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  • Tourism Sector

    PRASHAD Scheme

    Schemes | Economics | Mains Paper 3: Infrastructure: Energy, Ports, Roads, Airports, Railways Etc.

    Why in the News?

    The long-awaited Chamundi Hills development project in Karnataka is finally gaining momentum under the Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual Heritage Augmentation Drive (PRASHAD) scheme.

    About the PRASHAD Scheme:

    • Launch: It was launched in 2014–15 by the Ministry of Tourism.
    • Core Objective: It aims to revitalize pilgrimage sites and develop spiritual tourism infrastructure across India.
    • Scope and Mission: In 2017, PRASHAD was upgraded to a National Mission, integrating features of the HRIDAY scheme to create a unified heritage and spiritual site development model.
    • Cultural Focus: The scheme emphasises cultural preservation, community involvement, and promoting both domestic and international spiritual tourism.
    • Implementation:
      • Executing Agencies: Projects are executed by state-level agencies appointed by the respective state or union territory governments.
      • Funding Model: The scheme offers 100% central financial assistance for eligible infrastructure and development components.
      • Public-Private Support: It encourages Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) contributions and Public-Private Partnerships (PPP) to expand sustainability and local ownership.
      • Centre-State Collaboration: Implementation is designed to ensure close cooperation between central and state governments while respecting local cultural and religious traditions.

    Key Features:

    • Infrastructure Development: Roads, drinking water, sanitation, solid waste management, lighting, and public conveniences at pilgrimage sites.
    • Connectivity Enhancement: Improved rail, road, and air links to facilitate easier access for pilgrims.
    • Pilgrim Facilities: Creation of accommodation, food courts, wayfinding systems, and security measures for safe and hygienic pilgrimages.
    • Cultural Conservation: Restoration of temples, monuments, ghats, and sacred lakes; integration of cultural traditions in tourism.
    • Community Empowerment: Skill training for locals, development of tourism-linked jobs, and stakeholder participation in project design and operation.
    • Sustainability Focus: Use of eco-friendly technologies, green energy, and promotion of responsible tourism to reduce environmental impact.
    [UPSC 2022] The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple at Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple?

    1. Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines.

    2. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni.

    3. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    Options: (a) 1 and 2 only * (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

     

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  • Climate Change Impact on India and World – International Reports, Key Observations, etc.

    Ocean Darkening: A New Ecological Crisis

    Prelims Only | Enviro & Biodiversity | Mains Paper 3: Conservation, Environmental Pollution & Degradation, Eia

    Why in the News?

    A new study from the University of Plymouth has revealed that over 21% of the global ocean has significantly darkened in the last two decades.

    What is Ocean Darkening?

    • Ocean darkening refers to the reduction in sunlight penetration into the ocean’s upper layers, known as the photic zone (up to 200 meters deep), where sunlight drives photosynthesis and supports marine biodiversity.
    • This process is measured using the diffuse attenuation coefficient (Kd 490), which tracks how quickly light diminishes as it passes through seawater.
    • The photic zone is essential for phytoplankton productivity, oxygen generation, marine food chains, and the regulation of global climate.

    Recent Report Citing Ocean Darkening:

    • A new study by researchers from the University of Plymouth, published in 2024, titled “Darkening of the Global Ocean”, revealed that 21% of the global ocean has significantly darkened from 2003 to 2022.
    • Key findings:
      • 9% of the ocean saw a drop of more than 50 meters in light penetration—equal to the area of Africa.
      • 2.6% experienced a loss exceeding 100 meters in photic depth.
    • Affected Region: The study found the Arctic, Antarctic, Gulf Stream, and North Sea among the worst affected regions.
    • Causes:
      • Algal blooms from nutrient runoff in coastal areas.
      • Warming seas, altered plankton dynamics, and changing ocean currents in open ocean zones.

    Implications of Ocean Darkening:

    • Ecosystem Disruption: Light-dependent species, such as Calanus copepods, are being pushed into shallower zones, increasing predation and competition.
    • Loss of Habitat: The shrinkage of the photic zone could be one of the largest marine habitat losses ever, affecting fish stocks and biodiversity.
    • Climate Feedback Loop: Reduced photosynthesis in oceans could weaken the ocean’s role in carbon sequestration and oxygen production, worsening climate change.
    • Threat to Global Fisheries: The contraction of productive zones affects fish populations, jeopardising fisheries and food security.
    • Scientific Concern: Researchers warn that this hidden crisis could fundamentally alter marine ecosystems if not urgently addressed.
    [UPSC 2025] With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements:

    I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans. II. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of the world’s oxygen. III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Options: (a) I and II (b) II only * (c) I and III (d) None of the above statements is correct

     

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  • Make in India: Challenges & Prospects

    Rudrastra UAV passes key army trial. 

    Prelims Only | Science Tech | Mains Paper 3: Indigenization Of Technology

    Why in the News?

    India advanced its indigenous defence tech with SDAL’s successful trial of the Hybrid VTOL UAV Rudrastra at Pokhran.

    Rudrastra UAV passes key army trial. 

    About Rudrastra:

    • Rudrastra is an indigenously developed Hybrid Vertical Take-Off and Landing (VTOL) UAV built by Solar Defence and Aerospace Limited (SDAL).
    • The UAV is engineered for deep-strike capabilities, capable of carrying out precision missions without endangering human soldiers.
    • It is tailored for anti-personnel roles, with airburst munitions designed to strike targets across hostile borders.
    • Rudrastra blends rotor-based vertical lift with fixed-wing cruise capability, enhancing deployment across diverse terrains.
    • It is considered a “stand-off” weapon, enabling missions deep into enemy territory with autonomous return capability.

    Key Features:

    • Hybrid VTOL Design: Can vertically take off and land like a helicopter and cruise like a fixed-wing aircraft, enhancing flexibility.
    • Extended Range: Demonstrated a total mission range of over 170 km, including loiter time over the target.
    • Real-Time Surveillance: Maintained a stable video link while covering a 50+ km mission radius.
    • Precision Strike Capability: Successfully deployed airburst munitions, effective for area damage and anti-personnel use.
    • Endurance: Achieved a flight endurance of 1.5 hours, ideal for extended ISR or strike operations.
    • Autonomous Navigation: Returned independently to the launch site after completing the mission.
    • Made in India: Fully developed by an Indian defence company, supporting indigenous innovation in combat drones.
    [UPSC 2025] With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements:

    I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing. II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering. III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    Options: (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None*

     

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  • Global Geological And Climatic Events

    Green Arabia Hypothesis in Human Evolution Research

    Prelims Only | Geography | Mains Paper 1: Important Geophysical Phenomena

    Why in the News?

    A recent study confirms that Arabia wasn’t always a desert wall but occasionally a green bridge between continents.

    About the Green Arabia Hypothesis:

    • Core Idea: It suggests that the Arabian Peninsula, now one of the driest places on Earth, experienced multiple humid phases over the past 8 million years, turning it into a green corridor for early migrations.
    • Challenge to Old Views: This theory challenges traditional models that excluded Arabia from early human dispersal routes in the ‘Out of Africa’ narrative.
    • Fossil Evidence: The discovery of fossils of crocodiles, hippos, and horses, dating up to 74,000 years ago, supports the claim that Arabia was once lush and habitable.

    Key Discoveries and Methods:

    • Archaeological Sites: Over 10,000 ancient lakebeds and sites over 500,000 years old were found, confirming Arabia’s role as a migration bridge between Africa and Eurasia.
    • Speleothem Analysis: 22 speleothem samples (mineral deposits formed within caves) from seven Saudi caves indicated humid phases between 7.44 million and 60,000 years ago.
    • Dating Techniques: Scientists used uranium-thorium dating to accurately time wet periods, revealing patterns linked to monsoon shifts and glacial cycles.
    • Environmental Impact: These wet intervals, though brief, supported vegetation, biodiversity, and water bodies, enabling human and animal settlements.

    Significance of the Study:

    • Biogeographic Role: Arabia is now viewed as a climate-sensitive migratory bridge, not a barrier, in human evolution and dispersal.
    • Climate Dependency: Human movement was influenced not just by geography, but by shifts in rainfall patterns and monsoonal activity.
    • Key Locations: Sites like Jubbah Oasis provided stone tools and lakebed evidence, validating early human habitation in the region.
    • Conclusion: Arabia’s periodic greening played a decisive role in early human migration, revising our understanding of ancient dispersal pathways out of Africa.
    [UPSC 2014] Which of the following phenomena might have influenced the evolution of organisms?

    1. Continental drift

    2. Glacial cycles Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2* (d) Neither 1 nor 2

     

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  • Air Pollution

    [16th June 2025] The Hindu Op-ed: What are flue gas desulphurisation units?

    op-ed snap | Enviro & Biodiversity | Mains Paper 3: Awareness in various sc and tech fields,Conservation, Environmental Pollution & Degradation, Eia

    PYQ Relevance:

    [UPSC 2022] Discuss global warming and mention its effects on the global climate. Explain the control measures to bring down the level of greenhouse gases which cause global warming, in the light of the Kyoto Protocol, 1997.

    Linkage:  SO2 as “one of the major greenhouse gases that cause global warming”. Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) units are designed specifically to remove SO2 emissions from the combustion of fossil fuels. Therefore, FGD units serve as a direct “control measure to bring down the level of greenhouse gases” as addressed by the question.

     

    Mentor’s Comment:  India’s top science advisory group has suggested ending the 2015 rule that made it compulsory for all coal-based power plants to install Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) units. This has raised serious concerns because FGDs are key to reducing sulphur dioxide (SO₂) pollution, which causes 15% of India’s PM2.5 levels and leads to breathing problems, environmental damage, and climate change. Although installing FGDs is expensive (₹1.2 crore per MW), experts warn that dropping the plan could harm public health and clean air efforts. Worryingly, only 39 of 537 plants have installed FGDs, and deadlines keep getting pushed back.

     Today’s editorial focuses on the analysis of the installation of the Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) units in a thermal power plant. This content is very relevant to GS Paper III (Environment, Science and Technology) Mains.

    _

    Let’s learn!

    Why in the News?

    A group of experts, led by Principal Scientific Advisor Ajay Sood, has recently suggested that India should cancel the 10-year-old rule that requires all coal-based thermal power plants to install Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) units.

    Why India should cancel the 10-Year-Old Rule (2015 FGD Mandate)?

    • High Installation Cost Burden: Installing FGD units costs around ₹1.2 crore per MW, which can significantly raise power generation costs and electricity tariffs. Eg: For 97,000 MW of new capacity, the cost would be about ₹97,000 crore, making power less affordable.
    • Delayed and Poor Implementation: Despite the 2015 rule, compliance has been dismal—only 39 out of 537 plants had FGDs installed by 2025. Eg: Repeated deadline extensions (up to 2029) show lack of feasibility and institutional capacity.
    • Limited Local Air Quality Impact in Some Areas: In certain regions, the contribution of SO₂ emissions from TPPs to PM2.5 levels is relatively small. Eg: In Delhi, most air pollution comes from other sources like vehicles and construction, so FGDs at distant plants may offer minimal benefit.

    What is a Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) unit?

    • FGD units are devices used in coal-fired thermal power plants (TPPs) to remove sulphur dioxide (SO₂) from flue gas. Flue gas is a byproduct of burning fossil fuels and contains pollutants like SO₂, CO₂, NOx, and particulate matter.
    • Three common FGD technologies:
      • Dry sorbent injection (adds powdered limestone to flue gas).
      • Wet limestone treatment (reacts SO₂ with limestone slurry to form gypsum).
      • Sea water scrubbing (used near coastal areas).

    How does it reduce SO₂ emissions from thermal power plants?

    • Chemical Neutralisation Reaction: FGD units use alkaline substances like limestone or lime to react with acidic SO₂ in flue gas, converting it into stable, non-toxic compounds. Eg: In wet limestone FGD, SO₂ reacts with limestone slurry to form gypsum (CaSO₄·2H₂O), a harmless industrial byproduct.
    • Efficient Scrubbing Techniques: Technologies like wet scrubbers or dry sorbent injection physically remove SO₂ from exhaust gases before release into the atmosphere. Eg: Dry sorbent injection sprays powdered lime into the flue gas stream, which binds with SO₂ and is later captured by filters.
    • Controlled Emission Discharge: FGD ensures that the treated flue gas released into the environment has significantly lower SO₂ levels, complying with environmental norms. Eg: Power plants near coasts use sea water FGD, where sea water absorbs SO₂ and is then treated before being discharged safely.

    Why are SO₂ emissions harmful?

    • Respiratory and Health Issues: Sulphur dioxide (SO₂) irritates the respiratory system, causing problems like asthma, bronchitis, and lung damage, especially in children and the elderly. Eg: Studies in urban industrial areas show a direct link between SO₂ exposure and increased hospital admissions for respiratory illnesses.
    • Formation of Secondary Particulate Matter (PM2.5): SO₂ reacts in the atmosphere to form fine particulate matter (PM2.5), which can penetrate deep into lungs and enter the bloodstream, posing serious health risks. Eg: According to studies, 80% of PM2.5 from coal combustion is due to secondary particles formed from SO₂.
    • Contribution to Acid Rain: SO₂ combines with water vapor in the atmosphere to form sulphuric acid, leading to acid rain that damages soil, crops, forests, and aquatic ecosystems. Eg: Regions near coal-fired plants have reported acidic lakes and damaged crops due to acid rain deposition.
    • Environmental Degradation: High SO₂ levels can corrode buildings, especially monuments made of limestone or marble, and degrade overall air and water quality. Eg: The Taj Mahal has shown signs of yellowing, partly attributed to SO₂-related pollution.
    • Climate and Visibility Impact: Though SO₂ itself is not a greenhouse gas, it leads to formation of aerosols, affecting cloud formation, reducing visibility, and causing climate imbalance. Eg: In industrial belts, hazy skies and temperature variations are linked to SO₂-derived aerosols.

    What is the status of FGD installation in India (2025)?

    • Low Overall Commissioning: Only about 39 out of 537 thermal power plant units (≈ 19,430 MW capacity) have commissioned FGD systems, representing ~11% of the total required capacity. Eg: Just 13 out of 35 units within 300 km of Delhi have installed FGDs, showing slow progress in high-pollution zones.
    • Stalled Projects and Delays: Contracts have been awarded for about 238 units (~105,200 MW), and 139 units (~42,847 MW) are still in the tendering stage, but many projects remain stalled. Eg: Some plants, especially near Delhi, may take up to 36 months to complete FGD installation due to regulatory and logistical hurdles.
    • Repeated Deadline Extensions: Compliance deadlines have been extended multiple times: from 2017 → 2024 → 2026–2029, depending on the location and plant category. Eg: The Ministry of Environment has pushed back deadlines for thermal plants in Delhi NCR without strict justification, raising concerns about enforcement.

    Way forward: 

    • Prioritised FGD Installation: Expedite FGD implementation in high-emission and densely populated zones to balance cost and health impact.
    • Policy and Financial Support: Provide targeted subsidies or incentives to TPPs and integrate FGD costs into long-term tariff planning for smoother adoption.

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  • Port Infrastructure and Shipping Industry – Sagarmala Project, SDC, CEZ, etc.

    Fire on waters India’s maritime firefighting capabilities are standing up to the test

    Prelims Only | Enviro & Biodiversity | Mains Paper 3: Conservation, Environmental Pollution & Degradation, Eia

    Why in the News?

    The fire on MV Wan Hai 503 near Kannur exposed India’s weak maritime safety. With over 140 hazardous containers onboard, it posed a major risk during the monsoon, threatening the environment and lives.

    What are the major types of peacetime maritime accidents faced by the Indian coast?

    • Sinking of merchant ships – leads to cargo loss, traffic disruption, and environmental damage.
    • Fire onboard vessels – threatens coastal life, property, and marine ecology.
    • Oil spills – have long-lasting environmental impacts and are difficult to contain.

    Why was the MV Wan Hai 503 incident a significant maritime safety challenge?

    • Presence of Hazardous Cargo: Over 140 of the 1,754 containers onboard contained hazardous materials, posing a high risk of toxic release and chemical explosions. Eg: Multiple colors of smoke (brown, white, grey, black) indicated different substances burning simultaneously.
    • Proximity to Coastline During Fire: The ship began drifting dangerously toward the Indian coast near Azhikkal, Kerala, during monsoon rough seas, increasing the threat of coastal disaster. Eg: The tow rope initially snapped under pressure, risking further drift and collision with the shore.
    • Complexity of Fire-Fighting and Towing: Fire-fighting was complicated by weather conditions and ship instability, requiring precise coordination. Eg: An Indian Navy helicopter had to airdrop a salvage team to pass a steel wire rope for safe towing to deeper waters.
    • Multi-Agency Emergency Response Needed: The incident required rapid coordination between the Indian Navy, Coast Guard, and the ship owner’s team using tugs. Eg: The ship was finally stabilized 45 nautical miles offshore, where the water depth was nearly one kilometre, minimizing risk to coastal areas.

    How did Indian agencies respond to the fire on MV Wan Hai 503?

    • Rapid firefighting efforts amid adverse conditions: The Indian Coast Guard initiated firefighting operations despite rough seas caused by the monsoon. Eg: Firefighting continued while the ship drifted dangerously toward the Kerala coast, with thick smoke from burning hazardous cargo.
    • Coordinated aerial and naval action: The Indian Navy deployed a helicopter to airdrop a salvage team onto the ship and deliver a steel wire rope to secure it. Eg: The steel rope enabled safe towing after the initial tow rope snapped due to tension and sea conditions.
    • Strategic towing and risk mitigation: Indian agencies, in coordination with the ship owner’s agents and tugboats, towed the vessel 45 nautical milesaway from the coast to prevent environmental and coastal damage. Eg: The vessel was moved to deeper waters (1 km depth) to minimize the impact of any further explosion or sinking.

    Why are gas-carrying and oil-laden ships considered severe fire and explosion hazards?

    • High flammability of cargo: Gas and crude oil are highly combustible, making these ships extremely prone to fires and explosions if containment fails. Eg: Even a minor spark can ignite vapours from gas or oil, causing catastrophic fires onboard.
    • Large volume of hazardous material: These vessels carry enormous quantities of flammable substances, which amplify the scale of damage during accidents. Eg: The New Diamond VLCC was carrying 2,70,000 tonnes of crude oil when it caught fire off Colombo in 2020.
    • Critical maritime chokepoint risks: Accidents involving such vessels at strategic locations like the Suez Canal or Strait of Malacca can disrupt global trade and cause widespread damage. Eg: A gas carrier explosion at a maritime chokepoint could halt international shipping routes, impacting global supply chains.

    What are the key areas India needs to strengthen in maritime fire-fighting and salvage operations? (Way forward)

    • Rapid Salvage Capability: India must improve its ability for quick salvage of sinking or damaged vessels to prevent cargo loss, environmental damage, and navigation disruption. Eg: During the MV Wan Hai 503 incident, timely towing by the Indian Navy helped avert a coastal disaster, but highlighted the need for faster salvage deployment.
    • Multi-agency Coordination: Effective response to maritime emergencies requires seamless coordination among the Coast Guard, Navy, port authorities, and private salvage firms. Eg: The successful control of the New Diamond VLCC fire involved joint efforts from Indian and Sri Lankan naval forces.
    • Advanced Fire-fighting Infrastructure: India needs to upgrade fire-fighting equipment on patrol vessels and at key ports, especially for handling hazardous cargo and oil/gas fires. Eg: The Coast Guard’s patrol vessels are now fitted with basic fire-fighting systems, but large-scale fires require specialised ships and foam-based suppression systems.

    Mains PYQ:

    [UPSC 2023] What are the ways in which oil pollution affects the marine ecosystem? In what way is oil pollution particularly harmful for a country like India?

    Linkage: Maritime Accident Response” explicitly talks about the “oil spills” as one of the three major peacetime maritime accidents that the Indian coast needs protection against. It also states that oil is a “more severe fire hazard” than hazardous cargo, especially in the context of gas-carrying merchant ships. This question directly addresses the environmental and national impact of oil pollution, which is a significant aspect of maritime accidents and firefighting efforts.

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  • Disasters and Disaster Management – Sendai Framework, Floods, Cyclones, etc.

    India needs a sincere aircraft accident investigation

    Explained | Enviro & Biodiversity | Mains Paper 3: Disaster Management

    Why in the News?

    The tragic aircraft accident in Ahmedabad on June 12, 2025, has once again thrown a spotlight on India’s deeply flawed aviation accident investigation system.

    Why is the AAIB’s independence in question despite being a statutory body?

    • Operational Control by MoCA: Although the AAIB is technically autonomous, it functions under the Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA), which also regulates airlines through the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA). Eg: In the Air India AI171 crash (2025), both the investigation and regulation were under MoCA’s control, raising concerns of bias and lack of transparency.
    • Leadership Appointments by the Same Authority: The MoCA appoints the heads of both the DGCA and the AAIB, undermining the bureau’s credibility as an independent investigative body. Eg: This centralized appointment structure is unlike the railway sector, where investigations are done by the Commissioner of Railway Safety, independent of the Railway Ministry.
    • Suppression of Uncomfortable Findings: Independent reviews and reports exposing deeper faults are often buried or ignored. Eg: The Air Marshal J.K. Seth Committee Report (1997) identified serious aviation safety issues, but it was never implemented because it told inconvenient truths.

    What systemic flaws affect India’s aviation safety framework?

    • Lack of Functional Independence in Investigations: The Aircraft Accident Investigation Bureau (AAIB) operates under the same ministry (MoCA) that regulates the aviation sector, compromising neutrality. Eg: After the Air India AI171 crash in June 2025, concerns were raised that the investigation might not be impartial due to overlapping roles of MoCA and AAIB.
    • Fragmented Oversight and Regulatory Capture: Aviation oversight in India suffers from poor coordination, limited resources, and influence by the very entities it is supposed to regulate. Eg: The J.K. Seth Committee Report (1997) pointed out such flaws, including regulatory capture, yet its recommendations remain largely unimplemented.
    • Reactive Rather Than Preventive Safety Culture: India’s aviation safety system often responds after accidents occur, rather than identifying and mitigating risks in advance.Eg: Multiple helicopter and flying school crashes in 2024–25 were not adequately investigated for systemic lapses, highlighting the absence of a proactive safety mechanism.

    How does MoCA’s control lead to conflict of interest in aviation oversight?

    • MoCA Controls Both Regulation and Investigation: MoCA oversees the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) and also controls the Aircraft Accident Investigation Bureau (AAIB), creating an inherent conflict between promoting aviation and investigating its failures. Eg: In the Air India AI171 crash (2025), MoCA was in charge of both regulating the airline and investigating the crash, raising doubts about impartiality.
    • Lack of Independent Appointments: Senior officials in both DGCA and AAIB are appointed by MoCA, making it difficult for these bodies to act independently or challenge government or airline lapses. Eg: The J.K. Seth Committee (1997) warned about lack of independence due to MoCA’s direct control over top appointments, yet no structural change followed.
    • Investigative Findings May Be Influenced or Suppressed: When the regulator and investigator are under the same authority, reports may be watered down or delayed to avoid political or bureaucratic accountability. Eg: The Kozhikode crash (2020) report’s recommendations were not fully implemented, with experts citing MoCA’s influence in diluting critical findings.

    Why is pilot error often blamed in aviation accident reports?

    • Legally Convenient: Blaming the pilot simplifies legal liability and expedites insurance claims, avoiding lengthy investigations or broader accountability. Eg: In many crash reports, including Aurangabad crash (1993), pilot error was highlighted while structural or operational flaws were downplayed.
    • Shields Other Stakeholders: It protects airlines, maintenance agencies, air traffic control, and the regulator from scrutiny or punishment. Eg: In the Air India Express IX611 case (2018), suspected overloading was ignored while responsibility was pushed toward the flight crew.
    • Systemic Culture of Scapegoating: There’s a lack of a genuine no-blame culture in India’s aviation safety framework. Pilots, even posthumously, become convenient scapegoats. Eg: After the Kozhikode crash (2020), the pilot was quickly blamed, although systemic issues like runway design and poor weather protocols were also contributing factors.

    Way forward: 

    • Ensure Structural Independence of Investigative Bodies: Transfer the AAIB and DGCA out of the Ministry of Civil Aviation’s direct control and make them statutory authorities reporting to Parliament. This will eliminate conflict of interest and promote credible, impartial investigations.
    • Promote a No-Blame Safety Culture: Need to amend existing rules to prevent automatic criminal liability for pilots unless gross negligence is proven (e.g., Rule 19(3) of Aircraft Rules, 1937).

    Mains PYQ:

    [UPSC 2018] Describe various measures taken in India for Disaster Risk Reduction (DRR) before and after signing ‘Sendai Framework for DRR (2015-2030)’. How is this framework different from ‘Hyogo Framework for Action, 2005?

    Linkage: The article explicitly frames an aircraft accident as a “wake-up call” and argues that India needs a system that “prevents failures, and not just manages the damage.” It states, “We cannot keep firefighting. We need a system that prevents failures”. This directly relates to the concept of Disaster Risk Reduction (DRR), which emphasises proactive measures and preparedness over reactive response.

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  • MGNREGA Scheme

    Centre caps MGNREGS spend at 60%

    Schemes | Governance | Mains Paper 2: Government Scheme/Policies

    Why in the News?

    The Union Finance Ministry has capped spending under the Mahatma Gandhi National Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) at 60% of its total annual allocation for the first half of FY 2025-26.

    About MGNREGS:

    • Legal Foundation: MGNREGS is a rights-based Centrally Sponsored Scheme launched under the MGNREGA Act of 2005 to ensure the Right to Work for rural households.
    • Origins:
      • The idea of employment guarantee in India began with Maharashtra’s pilot, Employment Guarantee Scheme (MEGS), in 1965 under the V. Naik government.
      • At the national level, the idea was first proposed in 1991 by then PM P. V. Narasimha Rao and later enacted in 2005.
    • Employment Guarantee: It provides 100 days of wage employment per year to any adult willing to do unskilled manual labour in rural India.
    • Legal Obligation: It is the first law in India that imposes a legal duty on the government to provide employment and compensate for non-compliance.
    • Development Goal: The scheme aims to promote livelihood security, inclusive growth, and rural development.

    Key Features:

    • Statutory Right: Employment under MGNREGS is a legal entitlement, not just a welfare scheme.
    • Eligibility: Any rural adult aged 18 or above can apply and must be offered work within 15 days.
    • Proximity and Wages: Work must be provided within 5 km of the applicant’s residence with minimum wage, and delays attract compensation.
    • Unemployment Allowance: If work is not provided on time, the state must pay an allowance.
    • Demand-Driven Model: The scheme is worker-initiated, requiring the government to respond to demand.
    • Transparency and Audits: Regular social audits and online updates ensure accountability in job cards, muster rolls, and fund use.
    • Local Implementation: It is decentralised, led by Gram Panchayats, with support from block and state officials, and centrally funded.
    • Women’s Inclusion: At least one-third of beneficiaries must be women, enhancing gender equity.
    • Sustainable Assets: Projects focus on durable rural infrastructure like ponds, roads, canals, and plantations.

    Rationale Behind the Spending Cap:

    • Expenditure Control: This cap is part of the Monthly/Quarterly Expenditure Plan to prevent front-loading of funds and mid-year shortages.
    • Previous Trends: In earlier years, over 70% of funds were spent by September, creating dues of ₹15,000–25,000 crore.
    • Current Status: As of June 2025, 28% of the budget is already used, while ₹19,200 crore in dues remain from FY25.
    • Criticism: Experts argue the cap undermines the demand-driven design of the act and may violate the legal right to work.
    [UPSC 2006] Consider the following statements in respect of the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005:

    1. The Act provides 100 days of employment to households as a fundamental right.

    2. Women are given priority such that half of the employment seekers are women.

    Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 *

     

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  • Capital Markets: Challenges and Developments

    What are Passively Managed Funds?

    Prelims Only | Economics | Mains Paper 3: Investment Models

    Why in the News?

    Passively Managed Funds—those that track a market index without active stock selection—have become increasingly popular among investors seeking low-cost, predictable returns.

    About Passively Managed Funds:

    • Passively managed funds, commonly known as passive funds, are investment vehicles designed to replicate the performance of a specific market index, such as the Nifty Fifty or the Sensex.
    • Unlike actively managed funds, the fund manager in a passive fund does not select stocks or make frequent buy-and-sell decisions.
    • Instead, the fund holds the same stocks in the same proportion as the underlying index.
    • How Passive Funds Work?
      • These funds track a benchmark index by investing in all or a representative sample of the securities in that index.
      • The objective is to mirror the index’s returns, not to outperform it.
      • As a result, they incur lower management costs and have minimal portfolio turnover.

    Types of Passive Funds:

    1. Index Funds:
      • These are mutual funds that can be purchased or redeemed directly from the fund house.
      • Transactions are processed only once a day, based on the day’s closing Net Asset Value.
      • They offer ease of use and are suitable for systematic investment plans and long-term investors.
    1. Exchange Traded Funds:
      • These are funds listed on stock exchanges, like the National Stock Exchange or the Bombay Stock Exchange.
      • Investors buy or sell units during trading hours through brokers, just like stocks.
      • They require a dematerialised account and are suitable for investors seeking intraday trading flexibility.

    Advantages of Passive Funds:

    • Low Expense Ratios: Because no active research or trading is involved.
    • Transparency: Holdings closely follow a well-known index.
    • Diversification: Spreads investment risk across multiple securities.
    • No Human Bias: Avoids mistakes due to the fund manager’s poor decisions.

    Limitations:

    • No Outperformance: Returns will always be close to the index and cannot exceed it.
    • Tracking Error: Slight variation between the fund’s performance and the index due to operational reasons.
    • Limited Flexibility: Cannot adapt to sudden market downturns.
    [UPSC 2025] Consider the following statements:

    Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.

    Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company, whereas stockholders are its owners.

    Statement III: For repayment purposes, bondholders are prioritised over stockholders by a company.

    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct, and both of them explain Statement I *

    (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement I explains Statement II

    (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

    (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

     

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  • New Species of Plants and Animals Discovered

    Spartaeus karigiri: New jumping Spider Species discovered in Karnataka

    Prelims OnlySpecies | Enviro & Biodiversity | Mains Paper 3: Conservation, Environmental Pollution & Degradation, Eia

    Why in the News?

    Researchers from Chennai have discovered a new species of jumping spider, ‘Spartaeus karigiri’, belonging to the Spartaeinae subfamily.

    About the Spartaeus karigiri :

    • Spartaeus karigiri is a newly discovered species of jumping spider, part of the Spartaeinae subfamily within the Salticidae (jumping spider) family.
    • It was first identified in the Karigiri (Elephant Hill) region of Devarayanadurga, Karnataka, and is named after this location.
    • The species marks the first recorded instance of the Spartaeus genus being found in India, extending its previously known range from Southeast Asia.
    • Field specimens were also collected from Villupuram district in Tamil Nadu, suggesting a broader habitat.

    Key Features:

    • Genus Identification: Belongs to the Spartaeus genus, known for its intelligent predation and visual hunting tactics.
    • Habitat: Found in rocky outcrops and forested terrain; prefers crevices and protected microhabitats.
    • Hunting Behaviour: Likely exhibits web-invasion hunting methods and prey mimicry, similar to other Spartaeinae members.
    [UPSC 2025] Regarding the Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements:

    I. It is an omnivorous crustacean.

    II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas.

    III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) I only (b) I and III (c) II only (d) II and III *

     

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