Why in the News?
India’s GDP grew 8.2% in Q2 of FY 2025-26 (July–September), marking a six-quarter high, supported mainly by manufacturing and services.
However, economists flagged concerns over low nominal GDP growth (8.7%), which signals subdued economic activity and potential stress on fiscal targets.
Key Data
- Real GDP growth (Q2 FY26): 8.2%
- Real GDP growth (Q1 FY26): 7.8%
- Growth in H1 FY26: 8%
- Nominal GDP growth: 8.7% (vs Budget assumption of 10.1%)
- Last higher GDP growth: Q4 FY24
- Government revised full-year growth forecast: “7% or higher”
Why High Real but Low Nominal Growth?
- Nominal GDP = Real GDP + Inflation (GDP deflator)
- A very low deflator (~0.5%) boosted real growth artificially
- Indicates inflation in tradable/manufactured goods is low, not necessarily high economic momentum
- Low nominal growth → Lower tax revenues, harder to meet fiscal deficit target of 4.4%
Sector-wise Performance
1. Manufacturing
- Growth: 9.1% (six-quarter high)
- Reasons:
- Corporate earnings showed strong growth
- Low base effect (growth was only 2.1% last year)
2. Services
- Growth: 9.2%
- Within services:
- Financial, real estate, professional services: 10.2% (nine-quarter high)
- Public admin, defence & other services: 9.7%
3. Agriculture
- 3.5% (lower than 4.1% last year)
- Slight moderation due to uneven monsoon patterns
Fiscal Concerns
- Nominal GDP shortfall may:
- Reduce tax buoyancy
- Pressure fiscal deficit (target: 4.4%)
- Lower denominator for deficit calculation
- Lower capital expenditure visible (“no upswing in GFCF”)
Opposition Criticism
- IMF recently rated India’s national accounts ‘C’, the second-lowest grade
- Claims real GDP inflated using unrealistically low deflator
- Points to weak private investment and thin capital formation
| With reference to Indian economy, consider the following statements : (2015)
(1) The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic product has steadily increased in the last decade.
(2) The Gross Domestic product at market prices (in rupees) has steadily increased in the last decade.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
The Government of India approved a new scheme called Tex-RAMPS to strengthen research, data systems, innovation, and competitiveness in India’s textiles sector.
The scheme aligns with India’s push to make its textiles ecosystem future-ready, technologically advanced, and globally competitive.
What is Tex-RAMPS?
Tex-RAMPS = Textiles Focused Research, Assessment, Monitoring, Planning and Start-up Scheme. It is a Central Sector Scheme, fully funded by the Ministry of Textiles.
Outlay & Duration
- Total Outlay: ₹305 crore
- Period: FY 2025-26 to FY 2030-31
- Co-terminus with the upcoming Finance Commission cycle
Objectives
To future-proof India’s textiles & apparel (T&A) ecosystem by:
- Strengthening research and innovation
- Building robust data systems
- Enhancing global competitiveness
- Supporting start-ups
- Improving capacity development across the sector
| Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019)
(a) Department of Science and Technology
(b) Ministry of Employment
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
A study published in Nature (Nov 2025) found that grey seal milk contains 332 different oligosaccharides—33% more than human breast milk, previously considered the most complex.
Key Findings
Highest Oligosaccharide Diversity
- Grey seal milk contains 332 oligosaccharides
(Human milk: ~100).
- This is the largest number ever recorded in any mammal’s milk.
Functions of Oligosaccharides
- Boost immunity (protect against bacteria & viruses).
- Support gut microbiome formation.
- Aid digestive tract development.
- Provide energy and growth support for pups.
|
Why Grey Seal Milk is So Complex?
- Grey seals:
- Live in harsh, high-risk environments.
- Mothers fast for ~18 days while feeding pups.
- Pups grow extremely rapidly during this period.
- Complex sugars help pups survive extreme conditions and develop strong immunity quickly.
Study Details
- Conducted by the University of Gothenburg (Sweden).
- Samples collected from Atlantic grey seals on a small Scottish island.
- Analytical method used: Deep mass spectrometry.
- A very advanced method of mass spectrometry that can detect hundreds to thousands of molecules in a sample with very high accuracy.
| Consider the following:
1. Bats
2. Bears
3. Rodents
The phenomenon of hibernation can be observed in which of the above kinds of animals?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) Hibernation cannot be observed in any of the above
This PYQ is chosen because it directly addresses the peculiar biological feature (hibernation) that allows mammals to survive challenging environmental conditions, which conceptually mirrors the adaptive features of the grey seal |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the news?
A new study (Current Pharmaceutical Analysis, 2025) suggests that common plant molecules from Aloe vera—especially Beta sitosterol—may inhibit key enzymes associated with Alzheimer’s disease (AD). Findings are based entirely on in silico (computer simulation) techniques.
What is Computer Simulation (In Silico Research)?
- Computer simulation, often called in silico research, refers to the use of computational tools and algorithms to model biological, chemical, or physical processes.
- It allows scientists to predict molecular interactions, drug behavior, and biological outcomes without physical experiments.
|
Alzheimer’s Disease (AD)
- Most common form of dementia.
- Characterised by:
- Memory loss
- Cognitive decline
- Accumulation of beta-amyloid plaques and tau tangles
- Loss of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter linked to learning and memory.
- Enzymes involved in acetylcholine breakdown:
- Acetylcholinesterase (AChE)
- Butyrylcholinesterase (BChE)
- Current drugs (e.g., donepezil, rivastigmine) work by inhibiting these enzymes but do not stop disease progression.
Why Aloe vera?
- Used for 3000+ years in traditional medicine.
- Contains bioactive compounds such as Beta sitosterol, Succinic acid, polysaccharides, and phenolics.
Major Findings
- Beta sitosterol showed strong binding affinity to both enzymes:
- AChE: −8.6 kcal/mol
- BChE: −8.7 kcal/mol
- The binding strength is higher than that of other screened compounds like Succinic acid.
- ADMET results suggest:
- Good absorption
- Low toxicity
- Favourable pharmacokinetic profile
| Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned? (2022)
(a) Cloud Services
(b) Quantum Computing
(c) Visible Light Communication Technologies
(d) Wireless Communication Technologies
This PYQ is chosen because it tests a fundamental concept related to the cutting edge of computational power and modelling, which is the operational domain of computer simulation. |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the news?
According to a study published in Canadian Family Physician, Vitamin B12 deficiency often shows early dermatological symptoms—such as pigmentation, dryness, and inflammation—before neurological or hematological complications appear.
What is Vitamin B12?
- Water-soluble vitamins are essential for: Red blood cell formation, Nerve function, DNA synthesis and Cell growth and repair
Why Skin Shows Early Signs?
- B12 deficiency → reduced RBC production → low oxygen delivery to skin → visible skin changes.
- Weak immunity and impaired nerve function further worsen dermatological issues.
| High-Risk Groups
More prone to Vitamin B12 deficiency:
- Vegetarians/vegans
- Adults > 50 years
- Individuals with:
- Gastritis, Crohn’s disease, celiac disease
- Those taking:
- Antacids (PPIs/H2 blockers)
- Metformin
- People with poor nutrient absorption
|
| Consider the following pairs: Vitamin : Deficiency disease (2014)
1. Vitamin C : Scurvy
2. Vitamin D : Rickets
3. Vitamin E : Night Blindness
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) None |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the news?
- A 3.5-billion-year-old Martian crater has been named after Indian geologist M.S. Krishnan. The naming was approved by the International Astronomical Union (IAU).
- Several other names proposed by Kerala scientists for Martian landforms were also approved.
About the Martian Crater
- Estimated to be 3.5 billion years old, dating back to Mars’ early geological history.
- Located in a region studied for traces of ancient water and habitability.
Who Was M.S. Krishnan?
- Full name: Maharajapuram Seetharaman Krishnan
- One of India’s most influential geologists, known as a foundational figure in modern Indian geological studies.
- Served as Director, Geological Survey of India (GSI) (1950–1956).
Major Contributions
- Mapped India’s geological structures, including:
- Indian stratigraphy
- Peninsular shield
- Himalayan formations
- Played a leading role in mineral exploration and petroleum geology in India.
- Contributed to studies on:
- Gondwana formations
- Economic geology
- Earth resources of India
Famous Work
- Author of the landmark textbook “Geology of India and Burma”, a globally referenced work in earth sciences.
|
About the International Astronomical Union (IAU)
- Founded: 1919
- A senior international body that governs professional astronomical activities worldwide.
- Mission: Promote and safeguard astronomy through research, communication, education, development, and international cooperation.
- Headquarters: Paris, France
- India is a member of it
| What is the purpose of ‘evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (ELISA)’ project? (2017)
(a) To detect neutrinos
(b) To detect gravitational waves
(c) To detect the effectiveness of missile defence system
(d) To study the effect of solar flares on our communication systems
This PYQ is selected because it directly tests knowledge of a major international scientific venture in the field of astronomy/cosmology, which is conceptually linked to the mandate of the IAU |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the news?
At the 3rd Annual General Meeting of the Biotechnology Research and Innovation Council (BRIC), Union Minister Dr. Jitendra Singh highlighted the growing importance of the Entrepreneur-in-Residence (EIR) Programme and India’s rising biotech innovation ecosystem.
Entrepreneur-in-Residence (EIR) Programme
- It is one of the programmes launched under the National Initiative for Developing and Harnessing Innovations (NIDHI).
- A Government of India initiative to bridge the gap between research and enterprise.
- Encourages young scientists, innovators, and researchers to become scientist-entrepreneurs.
- Helps convert lab research → market-ready innovations.
About BRIC
- Established: 2023
- Type: Pan-India umbrella network of biotechnology research institutions.
- First major experiment in merging multiple institutes under one collaborative body.
- Ranked as India’s top organization in biological sciences research (Nature Index India 2025).
| Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding National Innovation Foundation India (NIF)? (2015)
(1) NIF is an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology under the Central Government.
(2) NIF is an initiative to strengthen the highly advanced scientific research in India’s premier scientific institution in collaboration with highly advanced foreign scientific institution.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the news?
- On 23 November 2025, Israel approved a major plan to bring all remaining 5,800 members of the Bnei Menashe Jewish community from Northeast India by 2030.
- This marks a significant step in the decades-long Aliyah (immigration to Israel) process.
Who are the Bnei Menashe?
- Indigenous community from Manipur and Mizoram.
- Claim descent from Menashe (Manasseh), one of the Ten Lost Tribes of Israel exiled by the Assyrian Empire ~2,700 years ago.
- Faced historical disputes over their Jewish identity.
- In 2005, Rabbi Shlomo Amar, the then Sephardi Chief Rabbi of Israel, formally recognised them as “descendants of Israel”, enabling immigration.
| In India, if a religious sect/community is given “the status of a national minority, what special advantages is it entitled to? (2011)
1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha.
3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the news?
- A Hawfinch (Coccothraustes coccothraustes), a bird species native to Europe, North Africa, and temperate Asia, was recorded on 23 November in the Dhela zone of Jim Corbett National Park, Uttarakhand. This is considered a vagrant bird sighting.
About Hawfinch (Coccothraustes coccothraustes)
- Family: Fringillidae (Finches)
- Size: ~18 cm
- Wingspan: 29–33 cm
- Distinctive Feature: Very powerful, heavy bill capable of cracking extremely hard seeds/nuts.
- Plumage: Males and females similar; males slightly darker.
Native Range
- Europe and North Africa
- Temperate Asia, including:
- Not native to India.
Status in India
- Sighting classified as a vagrant record—bird appears outside its usual distribution range.
- Only two previous records in the Indian subcontinent:
- Muzaffarabad (1908) – PoK
- Aliabad (2017) – PoK
- This is one of the very few confirmed sightings.
| Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in the news? (2018)
(a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.
(b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows
(c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides
(d) None of the above
This question tests the critical concept of non-native or exotic species impacting biodiversity, which is the implicit environmental concern raised by the Hawfinch sighting. |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the news?
- Karnataka has decided to submit a revised Detailed Project Report (DPR) for the Mekedatu balancing reservoir across the Cauvery River.
- The Supreme Court termed Tamil Nadu’s challenge as “premature”, enabling the CWMA and CWC to examine the project.
Location & River
- Mekedatu is located in Ramanagara district, ~100 km from Bengaluru.
- The project is proposed on the inter-State Cauvery river.
- Karnataka = upper riparian; Tamil Nadu = lower riparian.
Why Does Karnataka Want It?
- Bengaluru water demand:
- Present: 2,600 MLD
- Supply: 2,100 MLD → shortage of 500 MLD
- Population to reach 20 million in 6 years → demand may rise to 4,000 MLD.
- Shivakumar argues Mekedatu will ensure regulated release to Tamil Nadu, even in poor rainfall years.
Why Is Tamil Nadu Opposed?
- Trust deficit due to the history of Cauvery disputes.
- Concern: Karnataka may store more water and release it selectively.
- TN argues the project violates the 2018 SC judgment and Cauvery Tribunal’s final award.
Centre’s Position
- 2019: Karnataka submitted DPR → CWC → CWMA.
- MoEFCC (2019): Sought an “amicable solution” due to inter-State dispute.
- 2024 (Feb): CWMA referred DPR back to CWC after deliberations.
- Now: DPR to be examined afresh; CWMA/CWC can facilitate dialogue.
Constitutional & Legal Angle
- Inter-State Rivers: Union List Entry 56 – regulation and development of inter-State rivers.
- River Boards Act, 1956 (not effectively implemented).
- Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal (CWDT): Award notified in February 2013.
- Supreme Court Judgment (2018):
- Reallocated shares;
- Gave 4.75 TMC drinking water allocation to Bengaluru.
|
| Recently, linking of which of the following rivers was undertaken? (2016)
(a) Cauvery and Tungabhadra
(b) Godavari and Krishna
(c) Mahanadi and Son
(d) Narmada and Tapti |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the news?
- The Bastar Olympics is a government-led sporting initiative in Chhattisgarh’s Bastar region, an area historically affected by Left-Wing Extremism (LWE).
- It has become a symbol of normalisation, trust-building, and socio-cultural revival as Maoist influence recedes.
What are the Bastar Olympics?
- A regional multi-sport event launched by the Chhattisgarh government.
- Conducted across all 7 districts of the Bastar region:
- Bastar, Dantewada, Kanker, Kondagaon, Narayanpur, Sukma, Bijapur.
- Includes 11 sports:
Archery, Kabaddi, Athletics, Badminton, Football, Hockey, Karate, Weightlifting, Kho-Kho, Volleyball, Tug-of-war.
Prelims-Relevant Themes Emerging
- Internal Security: Platform for reducing alienation in LWE regions.
- Social Issues: Women’s participation & empowerment.
- Tribal Affairs: Inclusion of PVTGs, revival of cultural identity.
- Governance: Last-mile delivery and state presence in remote areas.
- Sports & Youth: Identification of rural sporting talent.
|
| Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:
1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
A new survey in 2025 shows that nearly 70% of corals in Australia’s UNESCO World Heritage–listed Ningaloo Reef have died due to the most intense and prolonged marine heatwave on record.
About Ningaloo Reef
- Located in Western Australia.
- A UNESCO World Heritage Site.
- One of the largest fringing reefs in the world (~260 km long).
- Important for marine biodiversity, supporting whale sharks, turtles, reef sharks, and diverse coral species.
Extent of Coral Mortality
- ~70% mortality recorded in latest survey.
- In eight northern lagoon sites (Osprey → Tantabiddi Sanctuary Zones), mortality >60%.
- Of 1,600+ corals assessed in March, only ~600 survived by October.
Species Impact
-
Highly Affected (Dominant Species Lost)
-
-
- Staghorn corals: Acropora tenuis, Acropora millepora and Acropora spicifera
- Thin birdsnest coral (Seriatopora hystrix).
-
- Veron’s tube coral (Echinopora ashmorensis)
- Lesser knob coral (Cyphastrea microphthalma)
- Structural decline:
- Dead corals now overgrown by sponges, turf algae, reducing reef stability & biodiversity.
Broader Ecological Significance
- Coral reefs support ~1/3 of global marine species.
- Mass mortality compromises: Fish breeding grounds, Shelter for marine organisms, Coastal protection and Tourism & local economies.
Widespread Global Coral Stress
According to the United States National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA):
- 84.4% of the world’s reef areas experienced bleaching-level heat stress (Jan 2023–Sept 2025).
- Mass bleaching in 83+ countries.
- Marine heatwaves in 2023 lasted 4× longer than the long-term average and affected 96% of the world’s oceans.
| The scientific view is that the increase in global temperature should not exceed 2 ∘ C above pre-industrial level. If the global temperature increases beyond 3 ∘ C above the pre-industrial level, what can be its possible impact/impacts on the world?
1. Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon source.
2. Widespread coral mortality will occur.
3. All the global wetlands will permanently disappear.
4. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the world.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
- For the first time, the Chief of Army Staff (COAS) General Upendra Dwivedi paid homage at the National War Memorial to soldiers who died during Operation Pawan (1987–1990).
- Event held on 25 November 2025.
What was Operation Pawan?
- A major military operation launched by the Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) in Sri Lanka.
- Objective: Disarm the LTTE under the Indo–Sri Lanka Accord (1987).
- Duration: October 1987 – 1990.
Background
- Under the Indo–Sri Lanka Peace Accord (July 1987):
- India agreed to deploy IPKF to enforce peace in Northern & Eastern Sri Lanka.
- The LTTE initially agreed to surrender weapons but soon reneged.
Casualties in Operation
- Hundreds of Indian soldiers killed, and over 1,000 injured.
- One of India’s largest overseas military operations.
National War Memorial
- Location: New Delhi, near India Gate.
- Dedicated to soldiers of post-Independence operations including:
- 1947–48, 1962, 1965, 1971 wars
- Kargil 1999
- IPKF operations, and counter-insurgency missions.
Importance of the IPKF Mission
- First large-scale out-of-country deployment of Indian forces.
- Political and military complexities:
- Fighting LTTE, once seen sympathetically by India.
- Hostile terrain and guerrilla warfare challenges.
| Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called: (2024)
(a) Operation Sankalp
(b) Operation Maitri
(c) Operation Sadbhavana
(d) Operation Madad
This question is highly relevant as it tests the specific format of knowledge required for Operation Pawan (the name and mission of a defence action). |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
- A new study published in JAMA Neurology (Nov 24, 2025) found that untreated Obstructive Sleep Apnea (OSA) can nearly double the risk of developing Parkinson’s disease.
- The study analysed 11 million+ U.S. military veterans’ medical records (1999–2022).
- Use of CPAP (Continuous Positive Airway Pressure) significantly reduces the elevated risk, making sleep quality a potential neuroprotective factor.
Key Findings
- Untreated OSA → ~2× higher likelihood of developing Parkinson’s.
- CPAP therapy helps maintain oxygen levels → reduces neurodegeneration risk.
- Repeated oxygen drops during sleep may lead to long-term neuronal stress.
- Parkinson’s disease risk increases naturally with age, especially >60 years, but untreated OSA further elevates vulnerability.
About Parkinson’s Disease
- A progressive neurodegenerative disorder affecting movement.
- Caused by loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra.
- Symptoms: tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia, cognitive decline (late stages).
- No cure; treatments focus on symptom management.
Prelims Pointers
- New association identified: OSA ↔ Parkinson’s disease risk.
- Published in JAMA Neurology.
- Largest dataset used for this linkage: 11 million veterans.
- CPAP is not just a sleep device—it may offer neuroprotection.
- Chronic intermittent hypoxia implicated in neurodegeneration.
| Excessive release of the pollutant carbon monoxide (CO) into the air may produce a condition in which oxygen supply in the human body decreases. What causes this condition? (2010)
(a) When inhaled into the human body CO is converted into CO2
(b) The inhaled CO has much higher affinity for haemoglobin as compared to oxygen
(c) The inhaled CO destroys the chemical structure of haemoglobin
(d) The inhaled CO adversely affects the respiratory centre in the brain
This PYQ is chosen because the core pathological connection linking Sleep Apnea and Parkinson’s disease is the concept of chronic oxygen deprivation (Hypoxia) and its neurodegenerative impact. |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
- On 20 Nov 2025, the Supreme Court approved the government’s definition of Aravalli Hills as any hill 100 m or higher above local ground.
- Problem: This definition excludes 90% of Aravalli hills, making them open for mining and construction.
Background
- The Aravalli Range runs from Delhi to Gujarat through Haryana and Rajasthan.
- It is oldest fold mountains in India and plays a key role in ecology, dust control, groundwater, and wildlife corridors.
- In 2024, the SC asked the government to create a uniform Aravalli definition.
FSI’s Warning
- Lower hills (20–100 m) act as natural windbreaks, blocking sand and dust from Thar desert.
- Removing protection risks:
- Higher air pollution in NCR
- Loss of wildlife corridors
- Impact on agriculture and farmer livelihoods
| If there were no Himalayan ranges, what would have been the most likely geographical impact on India? (2010)
1. Much of the country would experience the cold waves from Siberia.
2. Indo-gangetic plain would be devoid of such extensive alluvial soils.
3. The pattern of monsoon would be different from what it is at present.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
The profound geographical and ecological functions of a major mountain range, which directly parallels the catastrophic risks associated with losing the Aravallis. |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
- Rampant sewage discharge into the Pazhayar River in Nagercoil (Tamil Nadu), especially near Ozhuginesary, has raised serious environmental and public health concerns.
- A 2024 situational report highlighted severe domestic, agricultural, and industrial (rubber processing) pollution in the river.
- Nagercoil Corporation has initiated steps to seal sewage inlets, but pollution remains widespread.
About the Pazhayar River
- A perennial river in Kanniyakumari district, Tamil Nadu.
- Part of the Kodhayar River Basin, covering 1,646.964 sq km.
- Basin lies entirely within Tamil Nadu, with a small stretch in Radhapuram (Tirunelveli district).
| Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for (2017)
(a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood
(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the news?
The Hayli Gubbi volcano in Ethiopia’s Afar region erupted on 23 November 2025 after nearly 12,000 years of dormancy, producing a massive ash plume rising to ~14 km (45,000 ft). High-level winds transported volcanic ash across the Red Sea and Arabian Peninsula towards western and northern India, causing temporary disruption in aviation operations.
Key Facts: Location & Geological Background
Hayli Gubbi Volcano
- Type: Shield volcano
- Location: Afar Region, Ethiopia (part of the East African Rift System)
- Dormancy: Last known activity ~10,000–12,000 years ago (Holocene threshold)
- Geological Setting: Lies on the triple junction where the Arabian, Nubian, and Somali plates are diverging → high tectonic activity.
East African Rift System (EARS)
- A major continental rift zone.
- Known for active volcanism (Erta Ale, Dabbahu, Nabro, etc.).
- Possible future site of a new ocean basin due to plate divergence.
Impact on India
1. Flight Disruptions
- Several international flights cancelled or delayed (Delhi, Mumbai, Hyderabad, Kochi).
- Airlines: Air India, IndiGo, Akasa Air initiated precautionary measures.
- Aircraft inspections ordered for those that flew through potentially affected air corridors.
2. Airspace Management
- Civil Aviation Ministry, Air Traffic Control (ATC), and the India Meteorological Department (IMD) issued continuous advisories.\
- No major safety threat, but routing adjustments and cancellations made as precaution.
3. No Impact on Local Weather or Air Quality
- IMD clarified:
- Ash remained in upper troposphere.
- No impact on ground-level AQI.
- Delhi’s poor air quality is unrelated, caused by local pollution.
4. Clearance Timeline
- Ash plume expected to move completely towards China by 7:30 pm, Nov 25.
Why Aviation Avoids Volcanic Ash?
- Ash melts inside jet engines → forms glassy deposits → engine flameout.
- Damages navigation systems & windshields.
- Reduces visibility.
- Can cause stalls, loss of thrust, and total engine failure.
Relevant Organisation:
▶ Volcanic Ash Advisory Centers (VAACs) issue global alerts—here, Toulouse VAAC monitored the plume.
| Consider the following: (2024)
1. Pyroclastic debris
2. Ash and dust
3. Nitrogen compounds
4. Sulphur compounds
How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) Only four |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the news?
The Ministry of Finance has notified the Capital Gains Accounts (Second Amendment) Scheme, 2025, introducing major changes to the existing Capital Gains Account Scheme (CGAS), 1988. The amendments aim to modernise processes, expand banking access, and increase clarity for taxpayers seeking capital gains exemptions.
About Capital Gains Account Scheme (CGAS), 1988
- Launched by the Central Government in 1988.
- Objective: To help taxpayers claim exemptions on long-term capital gains when reinvestment cannot be completed before the ITR filing due date.
- Linked mainly to Section 54, 54F, and related provisions of the Income Tax Act.
Why CGAS is Needed?
- Exemption requires reinvestment of capital gains within:
- 2 years (purchase of property)
- 3 years (construction of property)
- If this period extends beyond the ITR filing deadline, the taxpayer can temporarily deposit unutilised gains in CGAS to keep the exemption claim valid.
Important Conditions
- Deposit must be made before filing Income Tax Return.
- Money deposited is treated as reinvested for exemption.
- If the amount is not utilised within the stipulated period, it becomes taxable long-term capital gains in that year.
- Only long-term capital gains qualify — short-term gains are NOT eligible.
Who Can Deposit in CGAS?
- Any person with long-term capital gains, including: Individuals, HUFs, Companies, Firms, Trusts, and Any eligible taxpayer seeking exemption
- Mainly used by property sellers who need more time to reinvest.
Capital Gains Accounts (Second Amendment) Scheme, 2025 — Key Changes
- Expansion of Authorized Banks: Previously limited mostly to Public Sector Banks + IDBI Bank.
- Now extended to 19 private and small finance banks at all non-rural branches.
- Non-rural branch condition: Branch must be located in an area with population ≥ 10,000 (2011 Census).
- Rural branches cannot open CGAS accounts.
- Wider Definition of Electronic Payments: Electronic deposits can now be made through: Credit cards, Debit cards, Net banking, IMPS, UPI, RTGS, NEFT and BHIM Aadhaar Pay.This modernises the earlier narrow definition of “electronic mode”.
- Online Closure of CGAS Accounts (From April 1, 2027): Closure requests can be submitted electronically using:
- Digital Signature (DSC)
- Electronic Verification Code (EVC)
- Earlier: Closure only through physical branches.
- Clarification on Effective Date of Deposit: For cheque/DD/electronic transfers, the date of receipt of the payment instrument along with account application at the Deposit Office is treated as the effective date.Removes ambiguity around last-day deposits for tax exemption.
- Electronic Statements Permitted: Banks can now issue electronic statements instead of physical passbooks.
- Aligns CGAS with general digital banking norms.
- Extension of CGAS to Section 54GA: CGAS can now be used for exemptions under Section 54GA:
- Relates to capital gains arising from shifting an industrial undertaking from an urban area to a Special Economic Zone (SEZ).
- Broadens applicability beyond property-related reinvestments.
| Consider the following statements: (2025)
I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.
II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.
III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
- A series of RTI applications filed by The Hindu across 19 States/UTs revealed that most State Forest Departments have no records of breeders, pet shops, or ownership registrations for the African Grey Parrot, despite the species being widely available in pet markets.
- Only Kerala reported receiving 17 breeder licence applications through the PARIVESH portal, exposing major gaps in India’s monitoring of exotic species trade.
About Species Profile
- African Grey Parrot (Psittacus erithacus)
- IUCN Status: Endangered
- CITES Status: Appendix I (Highest level of protection; commercial international trade highly restricted)
- WPA 1972: Listed under Schedule IV (post-2022 amendments)
Legal & Regulatory Framework (India)
Living Animal Species (Reporting and Registration) Rules, 2024
- Mandatory registration of all exotic live species on PARIVESH 2.0.
- Applies to: Pet owners, Pet shops and Breeders.
Breeders of Species Licence Rules, 2023
To breed any CITES Appendix I species, an applicant must possess:
- Breeding Licence from State Chief Wildlife Warden
- CITES Import Permit
- DGFT Import Licence Number
- NOC from State Chief Wildlife Warden prior to import
Wildlife Protection Act (WPA), 1972
- African Grey Parrot → Schedule IV
- Illegal possession/trade punishable under WPA
| With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct? (2015)
(1) IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments.
(2) IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments.
(3) CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
- Recent inspections by state food-safety departments and laboratory analyses by academic institutions have once again detected the presence of Auramine O — a banned industrial dye — in sweets, savoury items, and brightly coloured chickpeas sold in public.
What is Auramine O?
- A synthetic bright yellow industrial dye.
- Uses: textiles, leather, printing inks, paper, microbiological staining.
- Not permitted as food colour in India, USA, EU, or most countries.
- IARC Classification: Possibly carcinogenic to humans (Group 2B).
|
Why is Auramine O Harmful?
- Toxicological risks:
- Liver & kidney damage
- Spleen enlargement
- Mutagenic effects
- Potential carcinogenicity
- Organ lesions even at low doses
How Does Auramine Enter the Food Chain?
- Cheap industrial dyes are sold informally in markets.
- Used by small vendors to mimic:
- Saffron
- Turmeric
- Approved synthetic colours
- Usage spikes during festivals when brightly coloured sweets/snacks are in demand.
- Lack of awareness and cost pressure lead to misuse.
Commonly Adulterated Food Items
- Bright yellow chickpeas
- Laddus, peda, halwa
- Namkeen, mixtures
- Pickles and condiments
Regulatory Framework – India
Food Safety and Standards Act (2006)
- Defines adulteration.
- Penalties: fines + imprisonment (for injury/death).
FSSAI Initiatives
- Sampling & crackdown during festive seasons.
- Seizures of illegal dyes and prosecution.
- New order: bold, larger nutritional information on labels.
- Awareness programs for:
- Micro and small enterprises
- Street vendors
|
Consider the following statements: (2018)
- The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
- The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
|
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
