Why in the News?
Home Minister is set to move a statutory resolution in the Rajya Sabha to extend President’s Rule in Manipur by another 6 months.
What is President’s Rule?
- Overview: It refers to the suspension of a state’s constitutional machinery, placing the state under direct control of the Union Government.
- It is also known as State Emergency or Constitutional Emergency.
-
- Article 355: Obligates the Union to ensure that governance in every state is in accordance with the Constitution.
- Article 356(1): Allows the President to assume control of a state’s executive if the Governor reports a constitutional breakdown or the President independently concludes so.
- Article 365: Deems a state’s failure to comply with Union directions as a failure of constitutional machinery.
Duration and Extension of President’s Rule:
- Initial duration: Valid for 6 months from the date of proclamation.
- Extensions: Can be extended every six months, subject to parliamentary approval, for a maximum of 3 years.
- Parliamentary Approval (Article 356(3)):
- Must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within 2 months.
- Requires a simple majority (members present and voting).
- Beyond 1 Year: Allowed only if:
- A National Emergency (Article 352) is in operation in the whole or part of the state.
- The Election Commission of India certifies that elections to the Legislative Assembly cannot be held.
- Beyond 3 Years: Requires a constitutional amendment (e.g., 67th and 68th Amendments extended President’s Rule in Punjab).
Implications of President’s Rule on a State:
- Executive Powers (Article 356(1)(a)):
- The President assumes functions of the state government via the Governor.
- Administration is carried out by the Governor, with support from the Chief Secretary and advisors.
- Legislative Powers (Article 356(1)(b)):
- The Legislative Assembly is either suspended or dissolved.
- Legislative powers are exercised by Parliament or delegated to the President.
- Financial Powers (Article 356(1)(c)):
- The President may authorize expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of the State pending Parliament’s approval (under Article 206 and Article 357).
Revocation:
- President’s Rule can be revoked at any time by the President under Article 356(2).
- No parliamentary approval is required for revocation.
Supreme Court Judgments related to it:
- S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994):
- President’s Rule is subject to judicial review.
- A floor test is the proper method to prove majority.
- The Governor’s report alone is not sufficient for justification.
- Sarbananda Sonowal v. Union of India (2005): Widened the scope of Article 355 for preventive action by the Union.
- Rameshwar Prasad v. Union of India (2006):
- Dissolution of Bihar Assembly was declared unconstitutional.
- Use of Article 356 to prevent political defections was struck down.
Key Reforms/Recommendations:
- Sarkaria Commission (1987): President’s Rule should be used only as a last resort after exploring all other options.
- Punchhi Commission (2010): Proposed localized emergency provisions for specific districts or regions instead of the entire state.
- National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000):
- Article 356 should remain but be used sparingly.
- Suggested amendments to allow its use without National Emergency if elections cannot be held.
| [UPSC 2018] If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then
Options: (a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
(b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
(c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.
(d) the President can make laws relating to that State. |
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Why in the News?
The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has introduced AdFalciVax, a new malaria vaccine candidate targeting Plasmodium falciparum.
About AdFalciVax
- Developer: Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR); private partners will handle trials and manufacturing.
- Vaccine Type: Chimeric recombinant vaccine targeting Plasmodium falciparum, the deadliest malaria parasite.
- Technology:
- Circumsporozoite Protein (CSP): Offers direct protection to the vaccinated individual.
- Pro6C Protein: A hybrid of Pfs230 and Pfs48/45 that blocks transmission via mosquitoes.
- Key Advantages
- Dual Benefit: Provides personal protection and reduces community transmission.
- Full-length CSP: Promotes a stronger and longer immune response compared to current vaccines.
- High Efficacy in Animals: Over 90% protection in animal models (human trials pending).
- Stability: Contains alum as an adjuvant — safe, effective, and stable at room temperature for 9 months.
Malaria Control in India:
- Progress:
- Malaria deaths reduced from 1,151 in 1995 to 83 in 2022 (National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme).
- World Health Organization estimates are higher (5,511 deaths in 2022).
- Current Limitation: India’s dominant malaria strain is Plasmodium vivax, which AdFalciVax does not target.
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| [UPSC 2010] Widespread resistance of malarial parasite to drugs like chloroquine has prompted attempts to develop a malarial vaccine to combat malaria. Why is it difficult to develop an effective malaria vaccine ?
(a) Malaria is caused by several species of Plasmodium*
(b) Man does not develop, immunity to malaria during natural infection
(c) Vaccines can be developed only against bacteria
(d) Man is only an intermediate host not the definitive host. |
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Why in the News?
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has announced that the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) for Financial Year (FY) 2025 has risen to 67.0, up from 64.2 in FY 2024.
About Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index):
- Developer: Created by the Reserve Bank of India to assess the extent of financial inclusion in India.
- First Release: Published in August 2021 for the financial year ending March 2021.
- Coverage: Encompasses five key sectors—banking, investments, insurance, postal services, and pensions.
- Scoring Scale: Ranges from 0 (total exclusion) to 100 (full inclusion).
- Update Cycle: Updated annually in July; cumulative index with NO base year.
- Indicators: Based on 97 indicators across all five sectors to ensure comprehensive assessment.
- Key Parameters:
-
- Access (35%): Measures availability of financial infrastructure like bank branches, automated teller machines, and postal outlets.
- Usage (45%): Tracks frequency of use of services like savings, loans, insurance, and pension schemes.
- Quality (20%): Assesses financial literacy, consumer protection, equity, and service reliability.
India’s Performance Over the Years:
- March 2017: Index at 43.4, reflecting the initial phase of inclusion efforts.
- March 2021: Rose to 53.9, due to the expansion of banking and digital infrastructure.
- March 2024: Improved to 64.2, with broader access and increased adoption of financial services.
- March 2025: Reached 67.0, driven by digital transactions, better service quality, and financial literacy campaigns.
| [UPSC 2016] The establishment of ‘Payment Banks’ is being allowed in India to promote financial inclusion. Which of the following statements is/are correct in this context?
1. Mobile telephone companies and supermarket chains that are owned and controlled by residents are eligible to be promoters of Payment Banks
2. Payment Banks can issue both credit cards and debit cards
3. Payment Banks cannot undertake lending activities
Options: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only* (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
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Why in the News?
India has improved its global mobility ranking, moving up eight places to 77th in the Henley Passport Index 2025, up from 85th in 2024.
About Henley Passport Index, 2025
- Overview: A global ranking of passports based on the number of destinations accessible without a prior visa.
- Compiled by: Published by Henley & Partners using data from the International Air Transport Association (IATA).
- Coverage: Includes 227 travel destinations and is updated quarterly.
- Purpose: Reflects changes in global mobility, international relations, and travel freedoms.
Global Scenario (2025 Rankings):
- 1st Rank: Singapore – Visa-free access to 193 destinations.
- 2nd Rank: Japan and South Korea – Access to 190 destinations.
- 3rd Rank (tie): Germany, France, Italy, Spain, Finland, Denmark, Ireland – Access to 189 destinations.
- United States: Fell to 10th rank – Access to 182 destinations.
- Overall Trend:
- Asian and European passports dominate top positions.
- Countries with restrictive or unstable foreign policies rank lower.
India’s Achievements:
- 2025 Rank: 77th, up from 85th in 2024 – an 8-place improvement.
- Access Level: Indian passport holders have visa-free or visa-on-arrival access to 59 countries.
- New Additions: Philippines, Sri Lanka.
- Context:
- Despite gaining access to only two new countries, India’s rank rose significantly due to global reshuffling.
- This marks a recovery from a 5-place drop in 2024, indicating improved travel diplomacy.
| [UPSC 2011] In terms of economy, the visit by foreign nationals to witness the XIX Commonwealth Games in India amounted to-
Options: (a) Export (b) Import (c) Production (d) Consumption |
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Why in the News?
The Meghalaya High Court heard a PIL against the Khasi Lineage Act (preserves Khasi matrilineal traditions) for allegedly denying ST certificates to those with paternal surnames.
About Khasi Tribe:
- Region: Indigenous to Meghalaya, Northeast India.
- Linguistic Family: Belong to the Austroasiatic language group.
- Language: Speak Khasi language, written in the Roman script, with several dialects.
- Religion: Follow Niam Khasi (traditional animist faith); many are also Christians.
- Mythical Origin: Believe in Ki Hynniew Trep – the seven ancestral clans who descended from heaven.
- Cultural Identity: Strong emphasis on nature worship, oral traditions, and clan-based social structure.
Special Customs and Traditions:
- Inheritance System: Follows matrilineal inheritance – property and surname pass from mother to daughter.
- Post-Marital Residence: Follow matrilocality, where the husband lives in the wife’s household.
- Heir Designation: The Ka Khadduh (youngest daughter) is the custodian of family property and ancestral duties.
- Marriage Rules: Practice clan exogamy – marriage within the same clan is prohibited to avoid incest.
- Village Governance: Administered through Dorbar Shnong (village councils) and led by Syiem (traditional chiefs).
- Major Festivals:
- Shad Suk Mynsiem – A thanksgiving and harvest dance.
- Shad Nongkrem – A royal ritual dance for communal prosperity.
- Traditional Attire:
- Women wear the Jainsem (a draped dress with silver jewelry).
- Men wear tunic-style garments and ceremonial headgear.
- Spiritual Practices: Emphasize ancestor veneration and worship of natural elements like stones, rivers, and groves.
| [UPSC 2014] With reference to ‘Changpa’ community of India, consider the following statements:
1. They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand. 2. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield a fine wool. 3. They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only* (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
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Why in the News?
A 24-year-long study conducted by the Nature Conservation Foundation reveals that coral cover in Lakshadweep has declined by 50% since 1998.
Coral Decline in Lakshadweep: Key Highlights
- Study Duration: Based on a 24-year study (1998–2022).
- Findings: 50% decline in live coral cover—from 37.2% to 19.6%.
- Main Cause: Repeated marine heatwaves linked to climate change.
- Study Locations: Monitored across Agatti, Kadmat, and Kavaratti atolls.
- Response Clusters: Six coral groups identified based on:
- Depth and wave exposure
- Heat resistance and recovery patterns
- Recovery Timeline: Requires at least 6 years without bleaching for healthy regeneration.
Back2Basics: Corals and Coral Bleaching:
- About: Corals are colonies of tiny animals called polyps, which build calcium carbonate skeletons.
- Symbiotic Algae: Host zooxanthellae, microscopic algae that provide nutrients via photosynthesis.
-
- Hard Corals: Form reef structures (e.g., brain coral, staghorn coral).
- Soft Corals: Flexible, grow on reef surfaces but do not build reefs.
- Habitat Requirements:
- Water Quality: Must be clean and low in sediment.
- Temperature Range: Prefer 20–21°C.
- Depth: Typically found in waters less than 90 metres deep.
- Salinity: Optimal range is 27–30 parts per thousand (ppt).
- Ocean Currents: Require nutrient-rich water flow.
- Coral Bleaching:
- Cause: Triggered by heat stress, pollution, or acidification, which drive algae out.
- Effect: Coral turns white due to loss of algae; Loses its main food source. Dies if stress persists for long periods.
| [UPSC 2022] “Biorock Technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations?
Options: (a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs * (b) Development of building materials using plant residues (c) Identification of areas for exploration/extraction of shale gas (d) Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests |
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Why in the News?
Former Odisha CM expressed concern over the omission of the Paika Rebellion from NCERT’s latest Class VIII history textbook, calling it a “huge dishonour” to the brave Paikas.
Localized Revolts in Odisha Region:
- The Paika Rebellion was part of a broader pattern of regional uprisings triggered by colonial encroachments:
- Paralakhemundi Rebellion (1799–1814)
- Ghumusar Revolt (1835–36)
- Angul Uprising (1846–47)
- Kondh and Sabara Rebellions (1855–1857)
- These revolts were often led by dispossessed elites and tribal communities, reacting to land loss, economic distress, and erosion of traditional authority.
|
About Paika Rebellion:
- Who Were the Paikas: Traditional militia of Odisha who served local kings in exchange for rent-free land (nish-kar jagirs) and social standing.
- Role: Functioned as hereditary foot soldiers and police for the Khurda kingdom.
- Decline: British annexation of Odisha in 1803 ended their privileges through land revenue reforms and colonial restructuring.
- Leader: Led by Bakshi Jagabandhu Bidyadhar, the military chief under King Mukunda Dev II of Khurda.
- Causes of Rebellion: Loss of land rights, oppressive taxation, and marginalization of both the elite and peasantry under British rule.
-
- 2 April 1817: Bakshi Jagabandhu led the Paikas, joined by tribal Kondhs and others, in open rebellion.
- Rebel Actions: British offices at Banapur were torched, the treasury looted, and colonial officers killed.
- British Response: Regained control by mid-1817, but rebels resorted to guerrilla tactics.
- Bakshi’s Death: Captured in 1825, died in custody in 1829.
Outcomes:
- British Concessions: Temporary tax remissions, Lowered assessments, Suspended forced estate sales and fixed-land-tenures.
- Administrative Impact: These measures showed the British were forced to reconsider exploitative policies.
- Aftermath and Significance:
- Historical Role: An early example of organized resistance against British colonial rule—decades before 1857.
- Freedom Struggle Legacy: Viewed as a precursor to India’s independence movement.
- Current Demand: Odisha leaders advocate its recognition as India’s “first war of independence.”
| [UPSC 2018] After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government?
1. The territories called `Santhal Paraganas’ were created. 2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2* (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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Why in the News?
The World Bank’s report, “Towards Resilient and Prosperous Cities in India”, warns that climate risks like extreme heat and floods threaten India’s cities, despite their role as economic growth engines.
About the ‘Towards Resilient and Prosperous Cities in India’ Report
- Prepared By: World Bank in collaboration with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
- Focus: Evaluates Indian cities’ exposure to climate risks like heatwaves and urban flooding
- Scope: Covers 24 cities with deeper analysis of Chennai, Indore, New Delhi, Lucknow, Surat, and Thiruvananthapuram
- Support: Backed by Global Facility for Disaster Reduction and Recovery (GFDRR)
Key Highlights:
-
- 70% of new jobs to emerge in urban areas by 2030
- Urban population to nearly double to 951 million by 2050
- Estimated housing demand: 144 million new homes by 2070
-
- Urban heat: City temperatures rising by 3–4°C due to the heat island effect
- Flood risk: Rapid construction limiting natural drainage and stormwater absorption
- Investment Needs: $2.4 trillion required by 2050 for low-carbon, climate-resilient infrastructure
-
- Promote cool roofs, urban green spaces, and early warning systems
- Invest in energy-efficient housing, flood-resilient transport, and waste systems
- Strengthen urban financial systems and incentivize private participation
Back2Basics: World Bank
- Overview: A global development organisation supporting economic progress in developing nations
- Founded: 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference
- Headquarters: Washington, D.C., United States
- Members: 189 countries
- India and the WB:
- India is a founding member of the IBRD and currently participates in four out of the five World Bank Group entities.
- India’s first World Bank loan, in 1948, was for railway rehabilitation.
- Constituent Institutions:
- IBRD – International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
- IDA – International Development Association
- IFC – International Finance Corporation
- MIGA – Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
- ICSID – International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes
- Key Reports:
- World Development Report
- Global Economic Prospects
- Ease of Doing Business Index (now replaced)
- Business Ready (B-READY)
|
| [UPSC 2025] The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35°C. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?
I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts. II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Options: (a) I only (b) II only* (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II |
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Why in the News?
China has commenced the construction of a massive hydropower project on the Yarlung Tsangpo river (Brahmaputra in India) in southeastern Tibet.
About the Mega Dam Project on Brahmaputra (Yarlung Tsangpo):
- Location: Nyingchi, southeastern Tibet, on the Yarlung Tsangpo River (Brahmaputra in India).
- Project Size: Estimated investment of 1.2 trillion yuan (USD 167 billion).
- Components: Comprises five cascade hydropower stations.
- Power Generation: Expected to produce 300 billion kilowatt-hours (kWh) of electricity annually.
- Objective:
- Contribute to China’s carbon neutrality target by 2060.
- Meet local power needs in Tibet and supply electricity to other Chinese provinces.
- Concerns:
- Environmental risks in a seismically active and ecologically fragile zone.
- Geopolitical tensions with downstream countries (India, Bangladesh).
- Potential impact on river flow and water availability downstream.
- Strategic Significance: Close to India-China border, raising concerns amid existing border disputes.
What if China stops Brahmaputra Water?
You should know: Three Gorges Dam
- Location: On the Yangtze River, Hubei province, central China.
- Completed: Fully operational since 2012.
- Type: Hydroelectric gravity dam – the world’s largest power station by installed capacity.
- Power Generation Capacity: Around 22.5 gigawatts (GW).
- Notable Impact:
- Helped in flood control, navigation, and electricity supply.
- Also criticized for ecological damage, displacement of over 1 million people, and increased seismic risk.
|
| [UPSC 2011] The Brahmaputra, Irrawady and Mekong rivers originate in Tibet and flow it through narrow and parallel mountain ranges in their upper reaches. Of these rivers, Brahmaputra makes a “U” turn in its course to flow into India. This “U” turn is due to:
(a) Uplift of folded Himalayan series
(b) Syntaxial bending of geologically young Himalayas
(c) Geo-tectonic disturbance in the tertiary folded mountain chains
(d) Both (A) and (B) above |
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Why in the News?
The Lakshadweep administration has proposed the acquisition of Bitra Island, the smallest inhabited island in the archipelago, for national defence purposes.
About Bitra Island:
- Location: Situated in the Arabian Sea; part of the Amindivi subgroup of the Lakshadweep archipelago
- Distance from Mainland: ~483 km west of Kochi
- Land Area: 0.10–0.18 square kilometres
- Population: ~271–350 (as of 2025)
- Language and Livelihood
- Languages Spoken: Malayalam, Mahl, and English
- Economic Activities: Fishing, coconut farming, and emerging ecotourism (birdwatching, snorkeling, diving)
- Climate:
- Type: Tropical monsoon (similar to Kerala)
- Temperature Range: 25–35°C
- Annual Rainfall: ~1600 mm
- Monsoon Season: Mid-May to mid-September; sea access is limited
- Historical and Cultural Significance:
- History: Populated around 1945
- Pilgrimage Site: Hosts a shrine to Arab saint Malik Mulla
Strategic Importance:
- Location: Close to key international shipping lanes in the Arabian Sea
- Surveillance Advantage: Ideal point for maritime monitoring
- Military Utility: Suitable for naval installations and coastal defence
- Maritime Awareness: Enhances India’s preparedness in the western seaboard
| [UPSC 2014] Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the ‘Ten Degree Channel’?
Options: (a) Andaman and Nicobar* (b) Nicobar and Sumatra (c) Maldives and Lakshadweep (d) Sumatra and Java |
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Why in the News?
A satellite-based study (2003–2020) of 141 Indian cities revealed a surprising aerosol pattern — southern cities act as pollution hotspots, while many northern cities form ‘clean islands’ due to a phenomenon called the Wind Stilling Effect.
Key Highlights of the Study:
- Conducted by: The Indian Institute of Technology Bhubaneswar.
- Method: Used high-resolution aerosol optical depth data to track pollution.
- Focus: Examined how urbanisation interacts with natural and transported pollution.
- Surprising Insight: Many northern cities were not major aerosol hotspots, contrary to assumptions.
- Classification of Cities: Two categories based on aerosol levels relative to surrounding areas:
- Urban Aerosol Pollution Islands-
- Location: Predominantly in southern and southeastern India.
- Characteristics: Cities had higher aerosol levels than nearby rural surroundings.
- Pollution Source: Mostly local emissions from vehicles, construction, and industries.
- Absence of External Influence: Minimal contribution from long-range dust or biomass burning.
- Urban Aerosol Clean Islands-
- Location: Observed in northwestern India and the Indo-Gangetic Plain.
- Pattern: Cities had lower aerosol levels than nearby upwind (southwest) areas.
- Mechanism: Incoming pollutants were blocked or deflected, creating a “clean island” effect.
- Downwind Evidence: Northeast (downwind) sides showed equal or lower aerosol levels compared to city centres.
About the Wind Stilling Effect:
- Overview: A phenomenon where dense urban infrastructure reduces surface wind speed, altering local airflow.
- Barrier Formation: Slowed winds create atmospheric stagnation zones, especially on the upwind side.
- Pollution Blocking: Long-range pollutants like Thar Desert dust or biomass smoke are slowed or blocked.
- Misleading Cleanliness: Cities appear cleaner not due to lower emissions, but due to pollution deflection.
- Seasonality: Most evident during the pre-monsoon season, when dust transport is high and cloud cover is minimal.
| [UPSC 2010] If there were no Himalayan ranges, what would have been the most likely geographical impact on India ?
1. Much of the country would experience the cold waves from Siberia. 2. Indo-gangetic plain would be devoid of such extensive alluvial soils. 3. The pattern of monsoon would be different from what it is at present.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3* |
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Why in the News?
A study in Nature has provided the first observational evidence of solid rock forming from vapour in a distant star system HOPS-315, marking early planet formation.
About HOPS-315:
- Type: A young star system located in the Orion constellation.
- Protoplanetary Disc: Surrounded by a flat, rotating disc of gas and dust, where new planets can form.
- Orientation: The disc’s tilt offers a clear line of sight from Earth, allowing deep observation.
- Observational Tools:
Clue on New Planet Formation:
- Rock Vapour Crystallisation: Scientists captured rock vapour cooling and forming crystals, marking the first direct observation of solid matter forming around a star.
- Detected Elements:
- Silicon monoxide gas at 470 Kelvin, close to the star.
- Crystalline silicates such as forsterite, enstatite, and silica found within 2.2 astronomical units of the star.
Scientific Significance:
- Similarity to Earth: The crystallisation mimics processes found in primitive meteorites on Earth.
- Chemical Confirmation: Suggests universal chemical processes in early planet formation across star systems.
- Location of Minerals: Crystals were detected in the disc’s atmosphere, not in stellar outflows.
- Temperature Conditions: Simulations confirmed dust vaporises and re-forms into solids at around 1300 Kelvin.
- Formation Stage: Marks the earliest stage of rocky planet formation ever observed.
| [UPSC 2015] The term ‘Goldilocks Zone’ is often seen in the news in the context of-
Options: (a) the limits of habitable zone above the surface of the Earth (b) regions inside the Earth where shale gas is available (c) search for the Earth-like planets in outer space* (d) search for meteorites containing precious metals |
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Why in the News?
A replica of the Ashoka Pillar was unveiled at Waskaduwa Sri Subhuthi Viharaya highlighting Buddhism in Sri Lanka.
The original pillars, like those at Rampurva and Lauriya Nandangarh in Bihar, are key symbols of India’s Buddhist and Mauryan heritage and are on UNESCO’s Tentative List.
![[pib] Ashoka Pillars of Rampurva and Lauriya Nandangarh](https://d18x2uyjeekruj.cloudfront.net/wp-content/uploads/2025/07/ashokan-pillar.jpg)
About Rampurva Ashoka Pillars (West Champaran, Bihar):
- Location: Near the Nepal border in West Champaran district, Bihar.
- Discovery: Found by archaeologist Alexander Cunningham, Lamb Carlleyle in 1876.
- Pillars: Two monolithic sandstone pillars, 300 meters apart:
- Lion Capital Pillar: Contains Major Pillar Edicts I–VI in Brahmi script.
- Bull Capital Pillar: Known for artistic refinement and Persian-inspired motifs.
- Design Features:
- Polished sandstone with Mauryan craftsmanship.
- Height: 12–15 meters; Weight: Up to 50 tons.
- Lion Capital: Preserved at Indian Museum, Kolkata.
- Bull Capital: Housed at Rashtrapati Bhavan, New Delhi; praised for its lifelike form and “velvet touch” finish.
- Decorative motifs include rosette, palmette, and acanthus—showing Persian influence.
- Legend: Marks the site of Buddha’s renunciation near the Anoma River.
About Lauriya Nandangarh Ashoka Pillar (West Champaran, Bihar):
- Location: 22–28 kilometers northwest of Bettiah town.
- Surviving Structure: Only one complete pillar remains from an original group.
- Material and Size:
- Made of Chunar sandstone.
- Stands about 12 meters above ground with ~3 meters underground; Weighs over 50 tons.
- Capital Design:
- Features a seated lion with hind legs extending beyond the abacus.
- The abacus is adorned with hamsa (flying geese), symbolizing spiritual liberation.
- Inscriptions:
- Engraved with Major Pillar Edicts I–VI in Brahmi script, dated to 244 BCE.
- Promotes dharma, non-violence, religious tolerance, and compassion.
- Symbolism:
- The lion capital represents Mauryan imperial strength and Buddha’s Sakya lineage.
- The lion’s open mouth symbolizes the dissemination of Ashoka’s ethical and Buddhist teachings.
| [UPSC 2019] In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is ‘Ranyo Ashoka’ (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?
Options: (a) Kanganahalli* (b) Sanchi I (c) Shahbazgarhi (d) Sohgaura |
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Why in the News?
The Winter Fog Experiment (WiFEX) at Delhi’s IGI Airport, has marked 10 years of pioneering research on dense winter fog in North India.
![[pib] 10 years of Winter Fog Experiment (WiFEX)](https://d18x2uyjeekruj.cloudfront.net/wp-content/uploads/2025/07/wifex.jpg)
About Winter Fog Experiment (WiFEX):
- Purpose: It is a long-term, open-field research project dedicated to studying winter fog—a major hazard in North India.
- Launch: Initiated in 2015 at Indira Gandhi International Airport, New Delhi.
- Lead Institution: Managed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
- Supporting Agencies: Supported by the India Meteorological Department (IMD) and the National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting.
- Objective: To understand fog variability, dynamics, and microphysics, and to improve fog forecasting across the Indo-Gangetic Plain.
Key Features:
- Network: Began at Indira Gandhi International Airport; expanded to Jewar Airport (Noida) and Hisar (Haryana).
- Instruments Used: Includes micrometeorology towers, ceilometers, and high-frequency sensors.
- Data Collected: Covers temperature profiles, humidity, wind, turbulence, soil heat flux, and aerosol concentrations.
- Scientific Goal: To model the full fog life cycle and develop operational forecasting systems.
- Next Phase – WiFEX-II:
- Will provide localized, runway-specific fog forecasts.
- Will expand to more airports for real-time winter decision-making.
Outcomes:
- Forecasting Model: A high-resolution fog prediction model with 3-km resolution and 85% accuracy for very dense fog (visibility <200 metres).
- Operational Benefits: Reduced flight delays and diversions; enhanced runway safety.
- Research Insights: Clarified the role of air pollution, urban heat islands, and land-use changes in fog formation.
- Significance:
- Aviation Planning: Helps airlines, pilots, and passengers manage winter fog disruptions.
- Science-Policy Link: Demonstrates successful collaboration between scientific institutions and public policy to address climate and aviation challenges.
| [UPSC 2014] Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among-
Options: (a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight ** (b) CO2, O2, and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight (c) CO, CO2, and NO2 at low temperature (d) high concentration of NO2, O3 and CO in the evening |
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Why in the News?
The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) has launched the PRATIBHA Setu initiative to channel the potential of civil service aspirants who reach the interview stage but do not make the final merit list.
About PRATIBHA Setu:
- Meaning: Stands for Professional Resource And Talent Integration – Bridge for Hiring Aspirants.
- Purpose: Connects candidates who cleared the interview stage of Union Public Service Commission exams but didn’t make the final merit list with verified employers.
- Launch: Rolled out during CSE Examination 2023 results; evolved from the Public Disclosure Scheme (2018).
- Objective: Utilizes the Union Public Service Commission’s rigorous selection process to support alternate career pathways for high-performing aspirants.
- Talent Pool:
- Scale: Over 10,000 high-performing candidates available for recruitment.
- Merit-Based: Offers employers access to a pre-tested, well-evaluated talent group.
Key Features:
- Eligibility:
-
- Included: Civil Services, Indian Forest Service, Engineering Services, Central Armed Police Forces, Combined Medical Services, etc.
- Excluded: National Defence Academy, Naval Academy, and certain Limited Departmental Competitive Examinations.
- Access for Recruiters: Organizations register using Corporate Identification Number through the Ministry of Corporate Affairs portal.
-
- Platform Tools:
-
- Functions: Dashboard for shortlisting, wish-listing, and making selections or rejections.
- Data Access: Employers can view candidates’ educational profiles and contact details in digital format.
Impact:
- Candidate Benefit: Opens alternate career paths for deserving UPSC aspirants.
- Employer Advantage: Enables transparent and efficient hiring from India’s top talent.
- Wider Utility: Extends the relevance of the UPSC selection process beyond final appointments.
| [UPSC 2020] In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?
Options: (a) An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy (b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism (c) An agency for facilitating political stability and economic growth (d) An agency for the implementation of public policy* |
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Why in the News?
Despite growing global pressure, the International Seabed Authority (ISA) has yet to finalize regulations for deep sea mining.
Deadlock Over Deep Sea Mining Rules:
- ISA’s 36-member executive council concluded a line-by-line reading of the draft “mining code” containing 107 regulations.
- These regulations govern mining for cobalt, nickel, and manganese in international waters.
- Key concerns remain unresolved, especially around environmental protection mechanisms.
- Chile and 36 other countries demand a moratorium until scientific assessments confirm minimal harm to marine ecosystems.
- Also, the US is not a member of the ISA or party to UNCLOS.
|
About International Seabed Authority (ISA):
- Establishment: Formed under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (1982) and the 1994 Agreement relating to Part XI of the Convention.
- Headquarters: Located in Kingston, Jamaica.
- Membership: Comprises 168 member states including India and the European Union.
- Jurisdiction: Governs “The Area” — the seabed and ocean floor beyond national boundaries, covering around 54% of global oceans.
- Guiding Principle: Operates on the principle that deep-sea resources are the common heritage of humankind.
Key Functions:
- Regulation of Mineral Activities
-
- Licensing: Grants licenses for exploration of seabed mineral resources.
- Transition Oversight: Manages the shift from exploration to commercial exploitation.
- Mining Code Development: Maintains the Mining Code—rules for environmental impact, royalties, benefit sharing, and technology transfer.
-
- Standards: Sets and enforces environmental norms for seabed activities.
- Risk Management: Applies precautionary principles to minimize ecological harm.
-
- Monitoring: Oversees contractors and states for legal and environmental adherence.
- Enforcement: Investigates violations and recommends corrective action.
India’s Engagement with the International Seabed Authority:
- Active Participation: India contributes to rule-making and sustainable seabed governance.
- Existing Contracts:
- Polymetallic nodules in the Central Indian Ocean Basin.
- Polymetallic sulphides in the Central Indian Ridge.
- New Applications (2024):
- Polymetallic sulphides in the Carlsberg Ridge.
- Cobalt-rich crusts in the Afanasy-Nikitin Seamount.
- Mining Code Engagement: Participates in drafting and negotiating legal standards.
- Equity and Protection: Supports fair benefit-sharing and strong environmental safeguards.
[UPSC 2021] Consider the following statements:
1. The Global Ocean Commission grants licences for seabed exploration and mining in international waters.
2. India has received licences for seabed mineral exploration in international waters
3. ‘Rare earth minerals’ are present on the seafloor in international waters.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only* (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
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Why in the News?
The Indian Air Force’s longest-serving combat aircraft, the Russian-origin MiG (Mikoyan and Gurevich)-21, is set to be phased out by September 2025.
About MiG-21:
- Type: Single-engine, single-seater, multi-role fighter and ground attack aircraft.
- Origin: Originally inducted as an interceptor; later upgraded for multi-role capabilities.
- Key Indian Variants: Type-77, Type-96, MiG-21 BIS and MiG-21 Bison (most advanced variant with upgraded radar, avionics, and missile systems).
- Safety Concerns:
- High accident rate, especially in recent decades.
- Earned the nickname “flying coffin” due to frequent crashes and pilot fatalities.
- Combat Features:
- Performance: Known for high speed, agility, and rapid climb capability.
- Armament: Capable of deploying both air-to-air and air-to-ground missiles.
- War Record: Played key roles in- 1965 War with Pakistan; 1971 Bangladesh Liberation War; 1999 Kargil Conflict.
- Notable Operation: In 2019, a MiG-21 Bison piloted by Group Captain Abhinandan Varthaman shot down a Pakistani F-16 during aerial combat.
Induction and Retirement:
-
- Timeline: Inducted into the Indian Air Force in 1963 during tensions with China and Pakistan.
- Assembly: First units assembled in India at Chandigarh with Soviet assistance.
- Scale: Over 700 MiG-21s were procured, forming the backbone of the Indian Air Force for decades.
-
- Current Status: As of now, three MiG-21 Bison squadrons remain, each with 16–18 aircraft.
- Replacement: To be replaced by the indigenously developed Tejas Mark-1A aircraft.
Back2Basics: LCA Tejas
- Type: Indian single-engine, fourth-generation, multirole light fighter aircraft.
- R&D: Designed by the Aeronautical Development Agency in collaboration with the Aircraft Research and Design Centre of Hindustan Aeronautics Limited.
- Origins: Developed under the Light Combat Aircraft programme launched in the 1980s to replace India’s ageing MiG-21 fleet.
- Indigenous Content:
- By Value: 59.7% of the aircraft’s components are sourced indigenously.
- By Units: 75.5% of the line replaceable units are domestically produced.
|
| [UPSC 2024] Consider the following aircraft:
1. Rafael 2. MiG-29 3. Tejas MK-1
How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft?
Options: (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None* |
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Why in the news?
The recent polyandrous marriage in Himachal Pradesh has brought the spotlight back on the customary practices of the Hatti tribe.
About Hatti Tribe:
- Location: Indigenous to the Trans-Giri region (Himachal Pradesh) and Jaunsar Bawar region (Uttarakhand).
- Rivers: Settled around the Giri and Tons rivers, tributaries of the Yamuna.
- Etymology: “Hatti” derives from “haat” (traditional village markets).
- Population: Around 2.5 lakh in 2011; now estimated at 3 lakh.
- Traditional Governance: Khumbli (tribal council) handles disputes and key decisions.
- Social Structure: Divided into upper castes (Bhat, Khash) and lower castes (Badhois).
- Livelihood: Depend mainly on agriculture; eco-tourism also provides seasonal income.
- Backwardness: Social and educational deprivation due to geographical isolation.
- Scheduled Tribe Status:
- Jaunsar Bawar (Uttarakhand) recognized in 1967.
- Trans-Giri region (Himachal Pradesh) granted status in 2023–24.
Legal Status of Polygamy and Polyandry:
- Prohibition: Banned under Hindu Marriage Act (1955), Special Marriage Act, and Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita.
- Exemption for Scheduled Tribes: These laws do not automatically apply to Scheduled Tribes unless notified by the Central Government.
- Constitutional Provision: Article 342 gives Scheduled Tribes distinct legal recognition.
- Legal Exemption Clause: Section 2(2) of the Hindu Marriage Act exempts Scheduled Tribes unless otherwise notified.
- Definition of Custom: Recognised if the practice is long-standing, reasonable, and not against public policy.
- Judicial Requirement: Courts need clear evidence to validate customary laws.
- Uniform Civil Code (Uttarakhand, 2024): Explicitly excludes Scheduled Tribes.
- UCC Rules (2025): Confirms UCC does not apply to groups protected under Part XXI of the Constitution.
Related Judicial Pronouncements:
- Customs vs Fundamental Rights: The Supreme Court strikes down customs that violate equality, dignity, or liberty.
- Triple Talaq Case: Declared unconstitutional as it violated Articles 14 and 21.
- Ram Charan v. Sukhram (2024): Tribal women cannot be denied inheritance based on customary male preference.
- Judicial Outlook: Customs must adapt and cannot override fundamental rights.
| [UPSC 2019] Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?
Options: (a) Article 19 (b) Article 21* (c) Article 25 (d) Article 29 |
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Why in the News?
The ongoing Supreme Court hearings on the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls in Bihar have reignited discussions on the legal status of the ‘right to vote’ in India.
About Right to Vote in India:
- Overview: It is also known as suffrage, allows citizens to elect their representatives in democratic institutions.
- Constitutional Basis: Guaranteed under Article 326 of the Constitution of India, which provides for universal adult franchise.
- Eligibility: Every citizen of India aged 18 and above is entitled to vote, unless disqualified by law.
- Supervision: Organised and overseen by the Election Commission of India.
- Supporting Laws:
- Representation of the People Act, 1950: Defines voter eligibility and grounds for disqualification.
- Representation of the People Act, 1951: Governs the procedures for conducting elections.
Judicial Interpretation:
- N.P. Ponnuswami v. Returning Officer (1952): Declared the Right to Vote as a statutory right.
- Jyoti Basu v. Debi Ghosal (1982): Reiterated that the Right to Vote is neither a fundamental right nor a common law right.
- People’s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India (2003): Recognised the Right to Vote as at least a constitutional right.
- Kuldip Nayar v. Union of India (2006): Held that the Right to Vote continues to be a statutory right.
- Raj Bala v. State of Haryana (2015): Recognised the Right to Vote as a constitutional right.
- Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023):
- Majority View: Right to Vote is a statutory right.
- Dissenting Opinion by Justice Ajay Rastogi:
- Linked the Right to Vote with the freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a).
- Considered it essential to free and fair elections and thus part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
Current Legal Status:
- Nature: It is legally a statutory right.
- Constitutional Context: It is shaped by constitutional provisions but does not hold the status of a fundamental right.
Back2Basics: Other Types of Rights in India
|
Description |
Enforceability |
| Natural Rights |
Inherent and inalienable rights (e.g., life, liberty); not directly enforceable unless linked to fundamental rights. |
Indirectly through Fundamental Rights |
| Fundamental Rights |
Guaranteed under Part III of the Constitution (e.g., right to equality, speech, life). |
Enforceable in Supreme Court under Article 32 |
| Constitutional Rights |
Rights given in the Constitution but outside Part III (e.g., property, trade). |
Enforceable under Article 226 via High Courts |
| Statutory Rights |
Granted by ordinary laws (e.g., MGNREGA, Forest Rights Act, Food Security Act). |
Enforceable as per respective legislations |
| [UPSC 2017] Right to vote and to be elected in India is a:
Options: (a) Fundamental Right (b) Natural Right (c) Constitutional Right* (d) Legal Right |
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Why in the News?
The Vice-President of India, Jagdeep Dhankhar resigned citing health reasons, creating a rare mid-term vacancy in India’s second-highest constitutional office.
What happens if VP resigns?
- The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides in his absence. No provision exists for an “acting” Vice-President.
- Unlike the President, whose vacancy must be filled within six months, the VP election must be held “as soon as possible.”
- The Election Commission will notify the schedule.
- Election governed by the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952.
- The elected candidate will serve a full 5-year term, not the remainder of Dhankhar’s term.
|
About Vice-President (VP) of India
- Position: Second-highest constitutional post; deputy to the President.
- Parliamentary Role: Serves as ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
- Succession: Ranks second in order of precedence and first in line to become President.
- Membership: Is a member of Parliament, not directly elected by the people.
- Qualifications:
- Citizenship: Must be a citizen of India.
- Age: Minimum 35 years.
- Office of Profit: Should not hold any.
- Parliamentary Eligibility: Must qualify for election to Rajya Sabha (unlike President, who must qualify for Lok Sabha) due to the VP’s role in the Upper House.
- Roles and Responsibilities:
- Rajya Sabha Chairmanship: Presides over sessions and ensures order.
- Bill Classification: Refers money bills to the Lok Sabha Speaker.
- No Independent Powers: Has no executive or legislative powers unless acting as President.
Election Procedure:
- Constitutional Basis: Governed by Article 66.
- Electoral College: Comprises 543 Lok Sabha MPs, 233 elected Rajya Sabha MPs, and 12 nominated Rajya Sabha members.
- Voting Method: Proportional representation by single transferable vote and secret ballot.
- No Whip Allowed: Parties cannot issue voting whips.
- Conduct: Managed by the Election Commission; Returning Officer is the Secretary-General of either House (on rotation).
- Winning Quota: Requires 50% of valid votes + 1; votes are transferred in rounds if no candidate secures majority in the first round.
Resignation and Removal:
-
- Article 67(a): VP submits his/her resignation to the President. Parliamentary approval is NOT needed, and the resignation takes effect immediately upon receipt.
- No Acting VP: Constitution doesn’t provide for an acting Vice-President.
- Presiding in Absence: Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides in VP’s absence (currently Harivansh Narayan Singh).
- Example: Dhankhar, who took office in 2022, is only the third VP in Indian history to resign before completing his term, after V.V. Giri and R. Venkataraman.
-
- Article 67(b): Removal process begins in Rajya Sabha with 14 days’ notice.
- Voting Requirement: Needs effective majority in Rajya Sabha and simple majority in Lok Sabha.
- No Grounds Specified: Constitution doesn’t list specific removal grounds.
- Judicial Immunity: Article 122 bars courts from questioning parliamentary proceedings related to removal.
- No Precedent: No VP has been removed so far.
| [UPSC 2013] With reference to Parliament, consider the following statements:
1.The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
2.While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2* (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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