on-ground inspections to survey the damage
  3. A National Executive Team analyses the IMCT report
  4. Based on its recommendations, a High Level Committee shall approve the release of immediate relief from NDRF.

Additionally, the Union Ministry of Home Affairs oversees the utilisation of NDRF releases.

 


PYQ:

2014: Drought has been recognized as a disaster in view of its spatial expanse, temporal duration, slow onset and lasting effects on vulnerable sections. With a focus on the September 2010 guidelines from the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), discuss the mechanisms for preparedness to deal with likely El Nino and La Nina fallouts in India.

 

Practice MCQ:

Consider the following statements about National Disaster response fund (NDRF):

  1. NDRF is a part of consolidated fund of India.
  2. Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) audits the accounts of NDRF.

Which among the above statements is/are correct?

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

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Digital India Initiatives

Krishi Integrated Command and Control Centre (ICCC)

Note4Students

From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :

Prelims level: Krishi ICCC

Mains level: NA

Why in the news?

Agriculture Minister has recently inaugurated the Krishi Integrated Command and Control Centre (ICCC) at Krishi Bhavan in New Delhi.

What is Krishi ICCC?

  • The ICCC incorporates multiple IT applications and platforms to provide actionable insights and aid informed decision-making.
  • 8 large LED screens display crucial information such as crop yields, production, drought situation, cropping patterns, and relevant trends in graphical format.
  • The dashboard offers insights, alerts, and feedback on agriculture schemes, programs, projects, and initiatives, empowering stakeholders with comprehensive information.

Data used by Krishi ICCC

The ICCC will enable comprehensive monitoring of the farm sector by making available at one place geospatial information received from multiple sources such as:

  1. Plot-level data received through Soil Survey;
  2. Weather data from the India Meteorological Department (IMD);
  3. Sowing data from Digital Crop Survey;
  4. Farmer- and farm-related data from Krishi MApper, an application for geo-fencing and geo-tagging of land;
  5. Market intelligence information from the Unified Portal for Agricultural Statistics (UPAg); and
  6. Yield estimation data from the General Crop Estimation Survey (GCES).

Objectives and Functionality

  • Comprehensive Monitoring: The ICCC aims to enable comprehensive monitoring of the farm sector by consolidating geospatial information from various sources, including remote sensing, weather data, soil surveys, and market intelligence.
  • Decision Support: Integrated visualization facilitates quick and efficient decision-making by policymakers and stakeholders, supported by real-time data and analysis.

Farmer-Specific Advisories and Practical Applications

  • Individual Farmer Advisories: The ICCC has the potential to generate individual farmer-specific advisories through apps like Kisan e-Mitra (a chatbot developed for PM-Kisan beneficiaries), leveraging AI and machine learning to customize recommendations based on farmer data.

Practical Applications:

    1. Farmer’s Advisory: Visualizations of GIS-based soil mapping, soil health card data, and weather-related information enable customized advisories on crop selection and agricultural practices.
    2. Drought Actions: Correlation of yield data with weather patterns allows proactive measures to mitigate the impact of droughts.
    3. Crop Diversification: Analysis of crop diversification maps helps identify regions suitable for diversified cropping, optimizing agricultural productivity.
    4. Farm Data Repository: The Krishi Decision Support System (K-DSS) acts as an agriculture data repository, facilitating evidence-based decision-making and the preparation of customized advisories for farmers.
    5. Validation of Yield: The ICCC enables the validation of yield data captured through different applications, ensuring accuracy and reliability.

 


PYQ:

2018: With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (CACSA)’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.
  2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
  3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

 

Practice MCQ:

What is the primary objective of the Krishi ICCC (Integrated Command and Control Centre)?

  1. To provide real-time market prices of agricultural products.
  2. To consolidate geospatial information from various sources for comprehensive monitoring of the farm sector.
  3. To offer financial support to farmers through direct benefit transfer schemes.
  4. To facilitate the construction of irrigation projects in rural areas.

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Agricultural Sector and Marketing Reforms – eNAM, Model APMC Act, Eco Survey Reco, etc.

Robusta Coffee price touches All-time High

Note4Students

From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :

Prelims level: Robusta, Arabica Variety

Mains level: NA

What is the news?

  • Robusta Coffee farmers in South India are celebrating as their produce fetches an all-time high price.
  • The farmgate price of raw Robusta coffee berries reached ₹172 per kilogram (kg) in the Wayanad market, a significant increase from ₹115 per kg last year.

Coffee Cultivation in India

  • The coffee cultivation in India began with the planting of 7 seeds of coffee during 1600 AD by saint Baba Budan, in the courtyard of his hermitage in Chikmagalur, Karnataka.
  • Commercial plantations of coffee started in the 18th century under British entrepreneurship.
  • Today, India is among the top 10 coffee-producing countries, with about 3% of the global output.

Major Varieties Cultivated

Characteristics Altitude Range Flavor Profile Popular Varieties Regions
Arabica Coffee Known for mild flavor, aromatic profile, and smooth taste. 800 – 1600 meters above sea level Mild, slightly sweeter, softer taste Kents, S.795, Cauvery, Chandragiri Coorg (Karnataka), Wayanad (Kerala), Nilgiris (Tamil Nadu), Chikmagalur (Karnataka)
Robusta Coffee Characterized by strong and bold flavor, higher caffeine content, and somewhat bitter taste. Sea level to about 800 meters Strong, bold, somewhat bitter S.274, CxR hybrids Chikmagalur (Karnataka), Coorg (Karnataka), Wayanad (Kerala), Araku Valley (Andhra Pradesh)
Liberica and Excelsa Less common varieties, with limited plantings in specific regions. Variable Variable Variable Limited plantings; sporadic regions

Agro-climatic conditions needed for Coffee:

  • Indian coffee has a unique position as it is shade-grown and grown at elevations, while other major producing countries grow coffee in flat lands.
  • It is a tropical plant which is also grown in semi-tropical climate.
  • 16° – 28°C temperature, 150-250cm rainfall and well-drained slopes are essential for its growth.
  • Low temperature, frost, dry weather for a long time and harsh sunshine are harmful for its plant.
  • Coffee plants grow better in the laterite soils of Karnataka in India.

Market Dynamics

  • Karnataka is the largest producer accounting for about 70% of the total coffee production in India.
  • It is followed by Kerala and Tamil Nadu. Orissa and the North-eastern areas have a smaller proportion of production.
  • Arabica has high market value than Robusta coffee due to its mild aromatic flavor.
  • The country exports over 70% of its production. According to The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), India is the eighth largest exporter of coffee by volume.
  • Indian coffee exports display a seasonality, with exports peaking from March to June.

Coffee Board of India

 

  • The Coffee Board of India is an organization managed by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry and was established in 1942.
  • It is headquartered in Bangalore.
  • The activities of the Board are broadly aimed at:
  1. Enhancement of production, productivity & quality;
  2. Export promotion for achieving higher value returns for Indian Coffee and
  3. Supporting development of Domestic market.
  • Until 1995 the Coffee Board marketed the coffee of a pooled supply.
  • Later, coffee marketing became a private-sector activity due to the economic liberalisation in India.
  • The Board comprises 33 members including the Chairman, who is the Chief Executive and appointed by the Government of India.

 

PYQ:

2010: Though coffee and tea both are cultivated on hill slopes, there is some difference between them regarding their cultivation. In this context, consider the following statements:

  1. Coffee plant requires a hot and humid climate of tropical areas whereas tea can be cultivated in both tropical and subtropical areas.
  2. Coffee is propagated by seeds but tea is propagated by stem cuttings only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Practice MCQ:

With reference to the Coffee Cultivation in India, consider the following statements:

  1. Kerala is the largest producer accounting for about 70% of the total coffee production in India.
  2. Robusta coffee has high market value than Arabica due to its mild aromatic flavor.
  3. Indian coffee exports display a perennial nature.

How many of the given statements is/are correct?

  1. One
  2. Two
  3. Three
  4. None

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Climate Change Impact on India and World – International Reports, Key Observations, etc.

Live Coral cover in Gulf of Mannar down to 27%

Note4Students

From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :

Prelims level: Corals, Coral bleaching, Gulf of Mannar

Mains level: NA

What is the news?

  • Rising sea temperatures have triggered severe bleaching events, leading to significant coral mortality in Gulf of Mannar.
  • Annual surveys show a decline in live coral cover from 37% in 2005 to 27.3% in 2021.

Corals in Gulf of Mannar

 

  • The Gulf of Mannar is a large shallow bay forming part of the Laccadive Sea in the Indian Ocean with an average depth of 5.8 m.
  • It lies between the southeastern tip of India and the west coast of Sri Lanka, in the Coromandel Coast region.
  • A significant portion of the Gulf of Mannar is designated as the Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park, established to protect its marine ecosystems, including coral reefs.
  • The park covers approximately 560 square kilometers and encompasses 21 islands and coral reefs.
  • Around 117 hard coral species have been recorded in the Gulf of Mannar.
  • Many islands, like Shingle, Krusadai, and Pullivasal, have witnessed substantial losses in coral cover.
  • For instance, Shingle Island suffered the most with the loss of 72% of its coral cover.

About Corals

  • Coral are made up of genetically identical organisms called polyps.
  • These polyps have microscopic algae called zooxanthellae living within their tissues in a mutualistic relationship.
  • The coral provides the zooxanthellae with the compounds necessary for photosynthesis.
  • In return, the zooxanthellae supply the coral with organic products of photosynthesis, like carbohydrates, which are utilized by the coral polyps for synthesis of their calcium carbonate skeletons.
  • Corals are marine invertebrates or animals which do not possess a spine.
  • They are the largest living structures on the planet.
  • Each coral is called a polyp and thousands of such polyps live together to form a colony, which grow when polyps multiply to make copies of themselves.
  • Coral reefs are also called the “rainforests of the seas”.

Types of Coral

Corals are of two types — hard corals and soft corals:

  1. Hard corals extract calcium carbonate from seawater to build hard, white coral exoskeletons. Hard corals are in a way the engineers of reef ecosystems and measuring the extent of hard coral is a widely-accepted metric for measuring the condition of coral reefs.
  2. Soft corals attach themselves to such skeletons and older skeletons built by their ancestors. Soft corals also add their own skeletons to the hard structure over the years. These growing multiplying structures gradually form coral reefs.

Conditions needed for Corals to Flourish

  • Extensive submarine platforms for the formation of colonies by the coral polyps (not more than 90m below sea level).
  • High mean annual temperature ranging 20-21 degree Celsius.
  • Clean sediment-free water because muddy water or turbid water clogs the mouths of coral polyps resulting into their death.
  • Oceanic salinity ranging between 27-30 ppt.
  • Ocean currents and waves, as they bring food supply for the polyps.

How do corals bleach?

  • When exposed to conditions like heat stress, pollution, or high levels of ocean acidity, the zooxanthellae start producing reactive oxygen species not beneficial to the corals.
  • So, the corals kick out the colour-giving algae from their polyps, exposing their pale white exoskeleton and leading to coral starvation as corals cannot produce their own food.
  • Severe bleaching and prolonged stress in the external environment can lead to coral death.

Reasons for the Decline

  • Climatic Vagaries: Predicted coral bleaching events pose a dire threat to the already fragile ecosystem of the Gulf of Mannar. The IPCC predicts a decline of 70-90% in global coral reefs with a warming of 1.5°C.
  • Ocean Acidification: Increased acidity levels in the ocean due to carbon dioxide absorption exacerbate coral stress and hinder their ability to calcify.

 

PYQ:

2014: Which of the following have coral reefs?

  1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
  2. Gulf of Kachchh
  3. Gulf of Mannar
  4. Sunderbans

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 4 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

2018: Consider the following statements

  1. Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters.
  2. More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.
  3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

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Artificial Intelligence (AI) Breakthrough

Krutrim AI: India’s indigenous AI

Note4Students

From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :

Prelims level: Krutrim AI Model

Mains level: NA

Why in the news?

Krutrim AI is Ola’s homegrown AI assistant, designed to cater to the diverse needs and nuances of Indian consumers, bridging the gap between conventional AI and specific cultural contexts.

Krutrim’s Capabilities

  • Multilingual Support: Krutrim boasts the ability to converse in English, Hindi, Tamil, Telugu, Malayalam, Marathi, Kannada, Bengali, Gujarati, and Hinglish, catering to the linguistic diversity of India.
  • Multi-Functionality: Users can leverage Krutrim for a range of tasks, including writing emails, seeking information, learning new skills, planning travel, discovering recipes, and more.

Technology behind Krutrim AI

  • Sophisticated AI Model: Krutrim operates on a sophisticated AI model trained on vast datasets encompassing Indian languages, social contexts, and cultural references.
  • Natural Language Processing (NLP): Utilizes NLP to comprehend human language nuances, including colloquialisms and cultural contexts, enhancing user interactions.
  • Machine Learning (ML): ML algorithms enable Krutrim to learn from datasets, continuously improving responses and understanding user intent.
  • Deep Learning: Leverages Deep Learning to recognize patterns and analyze complex data, crucial for contextual responses and performance enhancement.

Applications and Benefits for Users

  • Enhanced User Experience: Krutrim AI enhances user experiences across various sectors by offering culturally sensitive interactions, personalized learning in education, and automating administrative tasks.
  • Support for Content Creators: Content creators can leverage Krutrim for ideation and localization, making content more relatable and engaging.
  • Automating Repetitive Tasks: Krutrim’s capabilities extend to automating repetitive administrative tasks across industries, boosting efficiency and productivity.

PYQ:

2018: When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart minor in your bathroom shows the day’s weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a- message to your office accordingly.

In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following term” best applies to the above scenario?

  1. Border Gateway Protocol
  2. Internet of Things
  3. Internet Protocol
  4. Virtual Private Network

 

Practice MCQ:

Consider the following statements about the ‘Krutrim AI’:

  1. It is a homegrown AI assistant developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DACs).
  2. It can converse in regional languages of India.

Which of the given statements are correct?

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

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Capital Markets: Challenges and Developments

SEBI’s directive on Overseas ETF Investments

Note4Students

From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :

Prelims level: Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs)

Mains level: NA

What is the news?

SEBI has instructed mutual fund houses to halt new inflows into schemes investing in overseas exchange-traded funds (ETFs) from April 1, 2024.

What are Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs)?

  • ETFs are marketable securities that track various assets, including indices, commodities, or bonds, and trade on stock exchanges like regular stocks.
  • ETFs were started in 2001 in India.
  • Types of ETFs: Equity ETFs, bonds ETFs, commodity ETFs, international ETFs, and sectoral/thematic ETFs cater to diverse investment preferences.

Market dynamics of ETFs

  • ETFs can be purchased or sold on a stock exchange in the same way that regular stocks can, unlike the mutual funds.
  • The traded price of an ETF changes throughout the day like any other stock, as it is bought and sold on the stock exchange.
  • The trading value of an ETF is based on the net asset value of the underlying stocks that it represents.
  • These funds offer higher liquidity, lower fees, and tax efficiency compared to traditional mutual funds, appealing to individual investors.

Reasons behind SEBI’s Directive

  • Cap Proximity: The mutual fund industry has nearly reached 95% of the $1 billion investment limit in overseas ETFs, prompting SEBI’s intervention.
  • Temporary Measure: SEBI’s directive aims to temporarily curb inflows into these schemes until the investment limit is revised or additional measures are implemented.
  • Existing Caps: Currently, mutual funds are subject to an overall cap of $7 billion for investments in overseas stocks or mutual funds, with a specific limit of $1 billion for ETFs.

PYQ:

2013: The product diversification of financial institutions and insurance companies, resulting in overlapping of products and services strengthens the case for the merger of the two regulatory agencies, namely SEBI and IRDA. Justify.

2020: With reference to Foreign Direct Investment in India, which one of the following is considered its major characteristic?

  1. It is the investment through capital instruments essentially in a listed company.
  2. It is a largely non-debt creating capital flow.
  3. It is the investment which involves debt-servicing.
  4. It is the investment made by foreign institutional investors in the Government securities.

 

Practice MCQ:

With reference to the Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs), consider the following statements:

  1. ETFs are marketable securities that track various assets, including indices, commodities, or bonds, and trade on stock exchanges like regular stocks.
  2. ETFs were started in 2021 in India.
  3. ETFs can be purchased like the mutual funds.

How many of the given statements is/are correct?

  1. One
  2. Two
  3. Three
  4. None

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ISRO Missions and Discoveries

IAU approves ‘Statio Shiv Shakti’ as name for Chandrayaan-3 Landing Site

Note4Students

From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :

Prelims level: International Astronomical Union (IAU), Statio Shiv Shakti, Jawahar Point

Mains level: NA

What is the news?

The International Astronomical Union (IAU) working group for Planetary System Nomenclature recently sanctioned the name ‘Statio Shiv Shakti’ for the landing site of Chandrayaan-3’s Vikram lander, marking a significant milestone in planetary nomenclature.

About International Astronomical Union (IAU)

  • The IAU was founded on July 28, 1919, during the Constitutive Assembly held in Brussels, Belgium.
  • Its creation was prompted by the need for international collaboration in astronomy, especially after the devastation caused by World War I.
  • It aims for promoting and safeguarding astronomy in all its aspects through international cooperation.
  • IAU is now headquartered in Paris, France.

Major Activities and Initiatives

  • General Assembly: The IAU holds a general assembly every three years in varying parts of the world at which professional astronomers meet to discuss research, new cooperative ventures, and similar matters of professional interest.
  • Astronomical Nomenclature: IAU standardizes the nomenclature of celestial bodies, features, and phenomena. It maintains several working groups dedicated to naming conventions for stars, planets, asteroids, and other objects.
  • Research and Collaboration: It promotes international cooperation in astronomical research and supports initiatives such as observational campaigns, data sharing, and joint projects.
  • Education and Outreach: It is actively involved in promoting astronomy education and public outreach efforts worldwide. It supports educational programs, workshops, and resources for students, teachers, and the general public.

Membership

  1. IAU membership spans 92 countries. Out of those countries, 85 are National Members.
  2. India is represented by the Astronomical Society of India (ASI).
  3. Its members are professional astronomers from all over the world, at the D. level and beyond, who are active in professional research, education, and outreach in astronomy.

IAU Nomenclature  Criteria

 

  • Rule 4: It emphasizes the international nature of solar system nomenclature and encourages equitable representation of names from diverse ethnic groups, countries, and genders.
  • Rule 9: The IAU adheres to Rule 9, prohibiting names with political, military, or religious connotations, except for historical political figures prior to the 19th century.
  • Rule 11: It emphasizes that names should be unique within the context of celestial nomenclature to prevent confusion.

About Statio Shiv Shakti’

  • Prime Minister announced the name ‘Shiv Shakti’ for the Chandrayaan-3 landing site in August, 2023, reflecting the significance of Indian mythology and cultural heritage.
  • It is located at the co-ordinates 69.373°S 32.319°E and lies between the lunar craters Manzinus C and Simpelius N.
  • The name ‘Shiv Shakti’ symbolizes the masculine-feminine duality of nature, embodying strength and resolution, with a profound connection to India’s diverse cultural landscape.

PM previously named the Chandrayaan-2 crash site ‘Tiranga point’, while former President A.P.J. Abdul Kalam suggested ‘Jawahar Point’ for the Chandrayaan-1 impact probe landing site, reflecting a tradition of honoring national figures and symbols.

 


PYQ:

2021: Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years?​

  1. Distances among stellar bodies do not change.​
  2. Gravity of stellar bodies does not change.​
  3. Light always travels in straight line.​
  4. Speed of light is always same.​

 

Practice MCQ:

Consider the following statements about International Astronomical Union (IAU):

  1. It aims for promoting and safeguarding astronomy in all its aspects through international cooperation.
  2. India is represented by the ISRO in the IAU.

Which of the given statements are correct?

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

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Electoral Reforms In India

Postal Ballot Voting: Eligibility and Process for Lok Sabha elections 2024

Note4Students

From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :

Prelims level: Postal Ballot Voting

Mains level: NA

Why in the news?

The Election Commission of India (ECI) announced that media persons covering “polling day activities” are now eligible to vote in the upcoming Lok Sabha elections 2024 and state Assembly polls through postal ballots.

What are Postal Ballots?

  • Postal ballots, also known as mail-in ballots, allow registered voters to cast their votes by mail instead of physically going to a polling station.
  • It is governed by the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961.
  • This system serves as a convenient alternative for individuals unable to vote in person due to various circumstances, such as being away from their home constituency, facing a disability, or performing essential services on Election Day.

Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System (ETPBS)

 

  • The Conduct of Election Rules, 1961 was amended in 2016 to allow service voters to use the ETPBS. Under this system, postal ballots are sent electronically to registered service voters.
  • The service voter can then download the ETPB (along with a declaration form and covers), register their mandate on the ballot and send it to the returning officer of the constituency via ordinary mail.
  • The post will include an attested declaration form (after being signed by the voter in the presence of an appointed senior officer who will attest it).

Who is eligible to cast their vote through postal ballots?

Eligible electors who can opt to vote through postal ballots include:

  • Special voters: It includes President of India, Vice President, Governors, and Union Cabinet ministers, Speaker of the House and government officers on poll duty.
  • Service voters: Members of the armed forces, paramilitary forces, and government employees deployed on election duty far from their home constituencies.
  • Absentee voters: Individuals unable to vote in person due to reasons like work commitments, illness, or disability. Senior citizens above 80 years are also included.
  • Electors on election duty: Government officials and polling staff assigned duties at polling stations other than their own.
  • Electors under preventive detention: Individuals detained under preventive custody orders during the election period.
  • Divyangjans: In October 2019, the Ministry of Law and Justice amended the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, lowered the age from 85 to 80 and allowed Persons with Disabilities (PwDs) to cast votes through postal ballots in the 2020 Delhi Assembly polls.
  • Essential services covering polling day activities: Media persons with authorisation letters from the EC and those involved in essential services such as metros, railways, and healthcare have the option to vote using postal ballots in Lok Sabha and four state Assembly polls.

Applying for a postal ballot

  • To apply for a postal ballot, eligible voters must apply, Form 12 D, to the returning officer (RO) of their respective constituency.
  • The application typically requires personal details, voter identification information, and the reason for seeking a postal ballot.
  • For service voters, the RO sends the postal ballot paper through the record office, directly or through the Ministry of External Affairs for service voters serving outside India.
  • For senior citizens, a team of two polling officials, a videographer, and security personnel will visit the residence of the elector to facilitate this process.

What is the process of postal voting?

  • Receiving the postal ballot: Once approved, the RO sends the postal ballot to the voter’s registered address, including the ballot paper, declaration form, secrecy sleeve, and pre-paid return envelope.
  • Marking the ballot: Voters mark their preferred candidate(s) on the ballot paper in the secrecy sleeve to ensure confidentiality.
  • Completing the declaration form: Voters fill out the declaration form, providing their signature and other relevant details.
  • Sealing the envelope: Voters seal the marked ballot paper and declaration form inside the secrecy sleeve and place it into the pre-paid return envelope.
  • Returning the postal ballot: Voters affix the postage stamp and mail the return envelope to the designated address within the specified time.

Counting of postal ballots

  • Postal ballots are counted separately from votes cast at polling stations.
  • On the designated counting day, postal ballots are collected by postal authorities and brought to the counting centre.
  • The RO and election officials scrutinise postal ballots for validity and integrity, adding valid ballots to the respective candidate’s vote count.

 


PYQ:

Q.For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by-

  1. Anyone residing in India.
  2. A resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
  3. Any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
  4. Any citizen of India.

 

Practice MCQ:

Q.Consider the following statements:

  1. The right to cast vote is not a fundamental right
  2. NRI settled in foreign land can become an elector in the electoral roll in India
  3. Individuals in lawful custody of the police and those serving a sentence of imprisonment after conviction cannot vote

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 1,2 and 3

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Tuberculosis Elimination Strategy

Clinical Trials for MTBVAC Tuberculosis Vaccine in India

Note4Students

From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :

Prelims level: MTBVAC, TB, DOTS Regimen, Nikshay Poshan Yojana

Mains level: NA

What is the news?

  • Bharat Biotech, in collaboration with Spanish biopharmaceutical company Biofabri, has initiated clinical trials for the Mycobacterium Tuberculosis Vaccine (MTBVAC) in India, marking a significant milestone in TB vaccine development.
  • The only currently available TB vaccine, the Bacillus Calmette-Guérin vaccine (BCG), was developed 100 years ago and is less effective.

About MTBVAC

  • MTBVAC is a unique TB vaccine based on a genetically modified form of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, containing all antigens present in human-infecting strains, unlike the BCG vaccine.
  • It is developed in the laboratory of the University of Zaragoza with contributions from Dr. Brigitte Gicquel of the Pasteur Institute, Paris.
  • MTBVAC is designed to offer superior and potentially longer-lasting protection compared to the BCG vaccine, particularly for newborns and in preventing TB in adults and adolescents.

Objectives of Clinical Trials in India

  • Safety and Immunogenicity: The ongoing trials in India aim to evaluate the safety and immunogenicity of MTBVAC, with plans for a pivotal Phase 3 trial in 2025.
  • Population Significance: Studying the vaccine’s efficacy in India, with its high TB burden, is crucial for advancing TB vaccine research and addressing the global TB epidemic.

What is Tuberculosis?

  • Tuberculosis is an infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
  • Robert Koch discovered Mycobacterium tuberculosis which causes TB, and his discovery opened the way towards diagnosing and curing this disease.
  • It can practically affect any organ of the body.
  • The most common ones are lungs, pleura (lining around the lungs), lymph nodes, intestines, spine, and brain.

Transmission:

It is an airborne infection that spreads through close contact with the infected, especially in densely populated spaces with poor ventilation.

Symptoms:

Common symptoms of active lung TB are cough with sputum and blood at times, chest pains, weakness, weight loss, fever and night sweats.

Treatment Facilities in India:

  • DOTS (Directly Observed Treatment, Short-Course) regimen: It is the recommended treatment approach for TB by the WHO. Patients receive a combination of four antibiotics: isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. These drugs are usually administered daily for the first two months of treatment, followed by a continuation phase with isoniazid and rifampicin for an additional four to seven months.
  • Nikshay Poshan Yojana (2018): It was launched to support every Tuberculosis (TB) Patient by providing a Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) of Rs 500 per month for nutritional needs.

Issues in TB Treatment: Drug Resistance

Drug resistance emerges when anti-TB medicines are used inappropriately, through incorrect prescription by health care providers, poor quality drugs, and patients stopping treatment prematurely.

  1. Multidrug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB): Itis a form of TB caused by bacteria that do not respond to isoniazid and rifampicin, the 2 most powerful, first-line anti-TB drugs. MDR-TB is treatable and curable by using second-line drugs such as
  2. Extensively drug-resistant TB (XDR-TB): Itis a more serious form of MDR-TB caused by bacteria that do not respond to the most effective second-line anti-TB drugs, often leaving patients without any further treatment options.

 


PYQ:

2014: Can overuse and free availability of antibiotics without Doctor’s prescription, be contributors to the emergence of drug-resistant diseases in India? What are the available mechanisms for monitoring and control? Critically discuss the various issues involved.

 

Practice MCQ:

With reference to the Tuberculosis (TB), consider the following statements:

  1. TB is an infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
  2. It only targets Lungs.
  3. Nikshay Poshan Yojana aims for TB support is essentially a Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT).

How many of the given statements is/are correct?

  1. One
  2. Two
  3. Three
  4. None

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ISRO Missions and Discoveries

ISRO successfully conducts ‘Pushpak’ Reusable Landing Vehicle Landing

Note4Students

From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :

Prelims level: Pushpak Reusable Landing Vehicle (RLV), Low Earth Orbits, Gaganyaan

Mains level: NA

What is the news?

  • The ISRO has conducted the Pushpak Reusable Landing Vehicle (RLV) LEX 02 landing experiment at the Aeronautical Test Range in Chitradurga. It was lifted by an Indian Air Force Chinook helicopter and released from an altitude of 4.5 km.
  • This experiment marks a significant milestone in ISRO’s pursuit of reusable space technology.

About Pushpak Reusable Landing Vehicle (RLV)

  • The Pushpak RLV is a winged vehicle, equipped with aerodynamic surfaces that enable controlled flight during re-entry into the Earth’s atmosphere.
  • The RLV is designed to autonomously land on a designated runway after completing its mission in space, thereby demonstrating India’s capability in autonomous space vehicle landing.
  • It is equipped with sophisticated navigation, control, and landing gear systems that allow it to autonomously navigate and land on a predefined runway.

Key Features

  1. The RLV is a space plane with a low lift-to-drag ratio, requiring an approach at high glide angles that necessitates landing at high velocities of 350 km/h.
  2. This design allows it to transport payloads to Low Earth orbits and return to Earth for future use.

Future Prospects

  • Iterative Testing: ISRO conducts a series of experiments, such as the RLV LEX 02 landing experiment, to test and validate the performance of the RLV in various scenarios.
  • Orbital Re-entry Missions: The successful demonstration of the Pushpak RLV’s capabilities paves the way for future orbital re-entry missions, where reusable vehicles can be deployed for various scientific and commercial purposes.

PYQ:

2018: With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:

  1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
  2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
  3. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch l vehicle with the first and third stages l using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 2
  4. 3 only

 

Practice MCQ:

Consider the following statements about the ‘Pushpak’ Reusable Landing Vehicle (RLV):

  1. It is a winged vehicle.
  2. It can transport payloads to Low Earth orbits and return to Earth with the help of a parachute.

Which of the given statements are correct?

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

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Wildlife Conservation Efforts

A turf war with the wild

Note4Students

From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :

Prelims level: Forest in Kerala and comparison with forest in other states

Mains level: Measures to address human-wildlife conflict

Why in the news?

  • Instances of human-animal conflict are on the rise in Kerala with the summer heat, scarcity of food, and loss of habitat forcing wild animals to stray into human habitations for sustenance.

Context-

  • Vulnerability of tribal communities living in such areas. While they have intricate knowledge of the forest and its resources, they lack the protective measures and resources available to more urbanized populations, leaving them more susceptible to the dangers of wildlife encounters.

Human-animal conflict in Kerala-

  • Surge in Incidents: Kerala has experienced a significant increase in human-animal conflict incidents across its districts, attributed to the state’s significant forest cover and densely populated settlements near wildlife habitats.
  • Human Casualties: Human-wildlife conflicts have resulted in a substantial loss of human lives, with 93 reported deaths in 2023-24. The previous year recorded 98 human casualties.
  • Hotspot District: Wayanad stands out as a hotspot for human-animal conflicts, with 69 reported deaths between 2011 and 2024. Incidents involve encounters with wild elephants and, in one case, a tiger attack.
  • Diverse Wildlife Involved: Human-animal conflicts in Kerala involve various species, including elephants, tigers, leopards, bears, wild gaurs, wild boars, and monkeys. This diversity underscores the complexity of managing conflicts across different ecosystems and habitats.
  • Impact on Livelihoods: The conflicts have severe repercussions on people’s livelihoods, particularly those dependent on agriculture and farming. Attacks by wild animals prevent farmers from cultivating their land, leading to economic hardship and food insecurity.
  • Vulnerable Communities: Vulnerable communities like tribal groups and small-scale farmers are disproportionately affected by human-animal conflicts. Limited resources and infrastructure exacerbate their vulnerability to wildlife attacks, as seen in the case of Abraham Palatt and his family.

Steps taken by Government to deal these issues – 

  • State-Specific Disaster: The Kerala government declared human-animal conflict as a state-specific disaster in March, becoming the first state to do so. This decision signifies the severity and urgency of addressing the issue.
  • Responsibility Shift: Management of human-animal conflicts now falls under the purview of the Kerala State Disaster Management Authority (KSDMA), with a committee headed by the Chief Minister established for this purpose.
  • Community Involvement: The government plans to involve local communities through neighborhood groups to enhance surveillance on forest fringes. These groups will collaborate with government agencies and elected representatives to disseminate alerts about wildlife presence.
  • Recruitment and Equipment: The government aims to strengthen surveillance by recruiting more forest watchers and establishing rapid response teams equipped with firearms, surveillance devices, drones, tranquilizing guns, and advance warning systems.
  • Inter-State Collaboration: An inter-State coordination committee involving the Forest departments of Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu has been formed to address human-wildlife conflicts collectively. This initiative aims to share intelligence and resources to mitigate conflicts, particularly along interstate borders.

Measures to address human-wildlife conflict-

  • Forest Quality Improvement: Improving the quality of forests through measures such as reducing fragmentation and patchiness can help create healthier ecosystems that support a more balanced coexistence between humans and wildlife.
  • Conservation Mission with Tribal Communities: Involving tribal communities in conservation efforts ensures their participation and traditional knowledge is valued. Collaborative conservation initiatives can promote sustainable practices and protect both biodiversity and livelihoods.
  • Rejuvenation of Natural Forest Streams: Restoring natural water sources in forests is crucial for wildlife habitat and can help mitigate conflicts by providing essential resources within their natural environment.
  • Removal of Invasive Plants and Replanting Indigenous Species: Removing invasive plant species and replanting indigenous ones can restore ecological balance and support native wildlife populations, reducing their reliance on human-impacted areas.
  • Utilization of MGNREGS: Leveraging government schemes like the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) to support conservation efforts can provide employment opportunities while simultaneously contributing to environmental restoration projects.
  • Awareness Programs on Responsible Tourism: Educating tourists about responsible behavior around wildlife can minimize human-wildlife conflicts caused by human disturbance. This includes emphasizing the importance of maintaining a safe distance and respecting wildlife habitats.
  • Effective Institutional Framework: Establishing a robust institutional framework at various levels of governance, from local to inter-state, is essential for coordinated action in managing human-wildlife conflicts. This involves collaboration between different government departments, wildlife authorities, and local communities.

Conclusion-

Human-wildlife conflicts surge in Kerala, endangering lives and livelihoods. Government initiatives, community involvement, and conservation efforts are crucial for mitigating conflicts and fostering coexistence, ensuring a sustainable future for both humans and wildlife.

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