Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Caracals and their habitat in India
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- With only an estimated 50 individuals remaining, predominantly in western India, the caracal (Caracal caracal schmitzi) is on the verge of extinction in the country.
- Ranthambhore Tiger Reserve in Rajasthan and Kutch in Gujarat are the last strongholds for caracals in India, hosting around 28 and 20 individuals, respectively.
About Caracals
- Caracals are small wild cats known for their long ears with tufts and a reddish-tan or sandy-brown fur. It is called Siya Gosh in India.
- It is nocturnal animal typically preys upon small mammals, birds, and rodents.
- They live naturally in India, especially in Northwestern India. They are also found in Africa, the Middle East, and Central Asia.
- They are found in Aravalli hill range, semi-deserts, savannahs, scrublands, and dry forests.
- Caracals used to live all over Central India and the Indo-Gangetic plains, but they haven’t been spotted in those areas for 40 years.
Conservation Status
- Caracals are listed as ‘Least Concern‘ on the IUCN Red List globally.
- It is listed as Near Threatened in India,
- It falls in the Schedule-I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Protection Efforts
- In 2021, the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) and the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MOEFCC) announced a plan to recover and increase the population of 22 species in India, including caracals.
- Areas like Kutch, Aravalli mountains, Malwa plateau, and Bundelkhand region have been identified as potential habitats, with the Ranthambore-Kuno Landscape being a key conservation site.
PYQ:
2017:
In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply?
(a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.
(b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under captive protection; and now it is impossible to prevent its extinction.
(c) It is endemic to a particular region of India.
(d) Both B and C stated above are correct in this context. |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
The Forest Department and a temple authority at Ahobilam have imposed certain restrictions on visitors arriving at a shrine in Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve (NSTR).
About Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
|
Details |
| Origin of Name |
Named after Nagarjuna Sagar Dam and Srisailam Dam. |
| Location |
Situated in the Nallamala hill range, part of the Eastern Ghats in Andhra Pradesh. |
| Area |
Largest tiger reserve area in India, covering a total area of 3727 sq km. |
| Wildlife Sanctuaries |
Constituted by the Rajiv Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary and the Gundla Brahmeswaram Wildlife Sanctuary. |
| Vegetation |
Features tropical, dry, moist, deciduous vegetation with diverse flora and fauna. |
| Topography |
Consists of plateaus, ridges, gorges, and deep valleys. |
| River Krishna |
Traverses through the reserve for approximately 270 kilometers. |
| Additional Information |
- Attained tiger reserve status in 1983.
- Home to Bengal tigers, Indian leopards, and more.
- Habitat contains several endemic species of plants.
- Tropical dry deciduous forests with bamboo and grass undergrowth.
|
PYQ:
2020:
Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”?
(a) Corbett
(b) Ranthambore
(c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam
(d) Sunderbans
2015:
Consider the following pairs :
Place of Pilgrimage: Location
1. Srisailam : Nallamala Hills
2. Omkareshwar : Satmala Hills
3. Pushkar : Mahadeo Hills
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Practice MCQ:
It is the largest tiger reserve in India, covering a total area of 3727 sq km. It is constituted by the Rajiv Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary and the Gundla Brahmeswaram Wildlife Sanctuary and features tropical, dry, moist, deciduous vegetation with diverse flora and fauna.
Which protected area is implied by the above description?
(a) Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
(b) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
(c) Kalakkad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
(d) Biligiriranga Swamy Temple Tiger Reserve |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: OptiDrop, C-MAP, Cytometry
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
The Centre for Cellular and Molecular Platforms (C-CAMP) in Bengaluru has unveiled OptiDrop platform designed to simplify and significantly reduce the cost of studying single cells.
About C-CAMP
- C-CAMP Initiative was established in 2009 under the aegis of the Department of Biotechnology, Ministry of Science, Technology, and Earth Sciences.
- It stands as India’s premier biosciences research and innovation hub.
|
What is OptiDrop?
- OptiDrop presents a cost-effective alternative to traditional flow cytometry methods, making single-cell analysis more accessible to a broader range of researchers and institutions.
- OptiDrop simplifies single-cell analysis by encapsulating individual cells within droplets, facilitating easier manipulation and analysis compared to traditional methods.
- Key features such as affordability, live data visualization, compact design, and closed-system architecture enhance its suitability for diverse clinical applications.
| Cytometry is the measurement of number and characteristics of cells. Variables that can be measured by cytometric methods include cell size, cell count, cell morphology (shape and structure), cell cycle phase, DNA content, and the existence or absence of specific proteins on the cell surface or in the cytoplasm. |
Applications of OptiDrop
- Expansive Utility: OptiDrop unlocks various downstream applications, including drug screening, environmental monitoring, immunotherapy, and single-cell genomics, revolutionizing research across multiple domains.
- Advanced Research Capabilities: Researchers can leverage OptiDrop to study individual cell behavior during drug screenings, identify and monitor environmental contaminants, sort specialized cell populations, and explore genetic heterogeneity within cell populations.
Benefits offered by OptiDrop
- Accessible Technology: Unlike conventional cytometers, which can cost up to Rs 40 lakh or more, OptiDrop offers a cost-efficient solution likely priced around Rs 10 lakh, making it accessible to a broader range of research labs and institutions.
- Affordable Scalability: OptiDrop’s affordable pricing and scalable design allow institutions of varying sizes to adopt the technology, democratizing access to cutting-edge single-cell analysis capabilities.
- Long-Term Sustainability: By reducing the barrier to entry for single-cell analysis, OptiDrop paves the way for sustainable and impactful research initiatives, driving innovation and discovery in the life sciences.
PYQ:
2020:
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the general difference between plant and animal-calls?
1. Plant cells have cellulose cell walls whilst animal cells do not.
2. Plant cells do not have plasma membrane unlike animal cells which do.
3. Mature plant cell has one large vacuole whilst animal cell has many small vacuoles.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Practice MCQ:
The OptiDrop equipment recently seen in news finds application in:
(a) Cytometry
(b) Astronomy
(c) Geology
(d) Radiometry |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Mother of Dragons Comet, Its features
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- The “Mother of Dragons” comet, officially named Comet 12P/Pons-Brooks, is making a rare appearance in the Northern Hemisphere skies.
- This Halley-type comet, completing its orbit every 71 years, has emerged marking its first sighting since 1954.
What is a Comet?
- A comet is a celestial object composed primarily of ice, dust, and rocky particles that orbit the Sun in elongated, elliptical paths.
- These icy bodies originate from the outer regions of the solar system, specifically from two regions: the Kuiper Belt and the Oort Cloud.
- Comets are often referred to as “dirty snowballs” or “icy dirtballs” due to their composition.
- Halley’s Comet is a short-period comet visible from Earth every 75–79 years.
- It was last seen in Earth’s skies in 1986 and was met in space by an international fleet of spacecraft. It will return in 2061 on its regular journey around the Sun.
|
About Mother of Dragons Comet
- It is named by the European Space Agency (ESA).
- The comet’s name is inspired by its link to the annual “kappa-Draconids” meteor shower, active from November 29 to December 13 each year.
- It has a width of 17 km. the comet features an elliptical orbit adorned with a mysterious spiral of luminous light enveloping its icy nucleus.
- It is comprised of ice, dust, rock, and diatomic carbon molecules.
- It dissipates a radiant emerald hue when illuminated by the sun, captivating observers with its bright green appearance.
Display Features of the Comet
- Renowned for its cryovolcanic eruptions, the comet periodically ejects material from its icy core into space, resulting in breath-taking luminosity.
- Its most recent eruption in July 2023, after 69 years, earned it the moniker “devil comet” due to its dramatic outburst, resembling horns likely caused by internal features.
PYQ:
2014:
What is a coma, in the content of astronomy?
(a) Bright half of material on the comet
(b) Long tail of dust
(c) Two asteroids orbiting each other
(d) Two planets orbiting each other
Practice MCQ:
With reference to the “Mother of Dragons” Comet, consider the following statements:
1. It is named by the NASA.
2. It is comprised of ice, dust, rock, and diatomic carbon molecules.
3. It makes appearances after every 10 years.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) None |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Tokamak Technology, Nuclear Fusion
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- South Korean scientists at the Korea Institute of Fusion Energy (KFE) achieved a significant milestone by producing temperatures of 100 million Celsius for 48 seconds in the Korea Superconducting Tokamak Advanced Research (KSTAR) fusion reactor.
- KSTAR maintained the high confinement mode (H-mode) for over 100 seconds, demonstrating stability in plasma conditions crucial for sustained fusion reactions.
- This is a world record.
What is Tokamak Technology?
- Scientists utilize a tokamak, a donut-shaped reactor, to heat hydrogen variants to extreme temperatures, creating plasma.
- This reactor replicates the Sun’s fusion reaction, generating immense heat energy.
|
What is Nuclear Fusion?
- Nuclear fusion involves fusion of hydrogen and other light elements to release massive energy, akin to the process that powers the Sun and stars.
- It is a process where two light atomic nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus, releasing a large amount of energy in the process.
- This occurs under extremely high temperatures, typically in the range of tens of millions of degrees Celsius, and pressure, similar to those found in the core of stars.
- In a tokamak reactor, hydrogen variants are heated to extreme temperatures to create a plasma, mimicking conditions found in the Sun’s core.
- 1 kg of fusion fuel contains about 10 million times as much energy as a kg of coal, oil or gas.
Significance of KSTAR’s achievements
- Achieving sustained fusion reactions in laboratory conditions unlocks the potential for unlimited, zero-carbon electricity generation.
- By extending the duration of high-temperature fusion, scientists aim to sustain plasma temperatures of 100 million degrees for 300 seconds by 2026, pushing the boundaries of fusion research.
- Progress in fusion research at KSTAR contributes to international efforts, supporting projects like the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) in France.
ITER Project
- ITER is a unique partnership of nations jointly responsible for the construction, operation, and decommissioning of an experimental fusion facility.
- It was founded in 2007 and is based at Saint-Paul-lez-Durance, France.
- ITER being an experimental reactor, it will allow the study of fusion reaction which governs the Sun and other Stars.
- Nuclear fusion will take place in the form of Plasma in a Tokamak.
ITER is run, funded and designed by 7 members:
- European Union (EU)
- India
- China
- Japan
- Russia
- South Korea
- United States
|
Benefits offered by Nuclear Fusion Energy
- Clean Energy: Fusion reactions produce minimal radioactive waste compared to nuclear fission, which generates long-lived radioactive waste. Fusion also emits no greenhouse gases, making it an environmentally friendly energy source.
- Safety and Controlled Nature: Fusion reactions are inherently safer than nuclear fission reactions. Fusion reactors have a lower risk of accidents and do not produce runaway chain reactions like fission reactors.
- Energy Security: Fusion provides a reliable and secure source of energy, reducing dependence on fossil fuels and volatile energy markets. It offers a sustainable solution to meet global energy demand.
- High Energy Density: Fusion reactions release a vast amount of energy compared to other energy sources. This high energy density makes fusion power compact and efficient, enabling it to meet large-scale energy needs.
- Scalability: Fusion reactors can be designed to scale up or down to meet varying energy demands. They can serve as base-load power plants or complement renewable energy sources, providing flexibility in the energy mix.
- Minimal Environmental Impact: Fusion power plants have a small footprint and do not require large mining operations or fuel transportation, reducing their environmental impact. They also produce no air pollution or carbon emissions during operation.
PYQ:
2016:
India is an important member of the ‘International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor’. If this experiment succeeds, what is the immediate advantage for India?
(a) It can use thorium in place of uranium for power generation
(b) It can attain a global role in satellite navigation
(c) It can drastically improve the efficiency of its fission reactors in power generation
(d) It can build fusion reactors for power generation
Practice MCQ:
The Korea Superconducting Tokamak Advanced Research (KSTAR) fusion reactor has recently set a world record. In this regard, consider the following statements:
1. It produced a temperatures of 100 million Celsius for 48 seconds.
2. It achieved sustained fusion reactions in laboratory conditions.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Job for Resilience Report
Mains level: Main findings in this report
Why in the News?
Recently, the ‘Job for Resilience Report’ was published by the World Bank. The Report talks about how the South Asia region including India is not making use of its demographic dividend.
- The pace of job creation in the region fell well short of the growth in the working-age population, even as it projected a strong 6.0-6.1% growth for 2024-25 for the region in its South Asia region.’
Main findings in this report:
The South Asia’s labor markets as Emerging markets and developing economies:
- Declining employment ratio: South Asia’s employment weakened from 2000–23, despite a 6% post-pandemic surge. While most EMDEs remained stable, South Asia declined by 2%, with varied changes within.
- Low employment ratios: Except for Nepal, South Asian countries have employment ratios significantly lower than other EMDEs, with South Asia’s ratio at 59%, notably lower than the 70% average elsewhere in 2023.
- Employment weakness for men and women: In South Asia, men’s employment ratios declined over two decades, compared with other EMDEs. Women’s ratios, persistently low and half those elsewhere, primarily contribute to South Asia’s lower overall employment rates.
- A missing engine of growth: In the 2010s, South Asia experienced a surge in labor productivity growth, which later declined below the EMDE average from 2020–23. Unlike other EMDEs, South Asia’s output growth relied heavily on labor productivity growth and working-age population expansion. However, declining employment ratios hampered output growth.
Report on Indian Scenario:
- Trends in employment and labor productivity: India’s employment growth in the 2010s was weak but rebounded post-pandemic. The employment ratio declined significantly until 2022 but partially recovered by 3 percentage points in 2023.
- Migrant workers: In India, Migrant workers returned to rural areas, and emigration from rural areas slowed, during the pandemic.5 India has the region’s second-largest share of workers in agriculture (44 per cent) after Nepal.
- Employment composition: India’s industrial employment grows with public investments, eased labor regulations, and contract labor. The services sector, led by IT, BPO, and healthcare, thrives on a skilled workforce and digital infrastructure, limiting opportunities for unskilled labor.
Measures to address the challenges highlighted in the Report:
- Skill Development Programs: Implementing extensive skill development programs to equip the workforce with the necessary skills demanded by the evolving job market, focusing on both technical and soft skills.
- Labour Market Reforms: Continuously reviewing and refining labor regulations to strike a balance between protecting workers’ rights and fostering a conducive environment for job creation and investment.
- Promotion of Inclusive Growth: Implementing policies aimed at promoting inclusive growth, particularly focusing on increasing women’s participation in the workforce through measures like affordable childcare, flexible work arrangements, and addressing cultural barriers.
- Investment in Infrastructure: Continued investment in infrastructure development to facilitate the growth of industries and services, creating more employment opportunities, particularly in rural areas.
- Enhancing Productivity: Implementing measures to enhance productivity across sectors through technological advancements, innovation, and efficient resource allocation.
Conclusion: World Bank warns South Asia, including India, risks wasting demographic dividend due to declining employment ratios and low productivity growth. Urgent measures needed: skill development, labor reforms, inclusive growth promotion, infrastructure investment, and productivity enhancement.
With inputs from:
https://openknowledge.worldbank.org/server/api/core/bitstreams/4ec19c2d-65fd-4523-8020-338f0cb98523/content
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Global Currency
Mains level: Indian Trades;
Why in the news?
PM Modi asked the RBI to prepare a 10-year strategy to make the Indian rupee a globally “accessible and acceptable” currency and to meet the credit needs of every segment of the country
What is Global Currency?
A global currency refers to a single currency that is used by every country in the world. This concept involves all nations adopting the same currency for international trade and transactions |
What are the major challenges for India to make Rupeea a Global Currency?
- Economic Stability: The Indian economy would need to demonstrate consistent stability and growth to inspire confidence among international investors and users of the currency.
- Liquidity in Financial Market Development: These markets need to be deep and liquid to accommodate large volumes of international transactions denominated in INR.
- Capital Controls: India currently has restrictions on capital flows in and out of the country. These would need to be eased to facilitate international trade and investment denominated in INR.
- Legal and Regulatory Framework: There would need to be robust legal and regulatory frameworks in place to govern the use of the INR in international transactions, including clearing and settlement systems, as well as dispute resolution mechanisms.
- International/ Investors Acceptance: Convincing other countries, businesses, and individuals to adopt the INR as a global currency would require concerted diplomatic efforts, as well as initiatives to promote its use in international trade and finance.
- Currency Convertibility: Full convertibility of the INR would be necessary for it to become a global currency.
Indian Efforts to Make Rupee a Global Currency:
- RBI’s Roadmap for Rupee Internationalization: The RBI has published a report outlining a roadmap for the internationalization of the Rupee. This roadmap recommends actions such as including the Rupee in the Special Drawing Rights (SDR) basket, promoting its use in trade invoicing and settlement, facilitating its use in offshore markets, and developing financial products denominated in Rupees.
- Promoting Use of Local Currencies for Cross-Border Transactions: India has been engaging in agreements with countries like the UAE to promote the use of local currencies, including the Rupee, for cross-border transactions.
Way Forward:
- Need for Transactions in Rupee: To be an accepted International Currency, the Indian rupee is to be freely used in transactions by residents and non-residents and as a reserve currency for global trade.
- Need to increase the Exports: Indian Trades need to be promoted beyond the Asian region. All export and import transactions need to be invoiced in Indian rupees.
- Reducing the Constraints: Legal and Regulatory frameworks need to be freed to attract investors for their business profits without hampering security concerns.
https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/lets-make-a-global-currency-pm-to-rbi-101711996093588.html
https://theprint.in/opinion/indian-rupee-can-become-global-reserve-currency-but-modi-govt-must-bring-reforms-for-that/1738000/
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Environment Protection Act,1986; National Green Tribunal (NGT);
Mains level: Judiciary; National Green Tribunal (NGT);
Why in the News?
Recently, the SC revoked the notification given by the Environment Ministry to exempt the extraction of ordinary earth for linear projects, such as road and railway construction.
- It was challenged before the National Green Tribunal (NGT), which asked the Ministry to review it within three months. However, the Ministry did not take any action, leading the matter to reach the SC.
What are the linear projects?
Linear projects refer to Construction or Development Projects. It includes the construction of linear structures like utility lines, pipelines, railroad tracks, highways, stormwater channels, and stream restoration activities. |
What was the 2020 exemption?
- September 2006: The Environment Ministry issued a notification under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, on activities that would require prior Environmental Clearance.
- January 2016: A second notification was issued, exempting certain categories of projects from this requirement.
- March 2020: It added “Extraction or sourcing or borrowing of ordinary earth for the linear projects such as roads, pipelines, etc” to the list of exempted activities.
- The general purpose of the 2020 notification was to conform to the amendments made to the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, in March 2020, allowing new lessees to continue mining for two years with the statutory clearances and licenses issued to their predecessors.
Nexus between the Judiciary and the Union Government (Ground for Challenges)
-
- Judicial stand: The SC invalidated the broad and random exception, highlighting that the announcement was rushed during the COVID-19 lockdown without seeking feedback or objections through prior notification.
- The exemption granted without incorporating safeguards was deemed arbitrary and violative of Article 14 of the Constitution.
- The court emphasized that the absence of safeguards defeats the purpose of the Environment Protection Act (EP Act).
- An argument by the center: The Center contended that the exemption was essential “to benefit the general public” and would support “the kumhars (potters), farmers, gram panchayats, banjaras, roads of Gujarat,” and all non-mining activities recognized by the states.
- However, the Apex court stated that the Centre had failed to provide reasons for concluding that the notification was issued in the public interest.
Similar Judicial Scrutiny in the Past:
- January 2018: The NGT quashed an exemption offered by the Ministry’s 2016 notification from the requirement of prior EC for building and construction activities having built-up areas of more than 20,000 sq m. According to the Tribunal, there was nothing to suggest an improvement in the quality of the environment to justify the exemption.
- July 2015: Underlining that the EP Act mandates prior approval, the NGT struck down two Office Memorandums issued by the Ministry in December 2012 and June 2013 for granting ex-post facto EC to projects under the 2006 notification.
- July 2021: Another notification of the Ministry that sought to perpetuate an amnesty window opened for just six months in March 2017 to clear projects under the “violation category” and issued ex-post facto approval to more than 100 projects, until the SC stayed it in January this year.
- March 2024: The Kerala HC quashed a 2014 notification that exempted educational institutions and industrial sheds with built-up areas of more than 20,000 sq m from obtaining EC.
|
Conclusion: The Supreme Court invalidated the Environment Ministry’s exemption for earth extraction in linear projects due to a lack of justification and safeguards, emphasizing compliance with Environmental Clearance to minimize environmental harm, safeguarding the Environment Protection Act’s purpose.
Mains PYQ
Q How does the draft EnvironmentImpact Assessment(EIA)Notification, 2020 differ from the existing EIA Notification, 2006? (UPSC IAS/2020)
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: RBI, its regulatory functions, major achievements
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
Recently, the RBI celebrated its 90th year in Mumbai, marking a significant milestone.
Dr. Ambedkar’s Role in the Establishment of RBI:
- Dr. B.R. Ambedkar’s contributions were particularly notable during the Hilton Young Commission discussions in 1926, where he presented his recommendations based on his book “The Problem of the Rupee – Its Origin and Its Solution.”
- These discussions laid the foundation for the establishment of the RBI on April 1, 1935.
|
About Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- The RBI is the central bank and monetary authority of India.
- It was established on April 1, 1935, under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
- Its idea was incepted from the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission.
- Sir Osborne Arkell Smith, an Australian, served as the inaugural Governor.
- He was succeeded by Sir C D Deshmukh, the first Indian to hold the position.
- It is a centralized institution for India to effectively regulate its monetary and credit policies.
- RBI had its initial headquarters in Kolkata, later moving permanently to Mumbai in 1937.
- Initially, the RBI operated as a privately owned entity until its full nationalization in 1949.
Functions and Initiatives:
- Monetary Authority: The RBI controls the supply of money in the economy to stabilize exchange rates, maintain a healthy balance of payment, and control inflation.
- Issuer of Currency: Sole authority to issue currency and combat circulation of counterfeit notes.
- Banker to the Government: Acts as a banker to both the Central and State governments, providing short-term credit and financial advisory services.
- Lender of Last Resort: Provides emergency liquidity assistance to banks during crises.
- Custodian of Foreign Exchange Reserves: Manages foreign exchange reserves and administers the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA).
- Regulator and Supervisor of Payment and Settlement Systems: Oversees payment and settlement systems in the country, ensuring efficiency and security.
- Credit Control and Developmental Role: Promotes credit availability to productive sectors and fosters financial infrastructure development.
Transformative Reforms initiated by the RBI
- Green Revolution (1960s-1970s): Supported agricultural growth through credit facilities and rural credit accessibility enhancements.
- Banks Nationalization (1969): Aimed at aligning banking sector objectives with national policy goals.
- Priority Sector Lending (1972): Ensures timely credit flow to key sectors of the economy.
- Economic Liberalization (1991): Opened up the economy to global markets, fostering market-oriented growth.
- Unified Payment Interface (UPI), 2016: Enabled seamless and instant transactions across India.
- Inflation Targeting Framework, 2016: Set inflation targets to guide monetary policy decisions.
- Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS), 2019: Launched an integrated bill payment system for customer convenience.
- Aadhar-based eKYC (2019): Streamlined customer authentication processes for financial institutions.
- Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS), 2020: Provided credit assistance to SMEs affected by the COVID-19 pandemic.
- Central Bank Digital Currency (2022): RBI is actively exploring the issuance of a CBDC known as e₹ (digital Rupee).
- Cryptocurrency Regulation (2022): RBI has maintained a consistent stance against cryptocurrencies, advocating for an outright ban on them (after China and El Salvador imposed the complete ban). In 2020, the Supreme Court of India removed the ban on cryptocurrencies imposed by RBI.
- Payment Vision 2025 Document (2023): The goals and vision of the RBI, are categorised in the Payments Vision 2025 documents into five anchor goalposts – Integrity, Inclusion, Innovation, Institutionalisation and Internationalisation.
PYQ:
2012:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers’ bank. This would imply which of the following?
1. Banks retain their deposits with the RBI.
2. The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need.
3. The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2013: Consider the following statements:
1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.
2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in public interest.
3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Leap Second, Leap Year, UTC, TAI
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- A recent publication in the science journal Nature highlights how climate change-induced melting of glaciers and ice sheets is altering the Earth’s rotation, potentially disrupting our timekeeping systems.
- Leap seconds were added almost every year between 1972 and 1999 to adjust for Earth’s slowing rotation. But there have only been four added in the last 23 years, and the last time a leap second was added was in 2016.
What is a Leap Second?
- A leap second is a one-second adjustment that is occasionally applied to Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) in order to synchronize atomic time with astronomical time, particularly with the Earth’s rotation.
- The purpose of adding or subtracting a leap second is to keep International Atomic Time (IAT) (which is extremely precise) in close alignment with astronomical time, which is based on the Earth’s rotation and is subject to slight variations.
There are two types of leap seconds:
- Positive Leap Second:
- A positive leap second is added to UTC when the Earth’s rotation slows down slightly, causing the length of a day to exceed 86,400 seconds.
- This type of leap second is necessary to bring UTC back into alignment with the Earth’s rotational time.
- Positive leap seconds are rare and occur less frequently than negative leap seconds.
- Negative Leap Second:
- A negative leap second, also known as a deletion or removal of a second, occurs when the Earth’s rotation speeds up slightly, causing the length of a day to be less than 86,400 seconds.
- Negative leap seconds are extremely rare and have only been proposed but never implemented. They are considered hypothetical and have not yet been needed to adjust UTC.
- The concept of negative leap seconds is controversial and requires international agreement and coordination among timekeeping organizations.
International Atomic Time (TAI)
- TAI is a high-precision time scale based on the weighted average of atomic clocks (usually involving caesium or rubidium atoms) from various laboratories around the world.
- It is one of the primary time scales used for scientific and technical purposes, providing a continuous and uniform time reference that is independent of the Earth’s rotation.
- TAI is maintained since 1958 by the International Bureau of Weights and Measures (BIPM) in Paris, France.
- Unlike UTC, which is adjusted periodically to account for the Earth’s irregular rotation, TAI is a continuous time scale that does not include any corrections for Earth’s rotation.
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How Climate Change causes Negative Leap Second?
- Glacial Melting: Accelerating melt rates in Greenland and Antarctica are redistributing weight across the planet, causing a slight deceleration in the Earth’s rotation.
- Historical Context: Timekeepers have periodically added leap seconds to clocks worldwide to account for the Earth spinning faster than usual, with 27 instances recorded since the 1970s.
- Planned Adjustment: The proposed “negative leap second” adjustment, scheduled for 2026, may be postponed until 2029 or later due to the recent deceleration in the Earth’s rotation.Top of Form
Practice MCQ:
What is a Leap Second?
(a) It is a periodic adjustment added to International Atomic Time (TAI) to compensate for irregularities in Earth’s rotation.
(b) It is an extra second added to Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) to synchronize atomic time with astronomical time.
(c) It is the time lag measured by the atomic clocks in Outer Space-Time conditions.
(d) It is a term used to describe the synchronization of atomic clocks with the oscillations of subatomic particles. |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Paradip and other major sea-ports
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
Paradip Port in Odisha has made history by becoming India’s largest major port in terms of cargo volumes, surpassing Deendayal Port Authority in Gujarat during FY24.
About Paradip Port
- Paradip Port is situated at the confluence of the Mahanadi River and the Bay of Bengal in the Jagatsinghpur district of Odisha.
- It has a natural deep-water harbor, allowing it to accommodate large vessels and handle bulk cargo efficiently.
- The port was commissioned in 1966 to serve as a gateway for the maritime trade of eastern India.
- Paradip Port Trust, a statutory body under the Major Port Trusts Act, 1963, manages and operates the port.
Key Features of the Port
- Infrastructure: It is equipped with modern facilities for handling a variety of cargo, including dry bulk, liquid bulk, containerized cargo, and general cargo.
- Deep-Draft Port: The port has extensive berthing facilities and cargo-handling equipment capable of handling millions of tonnes of cargo annually.
- Strategic Importance: Paradip Port serves as a vital link for the export and import trade of eastern and central India, contributing significantly to the region’s economic development.
- Connectivity: The port is well-connected to major cities and industrial centers in Odisha and neighbouring states through road and rail networks.
Key Feats Achieved
- Cargo Throughput: Paradip Port achieved a record-breaking cargo throughput of 145.38 million metric tonnes (MMT) in FY2023-24, surpassing Deendayal Port.
- Coastal Shipping Traffic: The port recorded the highest-ever coastal shipping traffic of 59.19 million metric tonnes, showcasing a growth of 1.30% over the previous year.
- Thermal Coal Handling: Thermal coal shipping reached 43.97 million metric tonnes, marking a growth of 4.02% over the previous year.
- Revenue Growth: Operating revenue crossed Rs 2,300 crore in FY24, reflecting a notable increase of 14.30% compared to the previous fiscal.
Driving Factors of this Success
- Enhanced Operational Efficiency: Mechanised coal handling plant operations were optimized, resulting in the highest handling of thermal coal at 27.12 million tonnes.
- Productivity Improvement: Paradip Port improved berth productivity to 33,014 MT, the highest among all ports, showcasing a growth of 6.33% over the previous financial year.
- Rake Handling and Ship Movements: The port handled 21,665 rakes and 2,710 ships during FY24, registering significant year-on-year growth in both metrics.
Future Prospects
- Capacity Expansion: With a current capacity of 289 million tonnes, Paradip Port is poised to exceed 300 million tonnes capacity in the next 3 years with the commissioning of the Western Dock project.
- Strategic Location: Located near a mineral-rich hinterland, Paradip Port remains a strategic asset for India’s maritime trade and economic growth.
PYQ:
2017:
What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?
(a) India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase.
(b) India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.
(c) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.
(d) Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.
Practice MCQ:
It is situated at the confluence of the Mahanadi River and the Bay of Bengal. It has a natural deep-water harbor, allowing it to accommodate large vessels and handle bulk cargo efficiently.
Which sea port in Odisha is being talked about by the above description?
(a) Haldia
(b) Gopalpur
(c) Belikeri
(d) Paradip |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: SCORES 2.0, SEBI
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) unveiled the upgraded version of the SEBI Complaint Redress System (SCORES 2.0) marking a significant advancement in the investor complaint redressal mechanism in the securities market.
About Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- SEBI is the regulatory authority overseeing India’s securities and commodity markets.
- Established in 1988 as a non-statutory body, SEBI was granted statutory powers with the enactment of the SEBI Act 1992 by the Indian Parliament.
- It operates under the purview of the Ministry of Finance.
- SEBI’s structure includes a chairman nominated by the GoI, members from the Union Finance Ministry, the Reserve Bank of India, and others.
- Its headquarters is in Mumbai, with regional offices in Ahmedabad, Kolkata, Chennai, and Delhi.
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What is SCORES 2.0?
- SCORES 2.0 refers to the upgraded version of the SEBI Complaint Redress System (SCORES) launched by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
- SCORES is an online platform designed to facilitate the lodging and resolution of complaints by investors in the securities market.
- Complaints can be lodged for any issues covered under the:
- SEBI Act, 1992
- Securities Contract Regulation Act, 1956
- Depositories Act, 1966
- Companies Act, 2013
Complaints on SCORES 2.0 can be launched against:
- Listed companies / registrar & transfer agents
- Brokers / stock exchanges
- Depository participants / depository
- Mutual funds
- Portfolio Managers
- Other entities (KYC Collective investment scheme, Merchant banker, Credit rating, Foreign institutional investor etc.)
Features of SCORES 2.0:
- Reduced Timelines: SCORES 2.0 implements reduced and standardized timelines for addressing investor grievances, ensuring a maximum redressal period of 21 calendar days from the date of complaint receipt.
- Auto-Routing and Escalation: The new version incorporates an auto-routing mechanism to swiftly direct complaints to the relevant regulated entity. Additionally, it introduces a two-tier review process, with complaints undergoing review first by the designated body and subsequently by SEBI if investors remain dissatisfied with the resolution provided.
- Integration with KYC Database: SCORES 2.0 is seamlessly integrated with the KYC Registration Agency database, streamlining the registration process for investors onto the platform.
- Enhanced Efficiency: Through features such as auto-routing, auto-escalation, and stricter monitoring protocols, SCORES 2.0 aims to enhance the efficiency and effectiveness of the investor complaint redressal process.
Significance of SCORES 2.0
- Improved Regulatory Oversight: By introducing stricter timelines and oversight mechanisms, SEBI aims to enhance regulatory efficiency and transparency, fostering a more accountable and responsive market ecosystem.
- Technological Advancements: The integration of advanced technological features, such as auto-routing and KYC database linkage, reflects SEBI’s proactive approach towards harnessing digital innovations to modernize regulatory processes and services.
PYQ:
2013:
The product diversification of financial institutions and insurance companies, resulting in overlapping of products and services strengthens the case for the merger of the two regulatory agencies, namely SEBI and IRDA. Justify.
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements about the SCORES 2.0 Platform recently launched by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):
1. It is an online platform designed to facilitate the lodging and resolution of complaints by investors in the securities market.
2. It addresses complaints pertaining to the SEBI Act, 1992 only.
3. It ensures a maximum redressal period of 21 calendar days.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) None |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Kallakkadal, Tsunami
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- Coastal areas of Kerala, including Alappuzha, Kollam, and Thiruvananthapuram districts, are grappling with flooding caused by high sea waves, known as swell waves or Kallakkadal in Malayalam.
- The recent swell surge occurred following a low-pressure system originating in the South Atlantic Ocean, leading to the formation of waves reaching heights of up to 11 meters.
What is Kallakkadal?
- Origin and Meaning:
- Kallakkadal refers to coastal flooding during the (April-May) pre-monsoon season.
- It is caused by ocean swell waves on the southwest coast of India.
- The term “Kallakkadal” originates from Malayalam, combining “Kallan” (thief) and “Kadal” (sea), denoting the sea’s unexpected intrusion akin to a thief.
- In 2012, the term was formally approved by the UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization).
- Causes:
- These waves stem from distant storms, such as hurricanes, generating significant energy transfer from the atmosphere to the water.
- Kallakkadal typically results from strong winds in the southern Indian Ocean, generating ocean swells that travel northward towards the Kerala coast.
Features of Kallakkadal
- This phenomenon occurs mostly during pre-monsoon season and sometimes during post monsoon.
- It continues for a few days.
- It inundates the low lying coasts.
- Initially sea recedes before the surge.
- During high tide the run-up, water level can reach as much as 3–4 m above Maximum Water Level (MWL).
How is it distinct from Tsunami?
- Nature of Phenomenon: Kallakkadal, though often confused with tsunamis, arises from distant storm-generated waves, contrasting with tsunamis triggered by underwater disturbances, typically seismic activities.
- Clarification: Understanding this distinction is crucial for implementing effective early warning systems and mitigating the impact of coastal hazards.
PYQ:
2017: At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at-
(a) Bhavnagar
(b) Bheemunipatnam
(c) Chandipur
(d) Nagapattinam
Practice MCQ:
The Coastal areas of Kerala recently witnessed the Oceanic Swell Waves locally known as Kallakkadal. In this regard consider the following statements:
1. Kallakkadal typically occurs during the spring season (March-April).
2. These waves stem from distant storms in the southern Indian Ocean.
Which of the given statements is/are NOT correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Zero FIR vs ordinary FIR
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- The Hyderabad Police have initiated a zero FIR case against former minister for alleged derogatory remarks against Telangana CM.
First Information Report (FIR)
- An FIR is a written document prepared by the police upon receiving information about a cognisable offence.
- It is when an officer can arrest a suspect without a court’s warrant if/she has “reason to believe” that the person committed the offence and arrest is necessary based on certain factors.
- It serves as the first step towards initiating the investigation process and subsequent police actions.
- Section 154(1) of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) empowers the police to register an FIR for cognizable offences.
- Section 166A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) provides punishment for public servants failing to record information related to a cognizable offence, with imprisonment of up to two years and a fine.
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What is Zero FIR?
- Provision and Purpose: Zero FIR allows any police station to register an FIR for a cognisable offence without assigning a regular FIR number initially.
- No diary: Whereas FIRs have serial numbers assigned to them, zero FIRs are assigned the number ‘0’. Hence the name.
Features of a Zero FIR:
- Swift Action: The relevant police station subsequently registers a fresh FIR and commences the investigation.
- Focus on Victims: It is designed to expedite complaint lodging, particularly for serious crimes involving women and children, without the need to approach multiple police stations.
- Preserving Evidence: Early registration helps prevent the loss or tampering of crucial evidence and witnesses.
- Transferred Jurisdiction: The Zero FIR is later transferred to the relevant police station where the offence occurred or where the investigation should be conducted.
How does it work?
- After a police station registers a zero FIR, it has to transfer the complaint to a police station that has the jurisdiction to investigate the alleged offence.
- Once a zero FIR is transferred, the police station with the appropriate jurisdiction assigns it a serial number, thereby converting it into a regular FIR.
Legal Provisions for Zero FIR
The provision of Zero FIR finds support in various judgments and recommendations:
- Satvinder Kaur vs. State (1999): The Delhi High Court held that a woman has the right to lodge her complaint from any place other than where the incident occurred.
- Justice Verma Committee (2012): The introduction of Zero FIR was based on the recommendation of the Justice Verma Committee, which was formed in response to the 2012 Nirbhaya gangrape case.
- Lalita Kumari vs. Govt. of UP (2014): The Supreme Court ruled that registration of an FIR is mandatory when information discloses the commission of a cognizable offence.
PYQ:
2021: With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked-up in police station, not in jail.
2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Practice MCQ:
Regarding the Zero FIR, consider the following statements:
1. Zero FIR allows any police station to register an FIR for a cognizable offence without assigning a regular FIR number initially.
2. Whereas FIRs have serial numbers assigned to them, zero FIRs are assigned the number ‘0’.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Environment; Solar Photovoltaic cells;
Mains level: Environment; Solar Energy;
Why in the news?
The government is finally bringing into effect the policy of an Approved list of Models and Manufacturers (ALMM) that will discourage solar power project developers from relying on imported panels.
About Approved Models and Manufacturers of Solar Photovoltaic Modules Order, 2019:
- Aim: To boost domestic manufacturing of solar panels by registering only those made with domestically manufactured cells, wafers, and polysilicon.
- Compulsory Registration: The order mandates compulsory registration for solar PV module and cell manufacturers, ensuring they meet certain quality and production standards.
- Lists: LIST-I for solar PV modules and LIST-II for solar PV cells.
- Only listed models and manufacturers in these lists are considered approved for use in various government projects and schemes.
- Eligibility Criteria: To be included in the lists, manufacturers must undergo inspections and meet specific criteria set by the National Institute of Solar Energy (NISE) to ensure the products are genuinely manufactured and not imported.
- This order ensures the reliability of solar PV products used in installations, promotes domestic manufacturing, and aligns with the government’s initiatives for renewable energy adoption and energy security.
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Efforts made by the Government to promote domestic Solar Manufacturing:
- Import Restrictions: The creation of the Approved Models and Manufacturers list was aimed at restricting imports from China, which dominates a significant portion of the global solar supply market.
- Ambitious Renewable Energy Targets: India aims to source about 500 GW of its electricity from non-fossil fuel sources by 2030, with at least 280 GW coming from solar power. This necessitates adding at least 40 GW of solar capacity annually until 2030. So there is need to focus on indegenous solar project
Challenges ahead:
- Unrealistic Targets: Despite ambitious targets, India’s solar capacity additions have been relatively low in recent years, attributed in part to the COVID-19 pandemic. The country aims to ramp up installations to between 25 GW and 40 GW annually.
- Reliance on Imports: A significant fraction of India’s solar installations is met by imports, which affects domestic panel manufacturers who must pay for government certification but lose orders to cheaper Chinese panels. For example surge in Solar panel import in FY 24 around $1,136.28 million from FY23 imports $943.53 million
Conclusion: India’s ALMM policy aims to boost domestic solar manufacturing, aligning with ambitious renewable energy targets. Address challenges like meeting targets and reducing reliance on imports through strategic planning and support.
Mains PYQ
Q Describe the benefits of deriving electric energy from sunlight in contrast to conventional energy generation. What are the initiatives offered by our government for this purpose? (UPSC IAS/2020)
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/renewables/how-india-became-a-frontrunner-in-the-global-renewable-energy-market/articleshow/100271905.cms?from=mdr
https://mnre.gov.in/approved-list-of-models-and-manufacturers-almm/
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1944075
https://energy.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/renewable/indias-solar-panel-imports-set-to-remain-higher-in-fy24/106217488#:~:text=During%20the%20initial%20six%20months,million%2C%20according%20to%20Eninrac%20Consulting
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: NA
Mains level: Health Governance;
Why in the News?
The study released by IIT Madras highlights the concerns related to high rates of C-section deliveries among women in Tamil Nadu, particularly in private hospitals.
- This indicates the necessity for corrective measures to address the situation.
What is a Caesarean section?
It is also known as C-section or cesarean delivery, which is the surgical procedure by which one or more babies are delivered through an incision in the mother’s abdomen.
It is often performed because vaginal delivery would put the mother or child at risk. |
Changes in the share of births delivered by C-sections in public and private sector hospitals in India, Tamil Nadu, and Chhattisgarh between 2015-16 and 2019-21.
- High C-section Rate in Public Hospitals: In public sector hospitals in Tamil Nadu, nearly 40% of women underwent C-sections during 2019-21.
- High C-section Rate in Private Hospitals: Close to 64% of women underwent C-sections in private sector hospitals in Tamil Nadu during 2019-21, which is significantly higher than both the national average of around 50% and Chhattisgarh’s rate of 59%.
- Higher than the National Average: The rate of C-section deliveries in Tamil Nadu’s public sector hospitals is substantially higher than the national average, which is approximately 16%. Additionally, it surpasses the rate in Chhattisgarh, where it stands at 10%.
Reasons behind the increase in C-section rates despite a decrease in pregnancy complications:
- Regional Disparities: In Chhattisgarh, the likelihood of a woman undergoing a C-section in a private hospital is ten times higher than in a public hospital. This suggests potential disparities in access to high-quality healthcare services between public and private sectors, with implications for maternal health outcomes.
- Socioeconomic Factors: The study assumes that poorer households opt for public hospitals while richer households prefer private ones for deliveries. This socioeconomic divide may contribute to inequitable access to healthcare services at the national level.
- Higher Likelihood in Private Health Facilities: Women delivering in private health facilities are more likely to undergo C-sections compared to those in public facilities, with a notable disparity observed in Chhattisgarh.
- Maternal Age and Weight Status: Factors such as maternal age (35-49) and overweight status increase the likelihood of C-section delivery.
- High gap between Poor and Rich: In India, the gap in C-section prevalence between the poor and non-poor narrowed in private facilities, but Tamil Nadu exhibited a concerning trend where a higher percentage of the poor underwent C-sections compared to the non-poor.
Recommendations by the World Health Organization (WHO): Cesarean delivery rates should ideally not exceed 10-15% to achieve the lowest maternal and neonatal mortality rates. When C-section rates go beyond 10%, there is no significant decrease in maternal mortality. In 2021, global C-section rates surpassed 20%, and they are projected to increase to 30% by 2030.
Conclusion: Access to C-sections in Tamil Nadu shows disparities, with high rates in both public and private hospitals. Addressing regional, and socioeconomic factors and adhering to WHO recommendations are crucial for equitable maternal healthcare.
PYQ Mains
Q Appropriate local community level healthcare intervention is a prerequisite to achieve ‘Health for All’ in India. Explain. (UPSC IAS/2018)
https://www.indiatoday.in/health/story/rise-in-c-section-deliveries-despite-decrease-in-pregnancy-complications-iit-madras-study-2521773-2024-04-01
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: India- Srilanka Bilateral Relations; Places in News;
Mains level: India- Srilanka Bilateral Relations; Places in News;
Why in the news?
Katchatheevu Island, a disputed stretch in the Palk Strait, was ceded to Sri Lanka during late PM Indira Gandhi, through an agreement.
- Fifty years later, PM Modi, has mounted an attack on the Congress and DMK for ‘callously’ giving it away to Sri Lanka.
About the Katchatheevu Island:
- Katchatheevu is an uninhabited area in the Palk Strait, between India and Sri Lanka. It was created due to volcanic eruption in the 14th century and is comparatively youthful in the realm of geological chronology.
- Historically, it was controlled by the Jaffna kingdom of Sri Lanka in the medieval period.
- However, in the 17th century, control passed to the Ramnad zamindari based out of Ramanathapuram, about 55 km northwest of Rameswaram.
- The Island became part of the Madras Presidency during the British Raj. But in 1921, both India and Sri Lanka, at the time were British colonies and claimed Katchatheevu to determine fishing boundaries.
- A British delegation from India challenged this, citing ownership of the island by the Ramnad kingdom. This dispute was not settled until 1974.
Indo-Sri Lankan Maritime Agreement of 1974:
- In 1974, the Indian government, led by Indira Gandhi at the time, endeavored to definitively resolve the maritime border between India and Sri Lanka.
- As a component of this arrangement, termed the ‘Indo-Sri Lankan Maritime agreement’, Katchatheevu was relinquished to Sri Lanka.
- During this period, it was perceived that the island held minimal strategic significance, and relinquishing India’s claim over it was anticipated to foster stronger relations with its southern neighbor.
- Limitations of the Agreement of 1974:
- Issue of fishing rights: The 1974 agreement failed to address the issue of fishing rights. Sri Lanka interpreted the access of Indian fishermen to Katchatheevu as being restricted solely to activities such as resting, drying nets, and visiting the Catholic shrine, without the requirement of a visa.
- The issue concerning EEZ: Further agreement was reached between the two countries, prohibiting fishing within each other’s Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs).
- However, the proximity of Katchatheevu to the edges of both countries’ EEZs left unresolved questions regarding fishing rights, contributing to ongoing uncertainty.
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India’s stand on the Kachchatheevu issue:
- August 2013: The Union government informed the Supreme Court that the question of reclaiming Kachchatheevu from Sri Lanka did not arise because no Indian territory was ceded to Sri Lanka. Moreover, it was historically disputed territory between British India and Ceylon (now Sri Lanka), and the matter was settled through agreements in 1974 and 1976.
- December 2022: The Union government reiterated the stance, emphasizing that Katchatheevu lies on the Sri Lankan side of the India-Sri Lanka International Maritime Boundary Line as per the agreements. Additionally, it mentioned that the matter was under judicial consideration in the Supreme Court.
Conclusion: The recent mention of Katchatheevu by Prime Minister Modi ahead of elections in Tamil Nadu highlights its contentious nature. To address fishermen’s issues, diplomatic dialogue and legal clarity are crucial.
Mains PYQ
Q What are the maritime security challenges in India? Discuss the organizational, technical, and procedural initiatives taken to improve maritime security. (UPSC IAS/2022)
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Kodaikanal Solar Observatory (KoSO)
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
This year marks 125th Year of the Kodaikanal Solar Observatory (KoSO).
About Kodaikanal Solar Observatory (KoSO)
- The idea for an Indian solar observatory emerged in the late 19th century, with then government sanctioning the establishment of the Solar Physics Observatory in Kodaikanal in August 1893.
- Kodaikanal in the Palani hills of Tamil Nadu was chosen as the site for the observatory due to its favorable atmospheric conditions, following surveys conducted by Charles Michie Smith.
- The foundation stone for KoSO was laid by Lord Wenlock, the then Governor of Madras, in 1895.
- Systematic observations at KoSO began on March 14, 1901.
- KoSO initially housed instruments for solar observations, including telescopes for examining sunspots, prominences, and solar radiations.
- Presently, KoSO houses advanced instruments like the H-alpha telescope and the White light Active Region Monitor (WARM) for high-resolution solar imaging.
Do you know?
- The Bhavnagar Telescope, named after the Maharaja of Bhavnagar, was one of the more famous instruments at KoSO during the early decades of its operation.
- A 15cm telescope was used to capture solar images onto a photographic film or plate.
- Solar magnetic plages and prominences were recorded since 1911, taken on photographic films and plates.
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Historical Perspective
- Ancient Legacy: Throughout history, seafarers, mathematicians, astronomers, and physicists have meticulously studied the Sun and its celestial phenomena.
- British Era Initiatives: In 1792, the British East India Company established the pioneering Madras Observatory, marking a significant milestone in astronomical research in the region.
- Madras Observatory’s Legacy: The Madras Observatory documented crucial astronomical observations during 1812-1825, laying the groundwork for solar research in India.
- Shift to Systematic Observations: Dedicated solar observations commenced in 1878, fostering a deeper understanding of solar phenomena.
- Advancements in Methodology: The adoption of systematic observational techniques paved the way for more comprehensive and detailed studies of the Sun’s behavior.
Need for such Observatory
- Great Drought of 1875-1877: This event triggered by scanty rainfall, propelled the need for comprehensive solar studies to comprehend its implications on weather patterns.
- India’s Geographical Significance: India’s drought was part of a larger global phenomenon, affecting several countries and leading to widespread famine.
- Scientific Inquiry: Scientists recognized the potential role of solar variability in influencing climatic patterns, prompting inquiries into the Sun’s behavior and its correlation with environmental phenomena.
Scientific Endeavors of KoSO
- The observatory made significant contributions to solar physics, including the discovery of the radial motion of sunspots, known as the Evershed Effect.
- Over time, KoSO expanded its research areas beyond solar physics to include cosmic rays, radio astronomy, ionospheric physics, and stellar physics.
- In April 1971, KoSO was brought under the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA), Bengaluru, as part of the separation of astrophysics from the India Meteorological Department (IMD).
Repository of the KoSO
- Between 1904 and 2017, all solar observations were traced onto photographic films and plates
- A new telescope mounted with CCD cameras has taken over and, since 2017, continued to observe the Sun.
- Digitization of the records was initiated in 1984 by Prof J C Bhattacharyya, and others continued the effort.
- KoSO is now home to a digital repository of a whopping 1.48 lakh solar images adding up to 10 terabyte of data.
- These include 33,500 white-light images (showing sunspots), 45,000 images of the Ca II K spectral line (which reveals plages), and 70,000 H-alpha photographic plates that show prominences.
PYQ:
2019:
On 21st June, the Sun-
(a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
(b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle
(c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator
(d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn
Practice MCQ:
Which of the following statements correctly describes the ‘Evershed Effect’ in Sun?
(a) It refers to the bending of light waves around obstacles, demonstrated by the diffraction pattern observed in a single-slit experiment.
(b) It is the phenomenon of a magnetic field being generated by the motion of charged particles in the convective zone of the Sun.
(c) It describes the deflection of moving charged particles, such as electrons, in a magnetic field, leading to the creation of an electric potential difference.
(d) It is the radial flow of gases in the Sun’s outer atmosphere, observed as a redshift in the spectrum of light emitted by the photosphere. |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)
Mains level: NA
Why in the News?
- The Allahabad High Court clarified the appellate jurisdiction concerning orders issued by the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) in contempt proceedings.
- The court ruled that appeals against CAT contempt orders must be filed exclusively before the Supreme Court under Section 19 of the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971.
What is Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)?
- The CAT is a specialized quasi-judicial body in India established under Article 323-A of the Constitution of India.
- Its primary function is to adjudicate disputes and complaints related to recruitment and service conditions of government employees.
- CAT was set up to provide a speedy and inexpensive remedy to government employees in matters concerning their service conditions and employment disputes.
Establishment of CAT:
- The Administrative Tribunals Act in 1985 enacted by the Parliament authorizes the central government to establish Central Administrative Tribunal and the State Administrative Tribunals.
- There are 17 Benches and 21 Circuit Benches in the Central Administrative Tribunal all over India.
Jurisdiction of CAT:
- The Administrative Tribunal is distinguishable from the ordinary courts with regard to its jurisdiction and procedure.
- It exercises jurisdiction only about the service matters of the parties covered by the Act.
- CAT exercises jurisdiction over all service matters concerning the following:
- A member of any All-India Service
- A person appointed to any civil service of the Union or any civil post under the Union
- A civilian appointed to any defence services or a post connected with defence
Services NOT Covered:
The following members are NOT covered under the jurisdiction of CAT:
- Defense forces, Officers,
- The staff of the Supreme Court and
- Secretarial staff of the Parliament.
Procedure:
- The CAT is guided by the principles of natural justice in deciding cases and is NOT bound by the procedure, prescribed by the Civil Procedure Code.
- It is empowered to frame its own rules of procedure and practice.
- Under Section 17 of the Administrative Tribunal Act, 1985, the Tribunal has been conferred with the power to exercise the same jurisdiction and authority in respect of contempt of itself as a High Court.
Composition:
- The CAT comprises of a chairman, and other members who are appointed by the President of India.
- The membership of CAT is filled by members from judicial and administrative fields.
- The term of the service is 5 years or until the age of 65 years for chairman; 62 years for members, whichever is earlier. (minimum age is 50 years)
- The chairman or any other member may address his resignation to the President in between his term of office.
PYQ:
2019: The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) which was established for redressal of grievances and complaints by or against central government employees nowadays is exercising its power as an independent judicial authority. Explain.
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements about the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT):
1. The CAT is a specialized quasi-judicial body.
2. It adjudicates disputes and complaints related to recruitment and service conditions of government employees.
3. Personnel of the armed forces are covered in the jurisdiction of CAT.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) None |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: UNCTAD: its establishment, composition and members
Mains level: NA
What is the news?
- The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) Global Trade Report revealed an evolving trade landscape for India, marked by increased reliance on China and the European Union (EU).
About UNCTAD
- UNCTAD is a permanent intergovernmental body established by the United Nations General Assembly in 1964.
- It is part of the UN Secretariat.
- The UNCTAD Conference ordinarily meets once in four years.
- It reports to the UNGA and the Economic and Social Council, but has its own membership, leadership and budget.
- It is also a part of the United Nations Development Group.
- It supports developing countries to access the benefits of a globalized economy more fairly and effectively.
- Reports published by the UNCTAD are-
- Trade and Development Report
- World Investment Report
- Technology and Innovation Report
- Digital Economy Report
Membership:
- UNCTAD’s membership consists of all 195 member states of the United Nations.
- India is an active member. The second UNCTAD Conference took place in New Delhi, India in 1968.
Key Highlights of the Report:
- Key Findings on India
- Trade Trends: India’s trade dependence on China and the EU rose by 1.2%, while reliance on Saudi Arabia declined by 0.6%.
- Factors: This shift occurred amidst supply chain disruptions caused by the pandemic and the Russia-Ukraine conflict, leading to record-high food and fuel prices.
- Policy Measures: Despite efforts to reduce dependency on China through initiatives like the Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme and Quality Control Orders (QCOs), India’s trade relations with China strengthened.
- Insights from the Report
- Stable Proximity: Geographical proximity of international trade remained relatively constant, indicating minimal near-shoring or far-shoring trends.
- Political Proximity: However, there was a noticeable rise in the political proximity of trade, favouring countries with similar geopolitical stances.
- Concentration of Trade: Global trade increasingly favored major trade relationships, although this trend softened towards the end of 2023.
- Sectoral Trends: Most sectors experienced a decline in trade value, except for pharmaceuticals, transportation equipment, and electric cars.
- Global Forecast: Global merchandise trade is expected to contract by 5% in 2023, with services trade projected to gain 8%.
- Impact of Russia-Ukraine Conflict
- Shifts in Trade: The ongoing conflict led to a surge in Russia’s trade dependence on China by 7.1% while decreasing reliance on the EU by 5.3%.
- Oil Trade: Russian oil shifted from the EU to China and India, with China becoming a significant trade partner for Russia.
- US Trade Dynamics: The US managed to reduce reliance on China by 1.2% in 2023, while increasing dependence on the EU and Mexico.
PYQ:
The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an: (2017)
(a) ASEAN initiative to upgrade infrastructure in Asia and financed by credit from the Asian Development Bank.
(b) World Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital.
(c) Collaboration among the major banks of the world working with the OECD and focused on expanding the set of infrastructure projects that have the potential to mobilize private investment.
(d) UNCTAD-funded initiative that seeks to finance and facilitate infrastructure development in the world.
Practice MCQ:
With reference to the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD), consider the following statements:
1. It is a permanent intergovernmental body established by the United Nations General Assembly.
2. It is part of the UN Secretariat.
3. India has never hosted the UNCTAD Conference.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) None |
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