Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Vaikom Satyagraha and the people associated
Mains level: NA

Why in the news?
This year April 1st marks 100 years of the Vaikom Satyagraha, in Kottayam, Kerala.
About Vaikom Satyagraha
- Vaikom was the epicentre of the Vaikom Satyagraha, which began in 1924.
- This movement aimed to challenge the ban imposed on marginalized communities from entering the vicinity of the Vaikom Mahadevar Temple in the princely state of Travancore.
- It sparked similar temple entry movements across India, advocating for the rights of untouchables and backward castes.
- It introduced nonviolent public protest as a method of resistance in Kerala.
A Precursor to the Vaikom Satyagraha
- Social and Political Developments
- Backdrop of Social Injustice: Travancore, characterized by feudal and caste-based governance, imposed stringent restrictions on lower castes, denying them entry to temples and public spaces.
- Emergence of Social Consciousness: By the late 19th century, progressive reforms and missionary activities led to increased awareness and education among lower castes, particularly the Ezhavas.
- Rise of Educated Elite: Educated individuals from diverse backgrounds, including lower castes, began to challenge social norms and demand equality in opportunities and rights.
- Beginning of Agitation
- Advocacy for Change: Ezhava leader T K Madhavan spearheaded efforts to challenge temple entry restrictions, advocating for direct action to confront discriminatory practices.
- Influence of Gandhi’s Ideals: Inspired by Gandhi’s principles of non-cooperation, Madhavan sought support from the Indian National Congress (INC) to mobilize a mass movement against untouchability.
Actual Course of Events
- Agitation
- Leaders such as T.K. Madhavan, K.P. Kesava Menon, and George Joseph spearheaded the agitation.
- Despite facing resistance and arrests by the police, the Satyagrahis persisted in their protest for over a year, resulting in numerous arrests and jails.
- Notable figures like Mahatma Gandhi, Chattampi Swamikal, and Sree Narayana Guru extended their support to the movement, which gained nationwide recognition.
- The involvement of women and support from various regions, including Punjab, highlighted the widespread impact of the Satyagraha.
- Suspension:
- Initially suspended in April 1924 at Gandhi’s suggestion, the movement resumed when attempts to resolve the issue with caste Hindu leaders failed.
- The absence of leaders like T.K. Madhavan and K.P. Kesava Menon, who were arrested, posed challenges to the movement.
- V. Ramaswamy Naicker (Periyar) lent support from Tamil Nadu before also being arrested.
- The resolution for the right to temple entry faced resistance in the Assembly, thwarted by traditionalist support and government pressure.
- Aftermath
- On October 1, 1924, a procession of Savarnas (forward castes) submitted a petition to the Regent Maharani Sethu Lakshmi Bai of Travancore, signed by around 25,000 individuals, urging for the temple’s open entry.
- Gandhi’s meeting with the Regent Maharani and the procession led by Mannath Padmanabhan Nair underscored the growing support for the cause.
- Eventually, on November 23, 1925, all temple gates were opened to Hindus except the eastern gate, marking a significant victory.
- The Vaikom Satyagraha laid the groundwork for the temple entry proclamation of Kerala in 1936 and inspired similar movements’ nationwide, promoting social justice and equality.
PYQ:
Satya Shodhak Samaj organized (2016):
(a) a movement for upliftment of tribals in Bihar’
(b) a temple-entry movement in Gujarat
(c) an anti-caste movement in Maharashtra
(d) a peasant movement in Punjab
Practice MCQ:
The Vaikom Satyagraha of 1924 was essentially a:
(a) Temple Entry Movement
(b) Peasants’ Uprising
(c) Salt Satyagraha
(d) Swadeshi Movement |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: GI, Various GI tags mentioned in the news
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
What is a GI Tag?
- A GI is a sign used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin.
- Nodal Agency: Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- India, as a member of the World Trade Organization (WTO), enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 w.e.f. September 2003.
- GIs have been defined under Article 22 (1) of the WTO Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement.
- The tag stands valid for 10 years and can be renewed.
Various GI Tags Awarded:
|
Details |
Bihu Dhol (Assam) |
Traditional drum used during Bihu festivals |
Jaapi (Assam) |
Bamboo headgear worn in rural Assam |
Sarthebari metal craft (Assam) |
Traditional metal craft producing utensils and artifacts |
Mishing handloom products (Assam) |
Handwoven textiles including shawls and sarees |
Asharikandi terracotta craft (Assam) |
Terracotta pottery and decorative items |
Pani Meteka craft (Assam) |
Brass and copper utensils adorned with intricate designs |
Bodo Dokhona (Assam) |
Traditional attire of Bodo women |
Bodo Eri silk (Assam) |
Silk fabric produced from eri silkworms, known for its soft texture and eco-friendly production |
Bodo Jwmgra (Assam) |
Traditional scarf worn by Bodo community members |
Bodo Gamsa (Assam) |
Traditional dress of Bodo men |
Bodo Thorkha (Assam) |
Traditional musical instrument made from bamboo or wood |
Bodo Sifung (Assam) |
Long flute used in traditional Bodo music |
Banaras Thandai (Uttar Pradesh) |
Traditional drink made from milk, nuts, seeds, and spices |
Banaras Tabla (Uttar Pradesh) |
Pair of drums used in classical Indian music |
Banaras Shehnai (Uttar Pradesh) |
Traditional wind instrument used in Indian classical music |
Banaras Lal Bharwamirch (Uttar Pradesh) |
Red chili grown in the Banaras region |
Banaras Lal Peda (Uttar Pradesh) |
Popular Indian sweet made from condensed milk and sugar |
Pachra-Rignai (Tripura) |
Traditional dress worn by women, consisting of a wrap-around skirt and blouse |
Matabari Peda (Tripura) |
Sweet delicacy made from condensed milk, sugar, and ghee |
Garo Textile weaving (Meghalaya) |
Traditional weaving craft practiced by the Garo tribe |
Lyrnai Pottery (Meghalaya) |
Traditional pottery making characterized by unique designs and techniques |
Chubitchi (Meghalaya) |
Traditional dish made with meat, local herbs, and spices |
PYQ:
Which of the following has/have been accorded ‘Geographical Indication’ status? (2015)
1. Banaras Brocades and Sarees
2. Rajasthani Daal-Bati-Churma
3. Tirupathi Laddu
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to (2016):
(a) ILO
(b) IMF
(c) UNCTAD
(d) WTO
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements about the Geographical Indications (GI) Tag:
1. The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the nodal agency for GI.
2. A GI tag stands valid for 10 years and cannot be renewed.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
|
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Empathic Voice Interface (EVI)
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- Hume, a prominent research lab and tech firm based in New York, has unveiled Empathic Voice Interface (EVI), world’s first conversational AI endowed with emotional intelligence.
What is Empathic Voice Interface (EVI)?
- Hume’s Empathic Voice Interface (EVI) is powered by its proprietary empathic large language model (eLLM).
- It can decipher tones, word emphasis, and emotional cues, improving the quality of interactions.
- As an API, EVI can integrate seamlessly with various applications, offering developers a versatile solution for implementing human-like interactions.
Potential Applications and Future Prospects
- Enhanced AI Assistants: Hume’s technology enables AI assistants to engage in nuanced conversations, enhancing productivity and user satisfaction.
- Improved Customer Support: By infusing empathy into customer support interactions, Hume’s AI promises to deliver more personalized service and foster stronger relationships.
- Therapeutic Potential: Hume’s empathetic AI holds promise in therapeutic settings, offering support and guidance by understanding and responding to human emotions.
PYQ:
- What is ’emotional intelligence’ and how can it be developed in people? How does it help an individual in taking ethical decisions? (2013)
- “Emotional Intelligence is the ability to make your emotions work for you instead of against you.” Do you agree with this view? Discuss. (2019)
- How will you apply emotional intelligence in administrative practices? (2017)
Practice MCQ:
Which of the following statements correctly describes the Empathic Voice Interface (EVI)?
(a) EVI operates as a standalone application, devoid of integration capabilities with other software systems.
(b) It relies on conventional language models, neglecting emotional cues and word emphasis during interactions.
(c) EVI, powered by its proprietary empathic large language model (eLLM), detects emotional nuances such as tones, word emphasis, and cues, enhancing interaction quality.
(d) EVI is developed by the Microsoft. |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Hepatitis B
Mains level: NA

Why in the news?
- A recent study by Sir Ganga Ram Hospital, New Delhi, revealed alarming deficiencies in public knowledge (transmission, effects & vaccination) about Hepatitis B in India.
- Despite the availability of a vaccine for over 30 years, HBV infection rates remain high in India, with prevalence estimates ranging from 2% to 8% and approximately 37 million carriers nationwide.
About Hepatitis
- Hepatitis is a medical condition characterized by inflammation of the liver.
- It can be caused by various factors, including viral infections (hepatitis viruses), alcohol consumption, certain medications, toxins, autoimmune diseases, and metabolic disorders.
|
Hepatitis A |
Hepatitis B |
Hepatitis C |
Causative Virus |
Hepatitis A Virus (HAV) |
Hepatitis B Virus (HBV) |
Hepatitis C Virus (HCV) |
Transmission |
Fecal-oral route (contaminated food/water) |
Blood and body fluids (unsafe sex, sharing needles) |
Blood-to-blood contact (sharing needles, transfusions) |
Vaccine Available |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
Chronic Infection |
No (usually acute) |
Yes (can become chronic) |
Yes (often becomes chronic) |
Symptoms |
Mild flu-like symptoms, jaundice |
Variable, from none to severe symptoms |
Often asymptomatic, but can lead to liver damage |
Chronic Complications |
None |
Cirrhosis, liver cancer |
Cirrhosis, liver cancer |
Preventable by Vaccine |
Yes |
Yes |
No |
Treatment |
Supportive care |
Antiviral medications |
Antiviral medications |
PYQ:
Which one of the following statements is not correct? (2019)
(a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.
(b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.
(c) Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.
(d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.
Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through tattooing? (2013)
1. Chikungunya
2. Hepatitis B
3. HIV-AIDS
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements regarding Hepatitis C virus:
1. It is spread mainly through contaminated water and food.
2. It primarily affects the functioning of respiratory system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA)
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
The Ministry of Home Affairs extended till June 30 the validity of all FCRA registered NGOs whose licences are expiring on March 31.
What is Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA)?
- The FCRA regulates foreign donations and ensures that such contributions do not adversely affect internal security.
- First enacted in 1976, it was amended in 2010 when a slew of new measures was adopted to regulate foreign donations.
- The FCRA is applicable to all associations, groups and NGOs which intend to receive foreign donations.
- It is mandatory for all such NGOs to register themselves under the FCRA.
- The registration is initially valid for 5 years and it can be renewed subsequently if they comply with all norms.
What contributes to Foreign Donations?
- Foreign Contribution’ means the donation, delivery or transfer made by any foreign source of any:
- Article (whose market value is not more than one lakh rupees);
- Currency (whether Indian or foreign);
- Securities
- Foreign donations may be those from Governments, international agencies, foreign companies, trusts, corporations, foreign citizens
- However, some agencies like the UN, World Bank, IMF etc. are EXEMPTED from the definition of foreign donors.
Who cannot accept donations under FCRA?
According to the FCRA, foreign donations cannot be accepted by:
- Election candidates
- Editors and publishers of newspapers
- Judges and government employees.
- Political parties and members of legislature etc.
What was the recent Amendment?
The FCRA was amended in September 2020 to introduce some new restrictions:
- There is now a capping of the administrative expenses of NGOs at 20% of their foreign donations.
- The new amendment requires them to have a State Bank of India account at a Delhi Branch.
- It also prohibits the transfer of grants received under FCRA to any other outfit.
- It also gives sweeping powers to the Ministry of Home Affairs to cancel the FCRA certificate of an NGO.
- It made legal for political parties to accept foreign aid through Indian subsidiaries.
- Under the Act, the government may suspend the registration of a person for a period not exceeding 180 days.
- Providing Aadhar is mandatory for all office bearers, directors or key functionaries of the organization.
PYQ:
2015: Examine critically the recent changes in the rule governing foreign funding of NGOs under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), 1976.
2015: How can be the role of NGOs be strengthened in India for development works relating to protection of the Environment? Discuss throwing light on the major constraints.
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements regarding “Foreign Contribution (regulation) Act”:
1. World Bank is excluded from the definition of foreign sources under the act.
2. Political parties are prohibited from taking foreign donations under the act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- The Supreme Court has rejected review petitions challenging its ruling on the initiation of proceedings under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA).
- The judgment clarified that Section 120B of the Indian Penal Code cannot be invoked for PMLA proceedings unless the alleged conspiracy pertains to a scheduled offence.
Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002
- The PMLA was enacted in 2002 with the aim of preventing money laundering and providing for confiscation of property derived from money laundering.
- It applies to all financial institutions, banks (including the RBI), mutual funds, insurance companies, and their financial intermediaries.
- The Act empowers government authorities to confiscate property and/or assets earned from illegal sources and through money laundering.
- It has been amended three times, in 2005, 2009, and 2012.
- Under the PMLA, the burden of proof lies with the accused, who must demonstrate that the suspect property/assets have not been obtained through proceeds of crime.
Penalties under PMLA:
- Freezing or Seizure of property and records, and/or attachment of property obtained through crime proceeds.
- Rigorous imprisonment for a minimum of 3 years and a maximum of 7 years. In cases where money laundering is linked with the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, the punishment can extend up to 10 years, along with a fine.
- Fine imposition.
Authorities for investigation under PMLA:
- Enforcement Directorate (ED): It is responsible for investigating offenses under the PMLA.
- Financial Intelligence Unit – India (FIU-IND): It is the national agency tasked with receiving, processing, analyzing, and disseminating information related to suspect financial transactions.
|
What is Article 120 of Indian Penal Code (IPC)?
- Section 120 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals with the concept of “Conspiracy to commit an offense”.
- It states that when two or more persons agree to do, or cause to be done, an illegal act, or an act which is not illegal by illegal means, such an agreement is designated a criminal conspiracy.
- Section 120A defines “criminal conspiracy” as when two or more persons agree to do, or cause to be done, an illegal act or an act which is not illegal by illegal means.
- Section 120B prescribes the punishment for criminal conspiracy, with death, imprisonment for life, or rigorous imprisonment for a term of two years or upwards, shall be punished in the same manner as if he had abetted such offense.
Punishment for Criminal Conspiracy
- Nature of Conspiracy: IPC 120B categorizes conspiracy based on the gravity of the offense and prescribes punishments accordingly.
- Serious Offenses: Conspiracy to commit serious crimes punishable by death, life imprisonment, or rigorous imprisonment for 2 years or more warrants severe punishment equivalent to the offense committed.
- Other Offenses: Conspiracy for illegal acts not falling under the serious category incurs imprisonment for up to six months, a fine, or both, as per Section 120B.
Practice MCQ:
Which of the following statements are correct regarding ‘Prevention of Money Laundering Act 2002 (PMLA)’?
1. Enforcement Directorate (ED) is responsible for investigating offences under the PMLA
2. The Act enables government authorities to confiscate property earned through money laundering.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: H5N1 Bird Flu
Mains level: NA

Why in the news?
- Since 2020, the highly pathogenic H5N1 bird flu has been spreading globally, posing a significant threat to both birds and mammals.
H5N1 Bird Flu: Details
- H5N1 originated from a virus outbreak on a goose farm in China in 1996 and has since evolved into a highly pathogenic strain.
- The virus quickly spread from Europe to Africa, Asia, North America, and South America, and most recently, it reached mainland Antarctica.
- H5N1 is a subtype of the influenza A virus that causes severe respiratory disease in birds, known as avian influenza or “bird flu”.
- Influenza A viruses are classified by subtypes based on the properties of their surface proteins, with H5N1 being one subtype.
How widespread is it?
- The virus has affected birds in over 80 countries, resulting in mass culling of poultry and wild birds.
- Furthermore, it has now begun infecting mammals, including seals, sea lions, and marine mammals.
- While humans rarely contract bird flu, those at risk are typically individuals who have extensive contact with infected birds at poultry farms.
- Bird flu first broke out in Maharashtra in 2006.
- The H5N1 virus led to the culling of millions of poultry so as to contain the virus. But it has resurfaced from time to time.
Impact on Animals
- Bird Species Affected: Numerous bird species, including Great Skuas and Barnacle Geese, have experienced significant mortality rates due to H5N1.
- Endangered Species Threatened: Endangered birds like the California condors have been severely affected, with a notable percentage of the population succumbing to the virus.
- Mammalian Casualties: H5N1 has crossed species barriers, infecting mammals such as foxes, pumas, skunks, and marine mammals like sea lions and dolphins.
- Devastating Consequences: Mass mortalities of marine mammals, particularly elephant seals, have been reported, raising concerns about the long-term ecological impact.
Factors behind Spread
- Climate Change: Some scientists attribute the large-scale spread of bird flu to climate change, which alters bird behavior and facilitates the transmission of the virus.
- Warmer Seas: Warmer sea temperatures have weakened marine mammal populations, making them more susceptible to disease outbreaks.
PYQ:
2015: H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following diseases?
(a) AIDS
(b) Bird flu
(c) Dengue
(d) Swine flu
Practice MCQ:
How many of the given statements about H5N1 Virus is/are correct?
1. It is a type of influenza virus causing highly infectious, respiratory disease in birds.
2. It is highly contagious in humans.
3. Seals, sea lions, and other marine mammals are vulnerable to this Virus.
Select the correct codes from below –
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) None |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now

Why in the news?
Scientists from Nagoya University have made a discovery about the regulation of Stomatal opening in plants, a process vital for efficient photosynthesis by a type of amino acid threonine (Thr881).
What are Stomatal Openings?
- Stomata are microscopic pores on plant leaves crucial for gas exchange.
- They particularly uptake carbon dioxide necessary for photosynthesis.
How does Light make Stomata Open?
- Research unveiled a novel regulatory mechanism involving the phosphorylation of the 881st threonine residue (Thr881) of the plasma membrane proton pump in response to red and blue light.
- Phosphorylation, a process involving the addition or removal of a phosphate group from amino acids, acts as a regulatory switch, influencing protein structure and function.
- The researchers focused on the phosphorylation of Thr881 and its role in stomatal opening.
- They observed phosphorylation in response to both red and blue light conditions, highlighting the interplay between photosynthesis and light signaling.
Significance of Thr881 Phosphorylation
- Mutant studies confirmed the critical role of Thr881 phosphorylation in stomatal opening.
- Plants expressing a mutant proton pump lacking Thr881 phosphorylation exhibited reduced stomatal aperture and transpiration rates, emphasizing the regulatory significance of this amino acid residue.
- The study identified Thr881, along with Thr948, as crucial phosphorylation sites for the activation of the enzyme H+-ATPase, essential for stomatal opening.
- Manipulating Thr881 could offer avenues for promoting plant growth, enhancing carbon dioxide absorption, and reducing fertilizer usage.
PYQ:
2014: Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?
a) Potential energy is released to form free energy
b) Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored
c) Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide and water
d) Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapour are given out
Practice MCQ:
What is the significance of phosphorylation of the threonine residue (Thr881) in the context of plants?
a) It helps in reducing carbon dioxide uptake and photosynthesis efficiency.
b) It enhances photosynthesis in dark conditions.
c) It reduces transpiration leading to enhanced water conservation.
d) It is essential for regulating stomatal aperture and facilitating gas exchange in plants. |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: T+0 Settlement Cycle
Mains level: NA

Why in the news?
India’s stock market will begin the with a ‘beta version’ of T+0 settlement system (same day settlement) from today. This is the world’s fastest stock settlement system.
About T+0 Settlement Cycle
- SEBI has planned to introduce the shorter cycle in two phases:
- T+0 Settlement Details: In Phase 1, trades executed until 1:30 PM will be settled by 4:30 PM on the same day.
- Instant Settlement Mechanics: Phase 2 envisages immediate trade-by-trade settlement, with trading continuing until 3:30 PM.
Features of the T+0 Settlement Mechanism
- Early Pay-In Trend: A large percentage of retail investors already make early pay-ins of funds and securities, indicating readiness for instant settlement.
- Instant Receipt Benefits: The mechanism enables instant receipt of funds and securities, reducing settlement shortages and enhancing investor control.
- Investor Protection: Direct crediting of funds and securities into investors’ accounts, especially for UPI clients, strengthens investor protection.
Settlement Cycle: A Quick History
- SEBI shortened the settlement cycle from T+5 to T+3 in 2002, and then to T+2 in 2003.
- The T+1 cycle was introduced in 2021 and fully implemented by January 2023.
- In T+1, the settlement of funds and securities occurs on the next day after the trade.
|
Scope and Implementation of T+0
- Initially, the T+0 settlement will be available for the top 500 listed equity shares based on market capitalization, implemented in three tranches.
- The same surveillance measures applicable in the T+1 cycle will apply to the T+0 cycle.
- Trade-for-trade settlement securities will NOT be eligible for T+0.
Rationale behind T+O Cycle
- Market Growth and Efficiency: With the significant growth in market volumes and participants, SEBI aims to enhance market efficiency and safety, especially for retail investors.
- Technological Advancements: The evolution of payment systems like UPI and the sophistication of market infrastructure support the feasibility of shorter settlement cycles.
- Investor Attraction: Faster transactions, reliability, and low costs are key factors that attract investors, making Indian securities a more appealing asset class.
Benefits of the New Mechanism
- Flexibility for Clients: The new mechanism offers faster payouts of funds to sellers and securities to buyers, providing greater flexibility and control.
- Market Ecosystem Advantages: The faster settlement cycle is expected to enhance the operational efficiency of the securities market, benefiting the entire ecosystem.
PYQ:
2017: The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in the news refers to
a) ASEAN
b) BRICS
c) EU
d) G20
Practice MCQ:
With reference to the T+0 Settlement Cycle, consider the following statements:
1. Trades executed until 1:30 PM will be settled by 4:30 PM on the same day.
2. Trade-for-trade settlement securities will also be eligible for T+0.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO)
Mains level: NA

Why in the news?
A Czech citizen has spotted a comet in an image from the Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO) spacecraft, which has now been confirmed to be the 5,000th comet discovered using SOHO data.
Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO)
- The SOHO is a spacecraft jointly operated by the European Space Agency (ESA) and NASA.
- Launched in December 1995, its primary mission is to study the Sun, particularly its outer atmosphere, known as the corona, and the solar wind.
- SOHO observes the Sun in various wavelengths of light, enabling scientists to study phenomena such as sunspots, solar flares, and coronal mass ejections.
- SOHO orbits the Sun at Lagrange Point L1, about 1.5 million kilometers (nearly 1 million miles) from Earth, providing an uninterrupted view of the Sun.
- Its observations have led to discoveries such as-
- Identifying the source regions of solar wind,
- Tracking solar eruptions, and
- Monitoring changes in the Sun’s activity over its 11-year solar cycle.
What are Lagrange Points?

- Lagrange Points are named after the French mathematician Joseph-Louis Lagrange who discovered them in 1772.
- They are specific points in space where the gravitational forces of two large bodies, such as the Earth and the Sun, or the Earth and the Moon, balance the centrifugal force felt by a smaller body.
- These points are stable locations where objects can maintain their relative positions concerning the larger bodies, without drifting away or falling towards them.
There are five Lagrange Points, denoted as L1, L2, L3, L4, and L5:
- L1: Located on the line connecting the two large bodies and closer to the smaller body, L1 is particularly useful for space observatories like the Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO) because it provides an unobstructed view of the Sun from Earth’s perspective.
- L2: Situated on the opposite side of the smaller body from the larger one, L2 is an excellent location for deep space observatories such as the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) because it remains relatively shielded from solar interference.
- L3: Located on the line connecting the two large bodies but on the opposite side of the larger body from the smaller one, L3 is less stable and less frequently used than the other Lagrange Points.
- L4 and L5: These points form equilateral triangles with the two large bodies, with the smaller body at the third vertex. L4 precedes the smaller body in its orbit, while L5 follows it. These points are stable and have been found to accumulate natural objects, such as asteroids, known as Trojan asteroids.
|
PYQ:
2013: Consider the following phenomena:
1. Size of the sun at dusk
2. Colure of the sun at dawn
3. Moon being visible at dawn
4. Twinkle of stars in the sky
5. Polestar being visible in the sky
Which of the above are optical illusions?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 3, 4 and 5
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 5
Practice MCQ:
Regarding the Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO), consider the following statement:
1. SOHO spacecraft was launched in December 1995.
2. It is jointly operated by the European Space Agency (ESA) and NASA.
3. It orbits the Earth in sun-synchronous orbit.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) None |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Mohiniyattam and its features
Mains level: NA

Why in the news?
The Kerala Kalamandalam, a deemed university for arts and culture, has unanimously lifted gender restrictions allowing boys for learning Mohiniyattam, a classical dance form.
About Mohiniyattam
|
Description |
Name Meaning |
Mohini – female enchantress avatar of Vishnu;
Aattam – rhythmic motion or dance (Malayalam) |
Roots |
Natya Shastra, ancient Hindu Sanskrit text on performance arts |
Style |
Lasya Style – delicate, eros-filled, and feminine |
Performers |
Traditionally women, but men also perform in contemporary times |
Music |
Includes Carnatic music, singing, and enactment of plays through dance |
Language |
Manipravalam : a Malayalam-Sanskrit hybrid |
Posture |
Parted feet, gentle swaying of body, soft footwork synchronized with music beats |
Gestures |
Follow the classical text of Hastha Lakshanadeepika with elaborate mudras (hand gestures) |
Costumes |
Plain white or off-white sarees with golden brocade, pleated sheets for freedom of movement, adorned with jewellery |
Accessories |
Jewellery on fingers, wrists, neck, and ears, ankle bells (for female performers), dhotis and similar accessories (for male performers) |
Makeup |
Natural with brilliant red lips, tikka (Gobi) on forehead, lined eyes |
Music |
Various rhythms and compositions in Manipravalam, accompanied by instruments like Mridangam, Idakka, flute, Veena, and Kuzhitalam |
Ragas |
Rendered in the Sopana Style, a slow melodic style rooted in the Natya Shastra |
PYQ:
2012: How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dances?
- Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found in Kuchipudi dance but not in Bharatanatyam.
- Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of Bharatanatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of movements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Practice MCQ:
Which of the following statements about Mohiniyattam is not true?
- Mohiniyattam derives its name from “Mohini,” the female enchantress avatar of Vishnu, and “Aattam,” meaning rhythmic motion or dance in Malayalam.
- Its roots can be traced back to the Natya Shastra, an ancient Hindu Sanskrit text on performance arts.
- Mohiniyattam is characterized by the Tandava style, known for its vigorous movements.
- Performances of Mohiniyattam typically include enactment of plays through dance, accompanied by singing and Carnatic music.
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Magnetofossils, Magnetotactic bacteria
Mains level: NA
What is the news?
Scientists from the CSIR-National Institute of Oceanography, Goa have found in the Bay of Bengal a 50,000-year-old sediment containing giant magnetofossils, shedding light on ancient geological conditions.

What are Magnetofossils?
- Magnetofossils are fossilized magnetic particles created by magnetotactic bacteria, aiding scientists in understanding past environmental conditions.
- Described initially in the 1960s and 1970s, magnetotactic bacteria utilize iron-rich minerals to navigate the Earth’s magnetic field, leaving behind distinctive fossil remnants.
- These unique creatures were first described in 1963, by Salvatore Bellini, an Italian doctor and then again in 1975 by Richard Blakemore of the Woods Hole Oceanographic Institution, Woods Hole, Massachusetts.
- These organisms were believed to follow the magnetic field to reach places that had optimal oxygen concentration.
- Using an electron microscope, Blakemore found the bacteria contained “novel structured particles, rich in iron” in small sacs that essentially worked as a compass.
- These magnetotactic bacteria create tiny crystals made of the iron-rich minerals magnetite or greigite, aiding them in navigating changing oxygen levels in the water body they reside in.
Special Attributes of Bay of Bengal Sediment
- Previous studies on magnetofossils often ascertained their origins to be hyperthermal vents, comet impacts, changes in oceanic ventilation, weathering or the presence of oxygen-poor regions.
- Sediments deposited at the core site originate from the Godavari, Krishna, and Penner Rivers, highlighted on the map.
Findings of the Study
- Scientific Approach: In the study, combined magnetic analyses and electron microscopy to study the sediment sample.
- Sediment Characteristics: The three-metre-long sediment core from the southwestern Bay of Bengal consisted mainly of “pale green silty clays,” they wrote in their paper. They also reported finding abundant benthic and planktic foraminifera — single-celled organisms with shells found near the sea bed and free-floating in water.
- Microscopic Revelations: High-resolution transmission electron microscopy revealed the fossil to be in the shape of needles, spindles, bullets, and spearheads.
- Environmental Insights: Earlier, studies of sediments suggested that nearly 29,000 to 11,700 years ago, during the last Glacial Maximum-Holocene period, the northeast and southwest monsoon strengthened and resulted in significant weathering and sedimentation.
PYQ:
Consider the following kinds of organisms:
- Copepods
- Cyanobacteria
- Diatoms
- Foraminifera
Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans?
- 1 and 2
- 2 and 3
- 3 and 4
- 1 and 4
Practice MCQ:
Which of the following statements is correct about the ‘Magnetofossils’?
- They are fossilized magnetic particles created by magnetotactic bacteria.
- They follow the magnetic field to reach places that have optimal oxygen concentration.
- They are tiny crystals made of the iron-rich minerals magnetite or greigite.
- All of these.
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Monuments of National Importance (MNI)
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) has decided to remove 18 “centrally protected monuments” from its list of Monuments of National Importance (MNI), citing a lack of national significance.
- ASI currently has 3,693 monuments under its purview, which will fall to 3,675 once the current delisting exercise is completed in the next few weeks.
What are Monuments of National Importance (MNI)?
- MNI in India are legally protected under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains (AMASR) Act, 1958.
- This act empowers the Centre to declare certain monuments as MNIs through official notifications published in the Gazette of India.
- It mandates the protection, preservation, and maintenance of MNIs to ensure their integrity and authenticity for future generations.
- The Act empowers the central government to appoint authorities, such as the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), to oversee the protection and management of MNIs.
Key Features of MNI Protection
- Prohibited Activities: The Act prohibits certain activities within the precincts of MNIs, such as construction, excavation, and removal of artifacts, without prior permission from the relevant authorities.
- Designated Zones: Within a 100-meter radius of the monument, construction activities are prohibited to prevent encroachment and damage. An additional 200-meter radius (100 + 200 meters) constitutes a regulated area where construction is subject to specific regulations to maintain the monument’s integrity and surroundings.
- Maintenance of Records: The Act requires the maintenance of records and registers documenting the history, conservation, and management of MNIs.
Understanding Monument Delisting
- Once delisted, monuments are no longer subject to ASI conservation efforts, allowing for regular construction activities in the vicinity.
- Section 35 of the AMASR Act allows for the delisting of monuments deemed to have lost national importance.
- The delisting process involves official notifications, with a two-month public feedback period to address objections or suggestions.
PYQ:
2015: With reference to art and archaeological history of India, which one among the following was made earliest?
- Lingaraja Temple at Bhubaneswar
- Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli
- Rock-cut Monuments at Mahabalipuram
- Varaha Image at Udayagiri
Practice MCQ:
The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) has decided to remove 18 “centrally protected monuments”. This essentially implies:
- The site will no longer be conserved, protected, and maintained by the ASI.
- Activities related to construction and urbanisation in the area can be carried out in a regular manner.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
- Only 1
- Only 2
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Captive Elephant Transfer Rules, 2024
Mains level: NA
What is the news?
- The Union Environment Ministry has notified a set of rules called the Captive Elephant (Transfer or Transport) Rules, 2024.
- Elephants, classified as Schedule I species under the Wildlife Protection Act, of 1972 enjoy special protection, but certain provisions allow for their translocation under specific circumstances.
Existing Regulations on Elephant Transfer
- Legal Framework: The Wildlife Protection Act, of 1972 prohibits the capture or trade of elephants, whether wild or captive, without appropriate authorization.
- Special Provisions: While strict regulations govern elephant transfer, exceptions exist for educational, scientific, or religious purposes, subject to approval from wildlife authorities.
- Amendment: The Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Bill, 2022 expanded the scope of elephant transfers, raising concerns among activists about potential exploitation and illegal trafficking.
Captive Elephant Transfer Rules, 2024: Key Highlights
- Circumstances for the Transfer of Captive Elephants:
Transfer may be warranted under the following circumstances:
- Incapability of the owner: When the owner is incapable of adequately ensuring the elephant’s welfare.
- Superior Care: If it is determined that the elephant will receive superior care in the new environment compared to its current situation.
- Improvised maintenance: The Chief Wildlife Warden may find it necessary to transfer the elephant for its improved maintenance based on the specific circumstances of the case.
- Transfer Within the State:
- Veterinarian Check: Prior to any transfer within the state, a veterinarian must confirm the elephant’s health status.
- New habitat verification: The suitability of both the current and prospective habitats must be assessed by the Deputy Conservator of Forests.
- Chief Wildlife Warden’s Role: He/She holds the authority to approve or reject the transfer based on these evaluations.
- Transfer Outside the State:
Similar conditions apply for transferring elephants beyond state boundaries in addition to-
- Genetic Profile Registration: Additionally, the elephant’s genetic profile must be registered with the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) before the transfer.
- Requirements for Elephant Transfer:
- Accompanying the Master: The elephant must be accompanied by a mahout and an elephant assistant. Adequate provisions for feeding and watering must be arranged during transport.
- Fitness Certificate: A health certificate issued by a veterinary practitioner confirming fitness for transport is obligatory.
- Quarantine Mandate: Transport should commence after the completion of any required quarantine period for contagious diseases.
- Refreshment: Tranquillisers or sedatives: This may be administered to manage nervous or temperamental elephants as prescribed by the veterinary practitioner.
PYQ:
2020: With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements:
- The leader of an elephant group is a female.
- The maximum gestation period can be 22 months.
- An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only.
- Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 4 only
- 3 only
- 1, 3 and 4 only
Practice MCQ:
With reference to the Captive Elephant Transfer Rules, 2024 recently notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change of India (MoEFCC), consider the following statements:
- For transferring outside of a state, an elephant’s genetic profile must be registered with the Environment Ministry before the transfer.
- The authority to approve or reject the transfer vests with the Principal Chief Conservator of Forests.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
- Only 1
- Only 2
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Kalyana Chalukya, their administration, arts, architecture etc.
Mains level: NA
What is the news?
A 900-year-old Kannada inscription from the Kalyana Chalukya dynasty has been discovered in a state of neglect at Gangapuram, a temple town in Jadcherla mandal, Mahabubnagar, Telangana.
- The inscription dates back to June 8, 1134 CE (Friday) and was issued by the Customs Officers of Tailapa-III, son of Kalyana Chalukya Emperor ‘Bhulokamalla’ Someswara-III.
- It records the remission of toll taxes for the perpetual lamp and incense of God Somanatha.
|
Who were the Chalukyas?

Origin and Expansion:
- The Chalukyas emerged as a prominent dynasty in the 6th century CE, with their capital at Badami in present-day Karnataka.
- Pulakeshin I, the founder of the dynasty, ascended to the throne around 543 CE and expanded the empire by defeating the Kadambas, Mauryas, and other neighboring kingdoms.
- Pulakeshin II, one of the most illustrious rulers of the Chalukyan Empire, ascended the throne in 610 CE and significantly expanded its territory through military conquests and diplomatic alliances.
- The empire reached its zenith under Pulakeshin II, extending its influence over large parts of Southern and Central India, including present-day Karnataka, Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Andhra Pradesh.
Dynastic Divisions:
- The Chalukyan Empire witnessed the emergence of multiple dynastic branches, including the Badami Chalukyas, Western Chalukyas (also known as the Later Chalukyas), and Eastern Chalukyas (also known as the Chalukyas of Vengi).
- Badami Chalukyas ruled from their capital at Badami and were known for their contributions to art, architecture, and literature.
- Western Chalukyas, based in Kalyani (present-day Basavakalyan), continued the legacy of their predecessors and established their dominance over parts of present-day Karnataka and Maharashtra.
- Eastern Chalukyas, based in Vengi (present-day Andhra Pradesh), carved out their own kingdom and played a crucial role in the political dynamics of South India.
Religion and Faith:
- The Chalukyas were patrons of art, literature, and architecture, fostering a rich cultural environment within their empire.
- They promoted Hinduism as the dominant religion and contributed to the construction of numerous temples dedicated to Hindu deities, including the famous Virupaksha Temple at Pattadakal.
- The Chalukyas also patronized Jainism and Buddhism, leading to the construction of Jain caves and monasteries in regions under their control.
Decline and Legacy:
- The Chalukyan Empire faced internal conflicts, dynastic rivalries, and external invasions, leading to its gradual decline from the 12th century onwards.
- The defeat of Vikramaditya VI by the Cholas in the 12th century marked the end of the Western Chalukya dynasty, while the Eastern Chalukyas continued to rule in Vengi until the 13th century.
Administration:
- The empire was divided into administrative units known as ‘Rashtras or Mandalas’, each governed by a local administrative officer known as a ‘Mandaleshwara’.
- At the higher levels of administration, provincial governors known as ‘Rashtrakutas’ were appointed to oversee multiple mandalas and report directly to the king.
- Revenue administration played a crucial role in sustaining the empire, with land revenue being the primary source of income. The empire maintained a sophisticated system of land measurement and taxation to ensure a steady flow of revenue.
Arts and Culture:
- Sculpture flourished under the patronage of the Chalukya rulers, with exquisite examples of stone carvings adorning temple complexes and royal monuments.
- The famous Nataraja sculpture at Pattadakal, depicting Lord Shiva in his cosmic dance pose, is a masterpiece of Chalukyan art.
- Pampa, a court poet of the Chalukyas, composed the epic poem “Vikramarjuna Vijaya” (also known as “Pampa Bharata” or “Pampa Ramayana”) in Kannada, narrating the story of the Mahabharata from the perspective of Arjuna.
- The Chalukyan era witnessed the development of classical dance forms like Bharatanatyam, as evidenced by sculptures found in temples such as the Mallikarjuna Temple at Pattadakal.
- Ranna, a prominent Kannada poet of the Chalukyan period, composed the “Ajita Tirthankara Purana,” an epic poem celebrating the lives of the Jain Tirthankaras.
Architecture:
- Chalukyan temples are architectural marvels, characterized by their distinctive Dravidian and Nagara styles collectively called the ‘Gadag Style’ .
- The Virupaksha Temple at Pattadakal, built by the Chalukyan king Vikramaditya II in the 8th century, is a UNESCO World Heritage Site renowned for its intricate carvings and towering gopurams (entrance gateways).
- Similarly, the Durga Temple at Aihole, dating back to the 7th century, showcases exemplary Chalukyan architecture with its ornate pillars and sculpted panels depicting Hindu deities and mythological scenes.
PYQ:
2019: Building ‘Kalyaana Mandapas’ was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of
- Chalukya
- Chandela
- Rashtrakuta
- Vijayanagara
Practice MCQ:
The ‘Gadag Style’ of Temple Architecture is associated with which of the following dynasties?
- Chalukya
- Kakatiya
- Rashtrakuta
- Kadamba
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Laws governing Loans/Lending in India
Mains level: NA
What is the news?
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has undertaken rigorous regulatory actions to address lenders’ over-exuberance, enhance compliance culture, and protect customers.
RBI’s Regulatory Actions: An Overview
- Recent Examples: Recent regulatory moves by the RBI, such as restraining lending by IIFL Finance and JM Financial Products, and implementing restrictions on customer onboarding at Paytm Payments Bank, mark a departure from historically nominal financial penalties.
- Implications: S&P Global Ratings predicts that these actions will escalate the cost of capital and moderate loan growth in the fiscal year 2024-25, projecting a decrease from 16% to 14%.
|
How RBI regulates Lenders in India?
- Licensing and Regulation:
- The Banking Regulation Act, 1949 empowers RBI to grant licenses to banks and regulate their operations.
- Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) are regulated under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 and governed by guidelines issued by RBI under Section 45-IA of the RBI Act.
- Prudential Regulations:
- RBI issues prudential regulations under various Acts, including the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 and the RBI Act, 1934.
- These regulations include guidelines on capital adequacy (Basel III norms), asset classification, provisioning norms, liquidity management, exposure limits, and risk management practices.
- Non-compliance with these regulations may attract penalties or other enforcement actions under the relevant Acts.
- Supervision and Monitoring:
- RBI conducts supervision and monitoring of banks and NBFCs under Section 35A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 and Section 45L of the RBI Act, 1934.
- It has the authority to conduct on-site inspections, off-site surveillance, and review financial reports to assess compliance with regulatory requirements.
- RBI may issue directives, guidelines, or corrective actions under Section 35A and Section 45L to address deficiencies identified during supervision.
- Policy Framework:
- Monetary policy frameworks are governed by the RBI Act, 1934 and the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934, which empower RBI to formulate and implement monetary policies.
- RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) sets key policy rates such as the repo rate, reverse repo rate, and statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) to regulate credit flow, inflation, and overall economic conditions.
- Consumer Protection:
- RBI issues guidelines under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 and the RBI Act, 1934 to ensure fair practices and consumer protection in banking and NBFC operations.
- The Banking Ombudsman Scheme, 2006 provides a mechanism for redressal of customer grievances against banks.
- Violations of consumer protection norms may result in penalties or enforcement actions under the relevant Acts.
- Financial Stability:
- RBI’s mandate to maintain financial stability is enshrined in the RBI Act, 1934.
- It monitors systemic risks, including interconnectedness among lenders, under Section 45J of the RBI Act, 1934, and takes measures to mitigate risks to financial stability.
- RBI may intervene in the interest of financial stability under Section 45W of the RBI Act, 1934, to prevent disruptions to the functioning of the financial system.
PYQ:
2012: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers’ bank. This would imply which of the following?
- Banks retain their deposits with the RBI.
- The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need.
- The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Payment Banks’ in India:
- Payment Banks have the authority to accept demand deposits but are prohibited from issuing credit cards, disbursing loans, offering mutual funds units, and providing insurance products.
- Unlike scheduled commercial banks, Payment Banks are exempted from the obligation to maintain a cash reserve ratio with the Reserve Bank.
- Payment Banks are mandated to invest a minimum of 75% of their demand deposit balances in Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) eligible Government securities/treasury bills.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
- One
- Two
- Three
- None
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF) and its management
Mains level: NA
What is the news?
- The Karnataka government has approached the Supreme Court against the Union government, seeking the release of drought relief funds from the National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF).
- This disagreement marks the second major dispute after alleged ‘injustice’ in tax devolution and other allocations.
Extent of Drought and Water Scarcity in Karnataka
- Rainfall Deficit: During the last monsoon season, Karnataka experienced significant rainfall deficits, exacerbating the drought situation and affecting agricultural productivity.
- Drought conditions: Karnataka faces extensive drought conditions, with 223 out of 236 taluks (mandals) declared as drought-hit areas, resulting in substantial crop loss.
- Compensation Sought: The state has sought substantial financial assistance from the Centre, amounting to Rs 18,171 crores, to address the damages caused by drought.
Karnataka’s Writ Petition to the Supreme Court
- Legal Action: Karnataka’s petition under Article 32 of the Constitution seeks relief against the Union government’s alleged inaction in providing financial assistance for drought management.
- Basis of Petition: The petition argues that the delay in releasing funds violates fundamental rights guaranteed under Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution, pertaining to equality before the law and protection of life and personal liberty.
|
What is National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF)?
- The NDRF is a statutory body constituted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
- It supplements State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) of a State, in case of a disaster of severe nature, provided adequate funds are not available in SDRF.
- The July 2015 guidelines states that natural calamities of cyclone, drought, earthquake, fire, flood, tsunami, hailstorm, landslide, avalanche, cloud burst, pest attack and cold wave and frost will qualify for immediate relief assistance from NDRF.
- NDRF is managed in the “Public Accounts” under “Reserve Funds not bearing interest”.
- The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) audits the accounts of NDRF.
Disaster Relief for Indian states
- Under the 2005 Disaster Management Act, there is no definition of disasters.
- It can include any event arising from natural or man-made causes that can severely disrupt life for people, going beyond their coping capacity.
- The 15th Finance Commission introduced a new methodology for state-wise allocations, considering factors like past expenditure, risk exposure, hazard, and vulnerability.
Institutional Mechanism
- States have the State Disaster Relief Funds (SDRF).
- The Centre contributes 75% of the funds (and 90% for Himalayan and NE states) and states contribute the remainder.
- The total amount is decided as part of the budgetary allocations and released periodically by the Centre.
In case a state needs the Centre’s assistance, it must follow a procedure:
- It should detail the extent of the damage in a memorandum and submit it
- If this is acknowledged by Centre, an Inter-Ministerial Central Team (IMCT) conducts on-ground inspections to survey the damage
- A National Executive Team analyses the IMCT report
- Based on its recommendations, a High Level Committee shall approve the release of immediate relief from NDRF.
Additionally, the Union Ministry of Home Affairs oversees the utilisation of NDRF releases.
PYQ:
2014: Drought has been recognized as a disaster in view of its spatial expanse, temporal duration, slow onset and lasting effects on vulnerable sections. With a focus on the September 2010 guidelines from the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), discuss the mechanisms for preparedness to deal with likely El Nino and La Nina fallouts in India.
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements about National Disaster response fund (NDRF):
- NDRF is a part of consolidated fund of India.
- Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) audits the accounts of NDRF.
Which among the above statements is/are correct?
- Only 1
- Only 2
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Krishi ICCC
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
Agriculture Minister has recently inaugurated the Krishi Integrated Command and Control Centre (ICCC) at Krishi Bhavan in New Delhi.
What is Krishi ICCC?
- The ICCC incorporates multiple IT applications and platforms to provide actionable insights and aid informed decision-making.
- 8 large LED screens display crucial information such as crop yields, production, drought situation, cropping patterns, and relevant trends in graphical format.
- The dashboard offers insights, alerts, and feedback on agriculture schemes, programs, projects, and initiatives, empowering stakeholders with comprehensive information.
Data used by Krishi ICCC
The ICCC will enable comprehensive monitoring of the farm sector by making available at one place geospatial information received from multiple sources such as:
- Plot-level data received through Soil Survey;
- Weather data from the India Meteorological Department (IMD);
- Sowing data from Digital Crop Survey;
- Farmer- and farm-related data from Krishi MApper, an application for geo-fencing and geo-tagging of land;
- Market intelligence information from the Unified Portal for Agricultural Statistics (UPAg); and
- Yield estimation data from the General Crop Estimation Survey (GCES).
Objectives and Functionality
- Comprehensive Monitoring: The ICCC aims to enable comprehensive monitoring of the farm sector by consolidating geospatial information from various sources, including remote sensing, weather data, soil surveys, and market intelligence.
- Decision Support: Integrated visualization facilitates quick and efficient decision-making by policymakers and stakeholders, supported by real-time data and analysis.
Farmer-Specific Advisories and Practical Applications
- Individual Farmer Advisories: The ICCC has the potential to generate individual farmer-specific advisories through apps like Kisan e-Mitra (a chatbot developed for PM-Kisan beneficiaries), leveraging AI and machine learning to customize recommendations based on farmer data.
Practical Applications:
-
- Farmer’s Advisory: Visualizations of GIS-based soil mapping, soil health card data, and weather-related information enable customized advisories on crop selection and agricultural practices.
- Drought Actions: Correlation of yield data with weather patterns allows proactive measures to mitigate the impact of droughts.
- Crop Diversification: Analysis of crop diversification maps helps identify regions suitable for diversified cropping, optimizing agricultural productivity.
- Farm Data Repository: The Krishi Decision Support System (K-DSS) acts as an agriculture data repository, facilitating evidence-based decision-making and the preparation of customized advisories for farmers.
- Validation of Yield: The ICCC enables the validation of yield data captured through different applications, ensuring accuracy and reliability.
PYQ:
2018: With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (CACSA)’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.
- Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
- India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Practice MCQ:
What is the primary objective of the Krishi ICCC (Integrated Command and Control Centre)?
- To provide real-time market prices of agricultural products.
- To consolidate geospatial information from various sources for comprehensive monitoring of the farm sector.
- To offer financial support to farmers through direct benefit transfer schemes.
- To facilitate the construction of irrigation projects in rural areas.
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Robusta, Arabica Variety
Mains level: NA

What is the news?
- Robusta Coffee farmers in South India are celebrating as their produce fetches an all-time high price.
- The farmgate price of raw Robusta coffee berries reached ₹172 per kilogram (kg) in the Wayanad market, a significant increase from ₹115 per kg last year.
Coffee Cultivation in India
- The coffee cultivation in India began with the planting of 7 seeds of coffee during 1600 AD by saint Baba Budan, in the courtyard of his hermitage in Chikmagalur, Karnataka.
- Commercial plantations of coffee started in the 18th century under British entrepreneurship.
- Today, India is among the top 10 coffee-producing countries, with about 3% of the global output.
Major Varieties Cultivated
|
Characteristics |
Altitude Range |
Flavor Profile |
Popular Varieties |
Regions |
Arabica Coffee |
Known for mild flavor, aromatic profile, and smooth taste. |
800 – 1600 meters above sea level |
Mild, slightly sweeter, softer taste |
Kents, S.795, Cauvery, Chandragiri |
Coorg (Karnataka), Wayanad (Kerala), Nilgiris (Tamil Nadu), Chikmagalur (Karnataka) |
Robusta Coffee |
Characterized by strong and bold flavor, higher caffeine content, and somewhat bitter taste. |
Sea level to about 800 meters |
Strong, bold, somewhat bitter |
S.274, CxR hybrids |
Chikmagalur (Karnataka), Coorg (Karnataka), Wayanad (Kerala), Araku Valley (Andhra Pradesh) |
Liberica and Excelsa |
Less common varieties, with limited plantings in specific regions. |
Variable |
Variable |
Variable |
Limited plantings; sporadic regions |
Agro-climatic conditions needed for Coffee:
- Indian coffee has a unique position as it is shade-grown and grown at elevations, while other major producing countries grow coffee in flat lands.
- It is a tropical plant which is also grown in semi-tropical climate.
- 16° – 28°C temperature, 150-250cm rainfall and well-drained slopes are essential for its growth.
- Low temperature, frost, dry weather for a long time and harsh sunshine are harmful for its plant.
- Coffee plants grow better in the laterite soils of Karnataka in India.
Market Dynamics
- Karnataka is the largest producer accounting for about 70% of the total coffee production in India.
- It is followed by Kerala and Tamil Nadu. Orissa and the North-eastern areas have a smaller proportion of production.
- Arabica has high market value than Robusta coffee due to its mild aromatic flavor.
- The country exports over 70% of its production. According to The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), India is the eighth largest exporter of coffee by volume.
- Indian coffee exports display a seasonality, with exports peaking from March to June.
Coffee Board of India
- The Coffee Board of India is an organization managed by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry and was established in 1942.
- It is headquartered in Bangalore.
- The activities of the Board are broadly aimed at:
- Enhancement of production, productivity & quality;
- Export promotion for achieving higher value returns for Indian Coffee and
- Supporting development of Domestic market.
- Until 1995 the Coffee Board marketed the coffee of a pooled supply.
- Later, coffee marketing became a private-sector activity due to the economic liberalisation in India.
- The Board comprises 33 members including the Chairman, who is the Chief Executive and appointed by the Government of India.
|
PYQ:
2010: Though coffee and tea both are cultivated on hill slopes, there is some difference between them regarding their cultivation. In this context, consider the following statements:
- Coffee plant requires a hot and humid climate of tropical areas whereas tea can be cultivated in both tropical and subtropical areas.
- Coffee is propagated by seeds but tea is propagated by stem cuttings only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Practice MCQ:
With reference to the Coffee Cultivation in India, consider the following statements:
- Kerala is the largest producer accounting for about 70% of the total coffee production in India.
- Robusta coffee has high market value than Arabica due to its mild aromatic flavor.
- Indian coffee exports display a perennial nature.
How many of the given statements is/are correct?
- One
- Two
- Three
- None
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Corals, Coral bleaching, Gulf of Mannar
Mains level: NA

What is the news?
- Rising sea temperatures have triggered severe bleaching events, leading to significant coral mortality in Gulf of Mannar.
- Annual surveys show a decline in live coral cover from 37% in 2005 to 27.3% in 2021.
Corals in Gulf of Mannar
- The Gulf of Mannar is a large shallow bay forming part of the Laccadive Sea in the Indian Ocean with an average depth of 5.8 m.
- It lies between the southeastern tip of India and the west coast of Sri Lanka, in the Coromandel Coast region.
- A significant portion of the Gulf of Mannar is designated as the Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park, established to protect its marine ecosystems, including coral reefs.
- The park covers approximately 560 square kilometers and encompasses 21 islands and coral reefs.
- Around 117 hard coral species have been recorded in the Gulf of Mannar.
- Many islands, like Shingle, Krusadai, and Pullivasal, have witnessed substantial losses in coral cover.
- For instance, Shingle Island suffered the most with the loss of 72% of its coral cover.
|
About Corals
- Coral are made up of genetically identical organisms called polyps.
- These polyps have microscopic algae called zooxanthellae living within their tissues in a mutualistic relationship.
- The coral provides the zooxanthellae with the compounds necessary for photosynthesis.
- In return, the zooxanthellae supply the coral with organic products of photosynthesis, like carbohydrates, which are utilized by the coral polyps for synthesis of their calcium carbonate skeletons.
- Corals are marine invertebrates or animals which do not possess a spine.
- They are the largest living structures on the planet.
- Each coral is called a polyp and thousands of such polyps live together to form a colony, which grow when polyps multiply to make copies of themselves.
- Coral reefs are also called the “rainforests of the seas”.
Types of Coral
Corals are of two types — hard corals and soft corals:
- Hard corals extract calcium carbonate from seawater to build hard, white coral exoskeletons. Hard corals are in a way the engineers of reef ecosystems and measuring the extent of hard coral is a widely-accepted metric for measuring the condition of coral reefs.
- Soft corals attach themselves to such skeletons and older skeletons built by their ancestors. Soft corals also add their own skeletons to the hard structure over the years. These growing multiplying structures gradually form coral reefs.
Conditions needed for Corals to Flourish
- Extensive submarine platforms for the formation of colonies by the coral polyps (not more than 90m below sea level).
- High mean annual temperature ranging 20-21 degree Celsius.
- Clean sediment-free water because muddy water or turbid water clogs the mouths of coral polyps resulting into their death.
- Oceanic salinity ranging between 27-30 ppt.
- Ocean currents and waves, as they bring food supply for the polyps.
How do corals bleach?
- When exposed to conditions like heat stress, pollution, or high levels of ocean acidity, the zooxanthellae start producing reactive oxygen species not beneficial to the corals.
- So, the corals kick out the colour-giving algae from their polyps, exposing their pale white exoskeleton and leading to coral starvation as corals cannot produce their own food.
- Severe bleaching and prolonged stress in the external environment can lead to coral death.
Reasons for the Decline
- Climatic Vagaries: Predicted coral bleaching events pose a dire threat to the already fragile ecosystem of the Gulf of Mannar. The IPCC predicts a decline of 70-90% in global coral reefs with a warming of 1.5°C.
- Ocean Acidification: Increased acidity levels in the ocean due to carbon dioxide absorption exacerbate coral stress and hinder their ability to calcify.
PYQ:
2014: Which of the following have coral reefs?
- Andaman and Nicobar Islands
- Gulf of Kachchh
- Gulf of Mannar
- Sunderbans
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1, 2 and 3 only
- 2 and 4 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2, 3 and 4
2018: Consider the following statements
- Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters.
- More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.
- Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 3 only
- 1and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now