Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Exercise IMT TRILAT- 2024
Mains level: NA
Why in the news-
- INS Tir and INS Sujata are set to participate in the second edition of the India-Mozambique-Tanzania (IMT) Tri-Lateral (TRILAT) Exercise.
Exercise IMT TRILAT- 2024
- It is a biennial exercise conducted by the navies of India, Mozambique and Tanzania.
- The first edition of the exercise took place in October 2022.
- It seeks to enhance India’s commitment to maritime security and cooperation in the Indian Ocean Region.
- Through this joint exercise, the Indian Navy aims to foster mutual trust and understanding with its maritime partners in Mozambique and Tanzania.
Phases of the Exercise
- Harbour Phase: Activities include joint harbour training such as Damage Control, Fire Fighting, Visit Board Search and Seizure procedures, Medical Lectures, Casualty Evacuation, and Diving operations.
- Sea Phase: Focuses on countering asymmetric threats, Visit Board Search and Seizure procedures, boat handling, manoeuvres, firing exercises, and joint EEZ surveillance.
PYQ:
2017: Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS):
- Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy.
- IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements about Exercise IMT TRILAT:
- It is an annual exercise conducted by the navies of India, Mozambique and Tanzania.
- The first edition of the exercise took place in October 2022.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
- Only 1
- Only 2
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: RBI, SEBI and their regulatory functions
Mains level: NA
Why in the news-
- Recent actions by both India’s banking regulator RBI and the securities watchdog SEBI have startled the market, exposing various malpractices in the financial sector.
Context
- Banking Sector: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) faces political scrutiny following the Supreme Court’s ban on anonymous political funding instruments introduced by the government in 2018. Its oversight was questioned amidst concerns about opaque corporate donations in the Electoral Bonds Scheme which was recently held unconstitutional.
- Securities Market: The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is under pressure to address concerns about asset price inflation, concentrated positions in illiquid shares, and excessive speculation among retail investors. Its credibility was questioned after Hindenburg Research’s allegations.
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Financial Landscape and its Regulation
[1] Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- The RBI is the central bank and monetary authority of India.
- It is established on April 1, 1935, under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
- Its idea was incepted from the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission.
- It is a centralized institution for India to effectively regulate its monetary and credit policies.
- RBI had its initial headquarters in Kolkata, later moving permanently to Mumbai in 1937.
- Initially, the RBI operated as a privately owned entity until its full nationalization in 1949.
Key Regulatory Functions of the RBI:
(i) Monetary Policy:
- The RBI formulates and implements monetary policies to achieve price stability, economic growth, and financial stability.
- The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) determines the policy interest rates, such as the repo rate, reverse repo rate, and marginal standing facility rate, based on inflation targeting and growth objectives.
- By adjusting these rates, the RBI influences money supply, credit flow, and interest rates in the economy.
(ii) Banking Regulation and Supervision:
- The RBI regulates and supervises banks and financial institutions to ensure their stability, soundness, and compliance with regulatory norms.
- It issues guidelines, directives, and prudential regulations covering aspects like capital adequacy, asset quality, management effectiveness, and liquidity risk management.
- The RBI conducts regular inspections, audits, and assessments of banks to assess their financial health and adherence to regulations.
- It also intervenes in troubled banks to protect depositors’ interests and maintain financial stability.
(iii) Payment and Settlement Systems:
- The RBI manages and oversees payment and settlement systems to ensure efficiency, safety, and reliability in financial transactions.
- It operates the Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) system for large-value transactions and the National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) system for retail transactions.
- The RBI formulates regulations and standards for payment systems, promotes innovation in payment technologies, and monitors systemically important payment infrastructures to mitigate risks and enhance resilience.
(iv) Financial Markets Regulation:
- The RBI regulates and supervises financial markets, including money, bonds, foreign exchange, and derivative markets, to maintain market integrity and investor confidence.
- It issues guidelines, directives, and regulations governing market participants, intermediaries, and trading activities.
- The RBI monitors market developments, enforces compliance with regulations, and intervenes in markets to address disorderly conditions, liquidity shortages, or excessive volatility.
- It also conducts open market operations (OMOs) to manage liquidity and stabilize interest rates.
[2] Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- SEBI is the regulatory authority overseeing India’s securities and commodity markets.
- Established in 1988 as a non-statutory body, SEBI was granted statutory powers with the enactment of the SEBI Act 1992 by the Indian Parliament.
- It operates under the purview of the Ministry of Finance.
- SEBI’s structure includes a chairman nominated by the GoI, members from the Union Finance Ministry, the Reserve Bank of India, and others.
- Its headquarters is in Mumbai, with regional offices in Ahmedabad, Kolkata, Chennai, and Delhi.
Key Regulatory Functions of the SEBI:
(i) Formulating Regulations:
- SEBI formulates regulations, guidelines, and directives to govern various aspects of the securities market.
- This includes regulations related to public issuances, disclosures, insider trading, takeover bids, corporate governance, and investor protection.
(ii) Monitoring Market Participants:
- SEBI regulates and supervises market intermediaries such as stock exchanges, brokers, merchant bankers, portfolio managers, and mutual funds.
- It sets eligibility criteria, registration requirements, and conduct norms for these entities and monitors their compliance with regulations.
(iii) Overseeing Market Infrastructure:
- SEBI oversees the functioning of stock exchanges, clearing corporations, depositories, and other market infrastructure institutions.
- It ensures that these entities maintain adequate systems, procedures, and safeguards to facilitate fair, transparent, and efficient trading and settlement operations.
(iv) Enforcing Securities Laws:
- SEBI enforces securities laws and regulations by conducting inspections, investigations, and enforcement actions against violations.
- It has the authority to impose penalties, suspend licenses, and initiate legal proceedings against individuals or entities found to be engaged in fraudulent or unfair practices.
(v) Regulating Securities Offerings:
- SEBI regulates public offerings of securities, including initial public offerings (IPOs), rights issues, and follow-on public offerings.
- It reviews offer documents, ensures disclosure of material information to investors, and supervises the conduct of issuers, underwriters, and other intermediaries involved in the offering process.
(vi) Monitoring Insider Trading and Market Manipulation:
- SEBI monitors and regulates insider trading, market manipulation, and other fraudulent activities that can undermine market integrity.
- It prohibits insider trading, imposes restrictions on share buybacks and open market operations, and investigates suspicious trading activities to maintain market fairness and transparency.
PYQ:
2015: In the light of Satyam Scandal (2009), discuss the changes brought in the corporate governance to ensure transparency and accountability.
2021: With reference to India, consider the following statements:
- Retail investors through demat account can invest in ‘Treasury Bills’ and ‘Government of India Debt Bonds’ in primary market.
- The ‘Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching’ is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India.
- The ‘Central Depository Services Ltd.’ is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
Practice MCQ:
With reference to the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), consider the following statements:
- It was established in 1988 as a non-statutory body.
- It operates under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
- It consists of a chairman, members from the Union Finance Ministry and the Reserve Bank of India.
How many of the given statements is/are correct?
- One
- Two
- Three
- None
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Section 377, LGBTQ+ Rights
Mains level: Sexual Minorities and their Social Rights
Why in the news-
- The Supreme Court issued a cautionary directive to judges regarding court-ordered counselling for LGBTQ+ individuals, emphasizing the need to respect their identity and sexual orientation.
Context
- Petition: The verdict stemmed from a habeas corpus petition filed by a Kerala-based woman seeking the whereabouts of her same-sex partner, highlighting the challenges faced by LGBTQ+ individuals in asserting their rights.
- Coercion Concerns: Concerns were raised about court-ordered counselling potentially being used to coerce individuals against their sexual orientation or chosen partners, prompting the Supreme Court to address these apprehensions.
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Counselling to LGBTQ+ Persons:
[A] Guidelines and Observations
- Avoiding Identity Suppression: Judges were cautioned against using counselling as a tool to coerce individuals into rejecting their LGBTQ+ identity or relationships, particularly when they are in distress or facing familial separation.
- Upholding Constitutional Values: CJI underscored the importance of upholding constitutional values, urging judges to refrain from imposing their personal biases or societal prejudices during legal proceedings.
- Empathy and Compassion: The verdict emphasized that judges must demonstrate sincere empathy and compassion towards LGBTQ+ individuals, ensuring that the principles of justice and equality guide legal decisions.
[B] Guidelines for Courts
- Embracing Diversity: Courts were directed to eschew social morality influenced by homophobic or transphobic views, prioritizing the protection of individual rights and freedoms.
- Respecting Chosen Families: Acknowledging the significance of chosen families for LGBTQ+ individuals, the court highlighted the need to recognize and respect these relationships, especially in cases involving familial rejection or violence.
LGBTQ+ Persons (Sexual Minority) Rights in India: An Overview
- Decriminalization of Homosexuality: A watershed moment occurred on September 6, 2018, when the Supreme Court of India partially struck down Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code, which criminalized consensual same-sex relationships. This historic decision marked a crucial step towards recognizing the dignity and autonomy of LGBTQ+ individuals.
- Recognition of Transgender Rights: In 2014, the Supreme Court recognized transgender individuals as the third gender and affirmed their fundamental rights under the Constitution in the landmark case of National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India (2014). This judgment laid the foundation for legal recognition and protection of transgender rights in India.
Several key legal cases and judgments have shaped the evolution of LGBTQ rights in India:
- Naz Foundation Govt. v. NCT of Delhi (2009): The Delhi High Court ruled that Section 377 of the IPC violated fundamental rights guaranteed under the Indian Constitution, including privacy and equality. This judgment was a crucial step forward in recognizing the rights of LGBTQ individuals.
- Suresh Kumar Koushal vs Naz Foundation (2013): The Supreme Court overturned the Delhi High Court’s judgment, recriminalizing homosexuality. This decision was met with widespread criticism and sparked renewed activism for LGBTQ rights in India.
- National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India (2014): This landmark judgment recognized transgender individuals as the third gender and affirmed their fundamental rights under the Constitution. It laid the groundwork for ensuring equality and non-discrimination for the transgender community.
- K.S. Puttaswamy v Union of India (2017): This case affirmed the right to privacy as a fundamental right under the Indian Constitution. The judgment recognized that discrimination based on sexual orientation is unconstitutional and emphasized the dignity and autonomy of individuals.
- Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India (2018): The Supreme Court decriminalized homosexuality and struck down Section 377 of the IPC. The court recognized the rights of LGBTQ individuals to intimacy, autonomy, and identity, setting a precedent for equality and non-discrimination.
Future Prospects
[A] Extension of ART (Assisted Reproductive Technology) Rights
- The Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) Rights bill, as currently formulated, does not adequately extend to LGBTQ+ persons due to several factors:
- Definition of Commissioning Couple: It restricts access to ART services to “infertile married couples,” excluding same-sex couples and individuals in same-sex relationships.
- Requirement of Legal Marriage: Since same-sex marriage isn’t recognized in India, LGBTQ+ couples are automatically excluded from accessing ART services.
- Narrow Definition of Infertility: The bill’s definition overlooks the unique reproductive challenges faced by LGBTQ+ individuals and couples.
- Gender-Binary Language and Restrictions: Gender-binary language and restrictions exclude transgender and gender non-conforming individuals from accessing ART services.
- Lack of Recognition of Diverse Identities: The bill fails to accommodate the diverse identities within the LGBTQ+ community, neglecting their specific needs and concerns regarding assisted reproduction.
[B] Child Adoption
- National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR): It had opposed the adoption rights of same-sex couples.
- Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 (JJ Act): It allows heterosexual married couples, and single and divorced persons to adopt.
- Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 (HAMA): It permits any male or female Hindu of sound mind to adopt, and for couples to adopt with the consent of their spouse.
- Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA): It permits applications from adoptive parents in live-in relationships, which it examines on a case-to-case basis.
However, in October 2023 the Supreme Court ruled that Regulation 5(3) of the CARA Regulations, insofar as it prohibited unmarried and queer couples from adopting, violated Article 15 of the Constitution.
While India’s Supreme Court declined to legalise same-sex marriage and did not explicitly grant gay couples adoption rights.
PYQ:
2020: Customs and traditions suppress reason leading to obscurantism. Do you agree?
Practice MCQ:
Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code which sought to decriminalize homosexuality was struck down in the landmark case of-
- Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India
- Naz Foundation Govt. v. NCT of Delhi
- Suresh Kumar Koushal vs Naz Foundation
- None of these
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Agri-Startups, NABARD
Mains level: NA
What is the news –
- The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is set to launch a ₹1,000-crore fund to bolster technology-driven agri-startups and rural enterprises.
- NABARD has already established a ₹750-crore fund, which will be followed by another ₹1,000 crore, to support startups in this regard.
What are Agri-Startups?
- Agri-startups are entrepreneurial ventures focused on innovating and revolutionizing various aspects of agriculture and allied sectors.
- These startups leverage technology, data, and modern farming practices to address challenges in the agricultural value chain and promote sustainable farming practices.
- They offer a wide range of products and services aimed at improving productivity, efficiency, and profitability for farmers, as well as enhancing food quality and safety for consumers.
Key areas of innovation in agri-startups include:
- Precision Agriculture: Utilizing data-driven technologies such as IoT, drones, and satellite imagery for precision farming, soil health monitoring, crop monitoring, and yield optimization.
- Agritech Solutions: Developing innovative technologies and tools for pest and disease management, water management, greenhouse farming, and hydroponics.
- Farm Management Software: Providing digital platforms and mobile applications for farm management, crop planning, inventory management, and market intelligence.
- Agri-Marketing Platforms: Connecting farmers directly with buyers, retailers, and consumers through online marketplaces, e-commerce platforms, and farm-to-fork initiatives.
- Supply Chain Management: Streamlining logistics, transportation, and warehousing operations to reduce post-harvest losses, improve market access, and ensure traceability and transparency in the supply chain.
- Food Processing: Developing value-added products, food processing technologies, and packaging solutions to enhance the shelf life, nutritional value, and marketability of agricultural produce.
About NABARD
- NABARD was established on July 12, 1982, by an Act of Parliament to promote sustainable rural development and agricultural growth in India.
- It operates as a statutory body under the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934, with its headquarters located in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
- It was established on the recommendation of the Sivaraman Committee and has its headquarters in Mumbai.
- Its primary mission is to facilitate credit flow for promotion and development of agriculture, small-scale industries, cottage and village industries, handicrafts, and other rural crafts.
- It is governed by a Board of Directors appointed by the GoI, with (1) representatives from the RBI, (2) central and state governments, and (3) experts in various fields related to rural development and finance.
Functions of NABARD:
- Refinance Support: NABARD provides refinance facilities to banks and financial institutions for agricultural and rural development activities, including crop loans and rural infrastructure projects.
- Direct Lending: It extends direct loans to institutions for specific rural development projects, such as agricultural production, rural infrastructure development, and agri-processing units.
- Research and Training: NABARD promotes research and development in agriculture, supports capacity building and training programs for rural stakeholders, and facilitates technology transfer initiatives.
- Scheme Implementation: The organization administers government schemes and funds like Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF), Watershed Development Fund (WDF) to finance rural infrastructure projects and watershed development activities.
- Credit Planning: NABARD collaborates with central and state governments, RBI, and other stakeholders to formulate credit policies and plans for agriculture and rural sectors.
- Financial Inclusion: It promotes financial inclusion by expanding banking services in rural areas, supporting SHGs, FPOs, and MFIs, and facilitating access to credit for rural communities.
- Priority Sector Lending: NABARD plays a crucial role in channelling credit to priority sectors such as agriculture, small-scale industries, and rural infrastructure, in alignment with the Reserve Bank of India’s priority sector lending guidelines.
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About the Blended Fund for Agri-Startups
- In the budget for FY23, plans for a blended capital fund were announced for ‘Sunrise Sectors’ to finance startups for agriculture and rural enterprises.
- The fund aims to support startups facing challenges in scaling up their operations due to limited access to equity and debt instruments.
- It also seeks to foster new linkages in the rural ecosystem, both forward and backwards.
Other Schemes for Agri-Startups in India
- Agriculture Accelerator Fund (2023): It was announced by Finance Minister in the union budget for 2023-24, as a significant initiative designed to support agritech startups and young entrepreneurs hailing from rural areas.
- Innovation and Agri-Entrepreneurship Development Program (2018-19): To increase farmers’ income, GOI started this Program under the umbrella of Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (2007). Startups receive financial assistance at different stages, with Rs. 5.00 lakh at the idea/pre-seed stage and Rs. 25 lakh at the seed stage.
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PYQ:
Q.Priority Sector Lending by banks in India constitutes the lending to: (2012)
- Agriculture
- Micro and small enterprises
- Weaker sections
- All of the above
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Tobacco Board, Tobacco Crop, Flue-cured Virginia (FCV) tobacco
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- The Tobacco Board has authorised a crop size of 100 million kg for Karnataka during the year 2024-25.
Tobacco in Indian Economy
- It is a drought tolerant, hardy and short duration crop which can be grown on soils where other crops cannot be cultivated profitably.
- In India, Tobacco crop is grown in an area of 0.45 M ha (0.27% of the net cultivated area) producing ~ 750 M kg of tobacco leaf.
- India is the 2nd largest producer and exporter after China and Brazil respectively.
- The production of flue-cured Virginia (FCV) tobacco is about 300 million kg from an area of 0.20 M ha while 450 M kg non-FCV tobacco is produced from an area of 0.25 M ha.
- In the global scenario, Indian tobacco accounts for 10% of the area and 9% of the total production.
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About Tobacco Board
- The Tobacco Board was constituted as a Statutory Body on 1st January, 1976 under Section (4) of the Tobacco Board Act, 1975.
- It operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
- It is headquartered in Guntur, Andhra Pradesh.
The primary objective of the Tobacco Board is-
- To promote the orderly development of the tobacco industry in India, particularly in the states of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu, which are the major tobacco-growing regions in the country.
Key Functions and Responsibilities
- Regulation and Control: The Tobacco Board regulates the production, curing, grading, and marketing of Virginia tobacco, which includes Flue-Cured Virginia (FCV) and Burley tobacco varieties.
- Licensing and Registration: It monitors and issues licenses and registrations to tobacco growers, manufacturers, exporters, and dealers involved in various stages of the tobacco supply chain.
- Research and Development: It collaborates with agricultural research institutes, universities, and industry stakeholders to introduce new technologies, best practices, and crop varieties to enhance the productivity and profitability of tobacco farming.
- Market Promotion: It promotes Indian tobacco products in domestic and international markets through trade fairs, exhibitions, buyer-seller meets, and promotional campaigns.
- Price Stabilization: It intervenes in the market to stabilize prices, mitigate price fluctuations, and protect the interests of farmers against adverse market conditions.
- Quality Control and Grading: It operates grading centers and quality testing laboratories to assess the quality characteristics of tobacco and facilitate fair trade practices in the industry.
PYQ:
Q.With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements:
- The Tea Board is a statutory body.
- It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
- The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
- The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022)
- 1 and 3
- 2 and 4
- 3 and 4
- 1 and 4
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements regarding the cultivation of Tobacco in India:
- Tobacco is a drought tolerant, hardy and short duration crop.
- India is the 2nd largest producer and exporter after China and Brazil respectively
- In the global scenario, Indian tobacco accounts for 10% of the area and 9% of the total production.
How many of the given statements is/are correct?
- One
- Two
- Three
- None
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: State of the Climate Report, 2023, Key Highlights
Mains level: Surging impact of Climate Change
What is the news-
- The World Meteorological Organization’s (WMO) recent State of the Climate report highlights unprecedented climatic shifts, with numerous indicators reaching record levels.
About World Meteorological Organization
- It is an intergovernmental organization and a specialized agency of the UN for meteorology (weather and climate), operational hydrology and related geophysical sciences.
- It was established in 1950 and is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
- It origin traces to the International Meteorological Organization (IMO), which was founded in 1873.
- Currently it has a membership of 191 countries. India is also a member.
Key Highlights of the State of the Climate Report, 2023
[1] Greenhouse Gases (GHGs)
- Record-High Concentrations: GHGs like carbon dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide reached record levels in 2022, contributing to global warming. The concentration of GHGs observed in 2022 is the latest year for which consolidated global values are available (1984–2022).
- Long-term Trend: The rise in GHG concentrations underscores the urgent need for concerted efforts to mitigate their impact.
[2] Surface Temperature
- Historic Spike: Global surface temperatures in 2023 surged to 1.45 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels, marking the highest recorded temperature. This temperature rise is attributed to the combined effects of rising GHG concentrations and the onset of El Nino in 2023.
- El Nino Influence: The onset of El Nino exacerbated temperature extremes globally, amplifying the impacts of climate change.
[3] Ocean Heat Content (OHC)
- Unprecedented Heat: Ocean heat content reached its highest level in the observational record of 2023. The ocean heat content (OHC) refers to the total amount of heat the oceans store.
- Long-term Trend: The continual increase in OHC underscores the ongoing challenge of ocean warming and its implications for marine ecosystems.
[4] Marine Heat Waves (MHWs)
- Widespread Occurrence: The global ocean experienced a significant increase in marine heatwave (MHW) coverage in 2023. The average daily marine heatwave coverage reached 32%, surpassing previous records set in 2016.
- Duration and Intensity: Prolonged MHWs pose threats to marine biodiversity, ecosystems, and fisheries, highlighting the urgency of climate action.
[5] Antarctic Sea-Ice Extent
- Record Low: Antarctic sea-ice extent plummeted to 1.79 million km2 in February 2023, the lowest since satellite observations began in 1979. The extent remained below average throughout the year, signalling ongoing trends of sea-ice loss in the Antarctic region.
- Persistent Decline: The continued decline in Antarctic sea-ice extent underscores the vulnerability of Polar Regions to climate change.
[6] Glacier Mass Balance
- Unprecedented Loss: Glaciers worldwide experienced the largest annual loss of ice on record in 2022-2023. The annual mass balance, which measures the amount of mass gained or lost by glaciers, dropped to a new low of ‘–1.2 metre water equivalent’.
- Regional Disparities: Glacial mass balance varied across regions, with North American and European glaciers particularly affected by ice loss.
Significance of the report
- The figures presented in the WMO report underscore the magnitude of climate change impacts on various Earth systems.
- Urgent action is needed to address rising GHG emissions, mitigate temperature extremes, protect marine environments, and preserve critical cryospheric regions.
PYQ:
2018: “Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by
- The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
- The UNEP Secretariat
- The UNFCCC Secretariat
- The World Meteorological Organisation
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Fact Check Unit (FCU) and its Functions
Mains level: Not Much
Why in the news?
- Weeks ahead of the election, the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology on Wednesday notified the Press Information Bureau’s Fact Check Unit (FCU) as the designated body to flag misinformation about Central government departments to social media platforms.
Why PIB?
- Under the GoI (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961, the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting (MIB) is entrusted with the responsibility of disseminating information about government policies, schemes, and programs through various mediums of communication.
- In fulfilling its role, the Ministry publicizes the policies, initiatives, schemes, and programs of the Government of India through press releases, press conferences, webinars, publication of books, etc.
- To carry out this crucial function, the Ministry has several attached and subordinate offices, including the Press Information Bureau (PIB).
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What is Fact Check Unit (FCU)?
- The Fact Check Unit’s mandate arises from the IT Rules, 2021, which stipulate that social media platforms risk losing legal liability protections if they fail to address notified misinformation promptly.
- The unit verifies claims about government policies, regulations, announcements and measures.
- Through an established rigorous fact-checking procedure, the PIB Fact Check Unit helps in dispelling myths, rumours and false claims, and provides accurate and reliable information to the public.
Operational Framework
- The FCU, led by senior DG/ADG level officer of the Indian Information Service (IIS), operates under the supervision of the Principal Director General of PIB.
- Its mandate includes verifying claims related to government policies, regulations, and announcements through a rigorous fact-checking process.
- The Unit reports to the Principal Director General, PIB who functions as the Principal Spokesperson of the Government of India.
Fact-Check Mechanism
- Query Handling: Users submit requests via WhatsApp, email, or a web portal, which are processed as ‘Queries’ by the Unit.
- Verification Process: Actionable Queries relevant to the Government of India undergo thorough verification using official sources and technological tools.
- Publication of Fact Checks: Verified information is categorized as Fake, Misleading, or True, and published on the Unit’s social media platforms for public awareness.
Categories of Fact-Checked Content
- Fake: Factually incorrect information intentionally or unintentionally disseminated to deceive or manipulate the audience.
- Misleading: Information presented with partial truths, selective facts, or distortion to mislead recipients.
- True: Information verified to be factually accurate after rigorous investigation.
PYQ:
2017: Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity-
- The intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
- The methods for strengthening executive leadership.
- A superior individual with dynamism and vision.
- A band of dedicated party workers.
Practice MCQ:
The centre has recently established the Fact Check Unit (FCU) as a designated body to flag misinformation in India. In this regard, consider the following statements:
- Establishment of FCU is mandated under the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005.
- The FCU is led by an officer of the Indian Audit and Accounts Service (IAAS).
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
- Only 1
- Only 2
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: World Air Quality Report, Particulate Matters
Mains level: NA
Why in the news-
- India has been ranked as the third-most polluted country in 2023, following Bangladesh and Pakistan, according to the ‘World Air Quality Report 2023’ by IQAir.
- IQAir is a Swiss air quality technology company, specializing in protection against airborne pollutants, developing air quality monitoring and air cleaning products
Comparative Analysis
- Previous Rankings: In 2022, India held the eighth position among the most polluted countries with an average PM2.5 concentration of 53.3 micrograms per cubic meter, demonstrating a marginal increase in pollution levels.
- Global Rankings: The report ranked 42 Indian cities among the top 50 most polluted cities globally, with Begusarai, Guwahati, and Delhi leading the list.
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Key Highlights
(A) Most Polluted Indian Cities:
- Ten out of the top 11 most polluted cities in the world are from India, the other being Lahore in Pakistan.
- Begusarai, located in Bihar, witnessed a significant increase in PM 2.5 concentration from 19.7 micrograms per cubic metre in 2022 to 118.9 micrograms per cubic metre in 2023.
- Guwahati’s PM2.5 concentration doubled from 51 to 105.4 micrograms per cubic meter between 2022 and 2023.
- Delhi saw an increase in PM2.5 concentration from 89.1 to 92.7 micrograms per cubic meter over the same period.
- Other Indian cities featuring in the top 50 most polluted cities of the world list included Greater Noida (11), Muzzafarnagar (16), Gurgaon (17), Arrah (18), Dadri (19), Patna (20), Faridabad (25), Noida (26), Meerut (28), Ghaziabad (35) and Rohtak (47).
(B) Global Insights:
- Oceania—comprising Australia, New Zealand, and French Polynesia—remained the region with the cleanest air in 2023.
- The report highlighted the top five most polluted countries worldwide, including Bangladesh, Pakistan, India, Tajikistan, and Burkina Faso.
- Seven countries which met the WHO annual PM2.5 guideline (annual average of 5 µg/m3 or less) included Australia, Estonia, Finland, Grenada, Iceland, Mauritius, and New Zealand.
- Despite previous declines, China experienced a 6.3% increase in PM2.5 concentration in 2023, signalling a concerning trend.
- For the first time, Canada emerged as the most polluted country in Northern America, reflecting regional air quality challenges.
- Africa remains the most underrepresented continent, with a third of the population still lacking access to air quality data.
What are Particulate Matters (PM)?
- Particulate matter (PM) consists of a mixture of solid particles and liquid droplets suspended in the air.
- These particles come from various sources, including vehicle emissions, industrial processes, construction activities, agricultural activities, wildfires, and natural dust.
- PM can be classified into different size categories based on its aerodynamic diameter.
- Common size fractions include PM10 (particles with a diameter of 10 micrometres or smaller) and PM2.5 (particles with a diameter of 2.5 micrometers or smaller).
- PM 2.5 are so small that they can penetrate deep into the respiratory system and enter the bloodstream, posing significant health risks.
- Long-term exposure to elevated levels of PM2.5 has been linked to reduced lung function, aggravated asthma, and increased risk of heart attacks and strokes.
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PYQ:
Q.Mumbai, Delhi and Kolkata are the three Mega cities of the country but the air pollution is much more serious problem in Delhi as compared to the other two. Why is this so? (2015)
Q.In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index? (2016)
- Carbon dioxide
- Carbon monoxide
- Nitrogen dioxide
- Sulphur dioxide
- Methane
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- 1, 2 and 3 only
- 2, 3 and 4 only
- 1, 4 and 5 only
- 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements:
- Particulate matter (PM) consists of a mixture of solid particles as well as liquid droplets suspended in the air.
- PM 2.5 can penetrate deep into the respiratory system and enter the bloodstream, posing significant health risks.
- Natural dust does not contribute to PM.
How many of the given statements is/are correct?
- One
- Two
- Three
- None
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Government e Marketplace (GeM)
Mains level: NA
Why in the news-
- The government’s procurement portal, GeM (Government e-Marketplace), is looking to encourage more and more start-ups and small and micro enterprises to list themselves as sellers.
About Government e-Marketplace (GeM)
- The GeM is a one-stop National Public Procurement Portal to facilitate online procurement of common use Goods & Services required by various Government Departments / Organizations / PSUs.
- It was launched in 2016 by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
- It has been developed by the Directorate General of Supplies and Disposals (under MCI) with technical support from the National e-governance Division (MEITy).
Functions for GeM
- Enhancement of Public Procurement: GeM aims to enhance transparency, efficiency, and speed in public procurement processes.
- Paperless and Cashless Transactions: It is a completely paperless, cashless, and system-driven e-marketplace that enables procurement of common-use goods and services with minimal human interface.
- Facilitation of Best Value: GeM provides the tools of e-bidding, reverse e-auction, and demand aggregation to facilitate government users in achieving the best value for their money.
- Mandatory Purchases by Government Users: The purchases through GeM by Government users have been authorized and made mandatory by the Ministry of Finance by adding a new Rule No. 149 in the General Financial Rules, 2017.
Key Developments on GeM:
- GeM Outlet Stores: GeM has introduced outlet stores for various product categories like SARAS, Ajeevika, Tribes India, Startup Runway, Khadi India, India Handloom, India Handicraft, Divyangjan, etc.
- Bamboo Market Window: GeM, in collaboration with the National Bamboo Mission, has introduced a dedicated window on its portal for marketing Bamboo Goods.
- Country of Origin Tag: Since 2020, the government has made it mandatory for sellers on the GeM portal to clarify the country of origin of their goods when registering new products.
PYQ:
Q.‘SWAYAM’, an initiative of the Government of India, aims at (2016) –
- Promoting the Self Help Groups in rural areas
- Providing financial and technical assistance to young start-up entrepreneurs
- Promoting the education and health of adolescent girls
- Providing affordable and quality education to the citizens for free
Practice MCQ:
With reference to the Government e-Marketplace (GeM), consider the following statements:
- It is a one-stop National Public Procurement Portal launched in 2016.
- It is developed by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)
Select the correct option:
- Only 1
- Only 2
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Trademarks, Patents
Mains level: Not Much
Why in the news?
- A lady in New Delhi successfully obtained trademark for her Momos brand from New Delhi High Court, after a similar trademark infringed upon her rights and reputation.
- The lady’s legal action invoked ‘passing off’ provisions, seeking cancellation of the infringers’ trademark under relevant sections of the Trademarks Act.
What are Trademarks?
- A trademark is a symbol, design, word, or phrase that is identified with a business. Registering a trademark allows its owner to claim “exclusive rights” to its usage.
- The Trademarks Act of 1999 governs the regime of trademarks and their registration in India.
- It guarantees protection for trademarks registered with the Controller General of Patents, Designs, and Trademarks, also known as the trademark registry.
- According to Section 25 of the 1999 Act, once registered, a trademark is valid for 10 years and can be renewed by the owner periodically.
Concept of ‘Passing Off’
- ‘Passing off’ entails deceptive practices where one brand attempts to profit from the reputation of another through misrepresentation.
- In Cadila Healthcare Limited vs. Cadila Pharmaceuticals Limited (2001), the Supreme Court defined passing-off as a form of unfair trade competition, where one brand seeks to profit from the established reputation of another through deceptive means.
- Infringed parties can seek injunctions, damages, or accounts against the infringing entity to mitigate the damages caused.
Application in the Present Case: Grounds for Trademark Refusal
- Legal Provisions: Sections 11(1), 11(2), 11(3)(a), and 47 of the Trademarks Act outline grounds for refusal to register trademarks and provisions for removal from the register.
- Likelihood of Confusion: Trademarks resembling earlier trademarks, leading to public confusion, are ineligible for registration under Section 11(1).
- Protection of Distinctive Marks: Section 11(2) prohibits registration of marks that take unfair advantage of or harm the reputation of well-known trademarks.
- Non-Compliance and Non-Usage: Section 47 allows removal of trademarks from the register for non-compliance or non-use, subject to aggrieved parties’ applications.
Back2Basics: Trademarks vs. Patents
|
Trademark |
Patent |
| Purpose |
Identify and distinguish goods or services |
Protect new and inventive products or processes |
| Laws and Provisions |
Trademarks Act, 1999 |
Patents Act, 1970 |
| Subject Matter |
Signs like logos, brand names, slogans, packaging |
Inventions including products, processes, methods |
| Duration of Protection |
10 years.
Indefinite with periodic renewal |
Typically 20 years from the filing date |
| Registration Process |
File application with Trademarks Registry (i.e. Controller General of Patents) |
File application with Indian Patent Office |
| Rights Granted |
Exclusive use of the trademark in connection with goods or services |
Exclusive rights to exploit the invention commercially |
PYQ:
Consider the following statements:
- According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
- In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
- Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Practice MCQ:
With reference to Trademarks in India, consider the following statements:
- Trademark can be a symbol, design, word or even a phrase.
- It allows its owner to claim “exclusive rights” to its usage
- It is valid for 5 years.
How many of the given statements is/are correct?
- One
- Two
- Three
- None
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Exercise Tiger Triumph-24
Mains level: Not Much
Why in the news
- The third edition of the bilateral tri-service ‘Exercise Tiger Triumph– 24’ between India and the US will be held on the Eastern Seaboard in the US from March 18 to 31.
Exercise Tiger Triumph-24
- The primary aim of this exercise is to enhance interoperability between the Indian Navy and the US military for conducting Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) operations.
- It is being held since 2019. The second edition was conducted in 2022.
- The exercise focuses on refining Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) to enable rapid and smooth coordination between the forces of both countries during HADR operations.
- Participants include:
- Indian Navy: Ships with integral helicopters and landing crafts, navy aircraft, Indian Army personnel and vehicles, Indian Air Force aircraft and helicopters, and the Rapid Action Medical Team (RAMT).
- US Military: US Navy ships with embarked troops from the US Marine Corps and US Army.
- Indian and US naval assets, along with troops and equipment, are deployed for the Sea Phase after the harbor phase.
All Major Defence Exercises between India and the US
- Yudh Abhyas: Yudh Abhyas is an annual bilateral exercise between the Indian Army and the US Army. It focuses on enhancing interoperability and cooperation in counterterrorism and counterinsurgency operations.
- Malabar Exercise: Malabar is a trilateral naval exercise involving the United States, India, and Japan. It aims to improve interoperability in maritime security, anti-submarine warfare, and disaster response.
- Cope India: Cope India is an air force exercise between the Indian Air Force and the United States Air Force. It focuses on enhancing interoperability and cooperation in aerial combat tactics, techniques, and procedures.
- Vajra Prahar: Vajra Prahar is a bilateral Special Forces exercise between the Indian Army and the US Army. It focuses on counterterrorism operations, hostage rescue, and other special operations.
- Red Flag Exercise: While not exclusively a bilateral exercise between India and the US, the Red Flag Exercise hosted by the United States Air Force at Nellis Air Force Base in Nevada often includes participation from the Indian Air Force. This exercise focuses on advanced aerial combat training and tactics.
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Significance of the Exercise
- Strengthening Bilateral Ties: The exercise serves to strengthen the strategic partnership and cooperation between India and the United States.
- Preparedness: Both countries aim to enhance their readiness and capabilities to respond to humanitarian crises and natural disasters effectively.
- Cooperation: The exercise underscores the commitment of India and the US to international peace and security by collaborating on humanitarian missions.
Practice MCQ:
How many of the given are joint defence exercises between India and the US?
- Yudh Abhyas
- Malabar
- Cope India
- Vajra Prahar
- Mitra Shakti
- Garuda Shakti
Select the correct option:
- Two
- Three
- Four
- Five
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Foot-and-Mouth Disease (FMD)
Mains level: NA
Why in the news
- The foot-and-mouth disease (FMD) has affected around many milch cattle in Uttar Pradesh.
What is Foot-and-Mouth Disease (FMD)?
- FMD is a highly contagious viral disease of livestock that has a significant economic impact.
- The disease affects all cattle, swine, sheep, goats, and other cloven-hoofed ruminants.
- Intensively reared animals are more susceptible to the disease than traditional breeds.
- It does not affect horses, dogs, or cats.
How does it spread?
- It is a Transboundary Animal Disease (TAD) that deeply affects the production of livestock and disrupts regional and international trade in animals and animal products.
- It is caused by is an ‘aphthovirus’ of the family Picornaviridae.
- There are 7 strains (A, O, C, SAT1, SAT2, SAT3, and Asia1) which are endemic in different countries worldwide.
- Immunity to one type does not protect an animal against other types or subtypes.
Implications of FMD
- FMD is characterized by fever and blister-like sores on the tongue and lips, in the mouth, on the teats, and between the hooves.
- The disease is rarely fatal in adult animals, but there is often high mortality in young animals.
- The disease causes severe production losses, and while the majority of affected animals recover, the disease often leaves them weakened and debilitated.
Policy moves to prevent FMD
- FMD Mukt Bharat Abhiyan (2016-17): Launched under Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY) during, it is a program to cover all the states which were not covered under the six-monthly vaccination scheme.
- National Animal Disease Control Programme (2019): It aims to control of Foot & Mouth Disease and Brucellosis by vaccinating 100% cattle, buffalo, sheep, goat and pig population for FMD and 100% bovine female calves of 4-8 months of age for brucellosis.
PYQ:
Q. Livestock rearing has a big potential for providing non- farm employment and income in rural areas. Discuss suggesting suitable measures to promote this sector in India. (2015)
Practice MCQ:
With reference to the National Animal Disease Control Programme, consider the following statements:
- It aims to control of Foot & Mouth Disease (FMD) and Brucellosis by vaccinating 100% cattle, buffalo, sheep, goat and pig population.
- For brucellosis it would vaccinate 100% bovine calves of all age.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
- Only 1
- Only 2
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: SAKHI App, Progress tracking of Gaganyaan Mission.
Mains level: Not Much
What is the news-
- The Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC), an ISRO facility located at Thumba in Thiruvananthapuram, has developed a multi-purpose app ‘SAKHI’ to assist Gaganyaan Crew.
About SAKHI
- The Space-borne Assistant and Knowledge Hub for Crew Interaction (SAKHI) is equipped to monitor astronauts’ health, maintain communication with Earth, and manage dietary schedules.
- It serves as an essential tool for the crew, offering real-time assistance and access to necessary data.
- It would assist astronauts during the Gaganyaan space flight mission, facilitating tasks such as accessing vital technical information and communication.
- Strapped to astronauts’ space suits, it allows for easy access and facilitates the maintenance of mission logs in various formats.
Utility offered by SAKHI
- Health Monitoring: SAKHI provides comprehensive health monitoring, including parameters like blood pressure, heart rate, and oxygen saturation. It also reminds astronauts about hydration, dietary schedules, and sleep patterns, enhancing their mission efficiency.
- Communication: SAKHI maintains communication between the crew, onboard computers, and ground-based stations, ensuring seamless connectivity.
Gaganyaan Mission Timeline:
- ISRO aims to launch the Gaganyaan human spaceflight mission in 2025.
- The identities of the four astronaut-designates, all IAF test pilots, were revealed at a high-profile event attended by PM at the VSSC on February 27.
- The final crew for the mission will be selected from among the four astronaut-designates.
Also read:
4 IAF Gaganyaan Astronaut-designates named
PYQ:
Which of the following is/are cited by the scientists as evidence/evidences for the continued expansion of the universe? (2012)
- Detection of microwaves in space
- Observation of redshift phenomenon in space
- Movement of asteroids in space
- Occurrence of supernova explosions in space
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- 1 and 2
- 2 only
- 1, 3 and 4
- None of the above can be cited as evidence
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Mission LiFE
Mains level: Not Much
Why in the news-
- Recently an EIACP Event (Environment Information, awareness, capacity building and livelihood Programme) was held on the ‘Mission Life’.
About Mission LiFE
- Mission LiFE, or Lifestyle for Environment, is a global mass movement initiated by India to encourage individual and community action towards environmental protection and preservation.
- It was inaugurated by the PM Modi at the 26th UN Climate Change Conference of the Parties (COP26) in Glasgow in November 2021.
- The program aims to mobilize one billion Indians and individuals worldwide to adopt sustainable lifestyles.
Salient Features of Mission LiFE
- It serves as a platform to showcase sustainable goals and climate actions implemented by countries and individuals globally.
- It aligns with the P3 model, promoting Pro Planet People and fostering a sense of collective responsibility.
- It operates based on the principles of ‘Lifestyle of the planet, for the planet, and by the planet’.
Strategy of Mission LiFE
- Mission LiFE adopts a three-pronged strategy to shift people’s collective approach towards sustainability:
-
- Nudging individuals to practice simple yet effective environment-friendly actions in their daily lives (demand).
- Enabling industries and markets to respond swiftly to the changing demand (supply).
- Influencing government and industrial policy to support both sustainable consumption and production (policy).
Practice MCQ:
With reference to the Mission LiFE, consider the following statements:
- It is a mass movement initiated by India to encourage individual and community action towards environmental protection and preservation.
- It was inaugurated at the UN Climate Change Conference of the Parties (COP26) in Glasgow in November 2021.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
- Only 1
- Only 2
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Neutrinos, IceCube Observatory, Indian Neutrino Observatory (INO), Trident
Mains level: NA
Why in the news
- Researchers at the IceCube Observatory, buried beneath the Antarctic ice, have identified seven potential instances of elusive “Ghost Particles” or astrophysical Tau Neutrinos as they penetrated through Earth.
- These neutrinos are pivotal for understanding the cosmic exchanges between Earth and the vast universe.
What are Neutrinos?
- Neutrinos, often referred to as “ghost particles,” are subatomic particles characterized by their nearly zero mass and lack of electric charge.
- They traverse through matter with minimal interaction, making their detection extremely challenging.
- Previously believed to be massless, evidence has emerged indicating that neutrinos possess a very small mass.
- Neutrinos rank among the most abundant particles in the universe.
- While neutrinos and electrons behave similarly in terms of nuclear forces, neither of them engages in strong nuclear interactions.
- However, both participate in weak nuclear interactions.
- Neutrinos are produced during events such as nuclear fusion in stars like the Sun or nuclear fission in reactors.
Properties of Neutrinos
| Electric Charge |
Electrically Neutral |
| Mass |
Extremely Low (Exact Masses Not Known) |
| Types |
Electron Neutrino, Muon Neutrino, Tau Neutrino |
| Interaction |
Weak Interaction |
| Speed |
Close to the Speed of Light |
| Spin |
Fermion, Half-Integer Spin |
| Neutrino Oscillations |
Neutrinos Change Flavor during Travel |
| Interactions |
Very Weak Interaction with Matter |
| Abundance |
Among the Most Abundant Particles in the Universe |
| Cosmic Messengers |
Can Carry Information from Distant Cosmic Sources |
Why Neutrinos are termed “Ghost Particles”?
- The weak charge and almost imperceptible mass of neutrinos render them exceedingly difficult for scientists’ to detect directly.
- Due to their rare interactions with other particles, tracking neutrinos proves nearly impossible.
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Significance of Neutrino Detection
- The origins of the abundant neutrino particles remain largely unknown to scientists.
- There’s a hypothesis suggesting their potential role in the early universe shortly after the Big Bang, yet concrete evidence remains elusive.
- Understanding neutrinos better holds the promise of unraveling numerous scientific phenomena, including the mysterious origins of cosmic rays, which neutrinos are known to carry.
- Researchers anticipate that pinpointing the source of neutrinos will aid in explaining the origins of cosmic rays, a puzzle that has perplexed scientists for centuries.
About IceCube Observatory
- Location: The IceCube Neutrino Observatory is situated near the Amundsen-Scott South Pole Station in Antarctica.
- Components:
- IceCube: The primary detector consists of 5,160 digital optical modules (DOMs) attached to vertical strings frozen into the ice.
- IceTop: Located on top of IceCube strings, it serves as a veto and calibration detector for cosmic rays.
- DeepCore: A denser subdetector within IceCube that lowers the neutrino energy threshold for studying neutrino oscillations.
- Completed in December 2010 with 86 strings deployed over seven austral summers.
- Involved melting holes in the ice to depths of 2,450 meters and deploying sensors connected to cables.
- Observing neutrinos from various astrophysical sources to study cosmic phenomena like exploding stars, gamma-ray bursts, and black holes.
- Studying cosmic rays interacting with the Earth’s atmosphere to reveal structures not fully understood.
- Advancing neutrino astronomy and exploring high-energy processes in the Universe.
Recent Neutrino Observatories in news:
[1] Indian Neutrino Observatory (INO)
- INO approved in 2015, is a proposed particle physics research mega project.
- Its objective is to study neutrinos in a 1,200 meter deep cave.
- The primary objective of the INO Project is to study neutrinos, one of the most abundant fundamental particles, coming from various sources and using an underground Iron calorimeter (ICAL) detector.
- Its location is decided to be at the Bodi West Hills (BWH) region near Pottipuram village in Theni district of Tamil Nadu (110 km from the temple town of Madurai).
[2] China’s TRIDENT
- Scheduled for completion in 2030, TRIDENT, aptly nicknamed “Ocean Bell” or “Hai ling” in Chinese.
- It will be positioned 11,500 feet (3,500 meters) beneath the ocean’s surface in the Western Pacific.
- It seeks to explore the realm of neutrinos, transient particles that momentarily interact with the deep ocean, emitting faint flashes of light.
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PYQs:
(1) In the context of modern scientific research, consider the following statements about ‘IceCube’, a particle detector located at the South Pole, which was recently in the news: (2015)
- It is the world’s largest neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic kilometre of ice.
- It is a powerful telescope to search for dark matter.
- It is buried deep in the ice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
(2) India-based Neutrino Observatory is included by the planning commission as a mega-science project under the 11th Five-year plan. In this context, consider the following statements: (2010)
- Neutrinos are chargeless elementary particles that travel close to the speed of light.
- Neutrinos are created in nuclear reactions of beta decay.
- Neutrinos have a negligible, but non-zero mass.
- Trillions of Neutrinos pass through the human body every second.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3 only
- 2, 3 and 4
- 1, 2, 3 and 4
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: HbA1C Test, Diabetes (Type-1 and 2)
Mains level: NA
Why in the news-
- India faces a significant burden of diabetes, with an estimated 10.13 crore people affected and an additional 13.6 crore individuals classified as pre-diabetic.
- One of the most commonly-used tests to diagnose pre-diabetes and diabetes (both type 1 and type 2) and to help manage diabetes, is the haemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) test.
What is the HbA1C Test?
- The HbA1C test, or glycated haemoglobin test, serves as a vital tool for diagnosing pre-diabetes and diabetes, offering insights into long-term blood glucose control.
- It measures the percentage of red blood cells coated with sugar.
- It provides a comprehensive view of average blood glucose levels over the preceding two to three months.
- It is recommended for individuals over 30 years and those with specific risk factors, with retests scheduled based on initial findings and individual health profiles.
Evolution and Acceptance
- Initially inconsistent, the test gained recognition for its correlation with blood glucose values and its role in monitoring glycemia, leading to improved standardization and accuracy.
- It is endorsed by medical bodies like World Health Organization (WHO) and the American Diabetes Association and.
- This underscores the test’s diagnostic utility, subject to stringent quality assurance measures.
Interpretation of Results
- Results are typically presented as percentages.
- Normal: Values below 5.7% are considered
- Pre-diabetes: 5.7% to 6.4%
- Diabetes: 6.5% or higher
- Alternatively, results may be expressed in mmol/mol, providing a comparable metric for assessment.
Limitations of the Test
- While informative, the HbA1C test may be supplemented by other tests, particularly in populations with conditions affecting assay accuracy.
- In India, factors like thalassemia prevalence and iron-deficiency anemia may impact test reliability, necessitating caution and additional indices for glycemic assessment.
PYQ:
‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations?
- Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go
- Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat
- Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals
- Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements about the HbA1C test:
- It is used in the diagnosis of Sickle Cell Disease.
- It measures the percentage of red blood cells coated with sugar.
- It is recommended for individuals over 30 years.
How many of the given statements is/are correct?
- One
- Two
- Three
- None
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: ULLAS Initiative, FLNAT Exam
Mains level: Adult Literacy
Why in the news
- The Department of School Education and Literacy (DoSEL), Ministry of Education recently conducted the Foundational Literacy and Numeracy Assessment Test (FLNAT), under the ULLAS – Nav Bharat Saaksharta Karyakram Initiative.
Foundational Literacy and Numeracy Assessment Test (FLNAT)
- FLNAT is a nationwide assessment test conducted as part of the ULLAS initiative.
- It aims to evaluate the foundational literacy and numeracy skills of registered non-literate learners aged 15 and above.
- The assessment covers three aspects – Reading, Writing, and Numeracy – and is conducted in all districts of participating states/UTs.
- The test plays a crucial role in assessing the impact of teaching-learning sessions conducted under the ULLAS program and promoting literacy and numeracy skills among citizens.
- It is conducted in the regional language of the learners, aligning with the NEP 2020’s emphasis on multilingualism
- Qualifying learners receive a certificate from the National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS).
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What is ULLAS Initiative?
- ULLAS stands for Understanding Lifelong Learning for All in Society.
- It seeks to advance lifelong learning and bridge literacy gaps among individuals aged 15 and above.
- The program aims to equip citizens with fundamental knowledge and skills essential for personal and national development.
- The ULLAS User-Friendly Mobile Application serves as a digital platform providing access to a wide range of learning resources via the DIKSHA portal.
Key Features of ULLAS
- Emphasizes continuous learning across all stages of life.
- Cultivates a culture of knowledge-sharing and individual growth.
- Provides participants with digital literacy skills.
- Promotes awareness and empowerment in financial matters.
- Imparts vital life skills such as legal literacy and digital competence.
- Enhances citizenship awareness and empowerment.
- Grants school/university credits to student volunteers.
- Offers recognition through certificates, letters of appreciation, and felicitation ceremonies.
PYQ:
Consider the following statements:
- As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
- As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
- In India, more than 90% of teacher -5 education institutions are directly under the State Governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2018)
- 1 and 2
- 2 only
- 1 and 3
- 3 only
Practice MCQ:
- Consider the following statements about the ULLAS Initiative:
- It focuses on Foundational Literacy.
- Individuals aged 15 and above are eligible under this initiative.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
- Only 1
- Only 2
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Sickle Cell Disease (SCD), Anemia
Mains level: NA
What is the news-
- Based in Delhi, Akmus Drugs and Pharmaceutical Limited unveiled a groundbreaking drug for sickle cell disease on March 16.
- This drug marks India’s first indigenous, room-temperature stable solution for sickle cell disease, available at a mere 1% of the global price.
What is Sickle Cell Disease (SCD)?
- Sickle Cell Disease (SCD) is a genetically inherited red blood cell disorder.
- It causes red blood cells to become hard, sticky, and sickle-shaped due to abnormal hemoglobin.
- This abnormality leads to complications such as pain, infections, acute chest syndrome, and stroke.
- Different types of SCD include HbSS, HbSC, and HbS beta thalassemia, each varying in severity.
- SCD is diagnosed through a simple blood test, often identified at birth through new-born screening.
- Treatment focuses on managing complications with options like bone marrow or stem cell transplantation, gene therapies, and medications like hydroxyurea to reduce symptoms and prevent complications.
- The recent approval of Casgevy, a groundbreaking gene therapy utilizing Crispr-Cas9 technology, represents a monumental achievement SCD Treatment.
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About Akmus Sickle Cell Drug
- The oral suspension of Hydroxyurea is the basic component of the drug.
- Priced at less than ₹600, the drug is poised to revolutionize access to treatment for sickle cell disease patients nationwide.
- It is tailored for patients across all age groups.
- It offers convenience and precision in dosage administration through provided oral syringes.
What makes it a revolutionary drug?
- Room Temperature Stability: Unlike imported hydroxyurea solutions requiring storage at 2-8 degrees Celsius, Akmus Pharmaceuticals’ formulation ensures accessibility without stringent storage conditions.
- Cost-Efficiency: With the global brand priced at approximately ₹77,000, Akmus’ solution underscores a paradigm shift towards affordable medication.
Sickle Cell Disease Menace in India
- Prevalence among STs: Sickle cell disease is a genetic disorder mostly prevalent in districts with high tribal populations. About one in 86 births among STs have sickle cell disease that affects haemoglobin in red blood cells, resulting in morbidity and mortality (as per WHO).
- Health Priority: Recognizing sickle cell disease as a significant health challenge, India has identified it among the top 10 issues disproportionately affecting tribal communities.
- National Mission: The National Sickle Cell Anemia Elimination Mission launched in 2023, aims to eliminate sickle cell anemia from India by 2047.
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PYQ:
Q. Consider the following statements in the context interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023)
- It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women.
- It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of child-birth.
- It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents.
- It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All four
Practice MCQ:
Q. Regarding the prevalence of Sickle Cell Disease (SCD) in India, consider the following statements:
- Sickle cell disease is a hereditary disorder affecting affects haemoglobin in red blood cells.
- About one in 86 births among STs have sickle cell disease.
- India has identified it among the top 10 issues disproportionately affecting tribal communities.
- The National Sickle Cell Anemia Elimination Mission, aims to eliminate sickle cell anemia from India by 2030.
How many of the given statements is/are correct?
- One
- Two
- Three
- Four
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Nana Jagannath Shankarseth and his contributions
Mains level: NA
Why in the news-
- The Maharashtra cabinet has resolved to request the Ministry of Railways to rename Mumbai Central station after Nana Jagannath Shankarseth, a revered social reformer, educationist, and philanthropist often hailed as the “architect” of Mumbai.
About Nana Jagannath Shankarseth (1803-1865)
- Born on February 10, 1803, in Murbad, Thane, into the affluent Murkute family.
- His father, Shankar Murkute, earned the nickname “Shankar Sheth” due to his success in the jewellery and diamond trade.
- He contributed in terms of both ideas and money to multiple sectors, to lay a strong foundation for the Bombay City.
- He was greatly inspired by the legendary merchant and philanthropist Sir Jamsetjee Jeejeebhoy.
Contribution of Nana Jagannath Shankarseth
- Founded the Bombay Association in 1852, the first political organization in Mumbai, fostering a platform for civic engagement and political discourse.
- Played a pivotal role as one of the founding members of the Great Indian Peninsula Railway in 1853, contributing to India’s infrastructural development.
- Recognized the importance of education in societal progress and opened the first school for girls in Mumbai in 1849, pioneering educational reform.
- Co-founded the School Society and the Native School of Bombay, laying the foundation for educational institutions that nurtured future leaders such as Dadabhai Naoroji and Gopal Krishna Gokhale.
- Established the Bombay Native Education Society in 1822, the first of its kind in Western India, to promote education among the masses.
- Collaborated with Sir George Birdwood and Dr Bhau Daji in major reconstruction efforts in Mumbai starting in 1857, transforming the city’s urban landscape.
- Became the first Indian to be nominated to the Bombay Legislative Council in 1861, advocating for policies that improved public welfare and urban amenities.
- Honored with a marble statue at the Asiatic Society of Mumbai a year after his death in 1865, commemorating his contributions to society.
Try this PYQ from CSE Prelims 2012:
Q.The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of Indian National Movement was that he-
- exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British
- interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored the self-confidence of Indians
- stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Practice MCQ:
Q. Consider the following events:
He founded the Bombay Association in 1852, the first political organization in Mumbai, fostering a platform for civic engagement and political discourse. Recognizing the importance of education in societal progress, he opened the first school for girls in Mumbai in 1849, pioneering educational reform. He became the first Indian to be nominated to the Bombay Legislative Council in 1861, advocating for policies that improved public welfare and urban amenities.
The above description is mentioned about which of the following personality?
a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
b) Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde
c) Nana Jagannath Shankarseth
d) Dhondo Keshav Karve
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: AH-64E Apache Attack Helicopters
Mains level: Read the attached story
Why in the news-
- The Indian Army Aviation Corps inaugurated its first unit of AH-64E Apache Attack Helicopters into its fleet at Jodhpur Air Base.
AH-64E Apache Attack Helicopters
- The AH-64E Apache also known as ‘Apache Guardian’ is widely recognized as the world’s most advanced multi-role combat helicopter.
- It originates from the United States and is manufactured by Boeing.
- In February 2020, India sealed a deal with Boeing for the acquisition of six AH-64E for the Army, with an additional six helicopters contracted subsequently.
- Several countries have acquired the AH-64E, including India, Egypt, Greece, Indonesia, Israel, Japan, South Korea, Kuwait, Netherlands, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, Singapore, UAE, and the UK.
Indigenous Push
- Tata Boeing Aerospace Limited (TBAL), a joint venture between Boeing and Tata Advanced Systems Ltd. (TASL), was established in 2016 to manufacture fuselages for the AH-64 Apache.
- TBAL’s Hyderabad facility has been delivering AH-64 Apache fuselages since 2018.
- The advanced manufacturing facility will eventually become the sole producer of AH-64 fuselages in the world, with 90% of parts sourced from Indian suppliers.
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Combat Features
- Engineered with an open systems architecture to integrate cutting-edge communications, navigation, sensor, and weapon systems.
- Boasts enhanced thrust and lift capabilities, joint digital interoperability, improved survivability, and cognitive decision aiding.
- Incorporates a new integrated infrared laser for simplified target designation and upgraded infrared imagery blending infrared with night vision capabilities.
Strategic Significance of the Induction
- Enhancing Combat Capability: The induction of Apache helicopters marks a significant advancement for the Army Aviation Corps, providing formidable firepower and maneuverability in combat scenarios.
- Complementing Indigenous Capabilities: The Apaches will complement the indigenous Light Combat helicopter (LCH), strengthening the Army’s aerial combat capabilities.
- Replacing the ageing arsenal: The Apache fleet is set to will replace the Russian Mi-35 attack helicopters in service.
Try this PYQ from CSE Prelims 2018:
Q.What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news?
(a) An Israeli radar system
(b) India’s indigenous anti-missile programme
(c) An American anti-missile system
(d) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea
Practice MCQ:
What is “AH-64E Apache Guardian “, sometimes seen in the news?
(a) Multi-role Helicopter
(b) Radar
(c) Anti-Tank Missile
(d) Air-Defence System
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