Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Krutrim AI Model
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
Krutrim AI is Ola’s homegrown AI assistant, designed to cater to the diverse needs and nuances of Indian consumers, bridging the gap between conventional AI and specific cultural contexts.
Krutrim’s Capabilities
- Multilingual Support: Krutrim boasts the ability to converse in English, Hindi, Tamil, Telugu, Malayalam, Marathi, Kannada, Bengali, Gujarati, and Hinglish, catering to the linguistic diversity of India.
- Multi-Functionality: Users can leverage Krutrim for a range of tasks, including writing emails, seeking information, learning new skills, planning travel, discovering recipes, and more.
Technology behind Krutrim AI
- Sophisticated AI Model: Krutrim operates on a sophisticated AI model trained on vast datasets encompassing Indian languages, social contexts, and cultural references.
- Natural Language Processing (NLP): Utilizes NLP to comprehend human language nuances, including colloquialisms and cultural contexts, enhancing user interactions.
- Machine Learning (ML): ML algorithms enable Krutrim to learn from datasets, continuously improving responses and understanding user intent.
- Deep Learning: Leverages Deep Learning to recognize patterns and analyze complex data, crucial for contextual responses and performance enhancement.
Applications and Benefits for Users
- Enhanced User Experience: Krutrim AI enhances user experiences across various sectors by offering culturally sensitive interactions, personalized learning in education, and automating administrative tasks.
- Support for Content Creators: Content creators can leverage Krutrim for ideation and localization, making content more relatable and engaging.
- Automating Repetitive Tasks: Krutrim’s capabilities extend to automating repetitive administrative tasks across industries, boosting efficiency and productivity.
PYQ:
2018: When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart minor in your bathroom shows the day’s weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a- message to your office accordingly.
In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following term” best applies to the above scenario?
- Border Gateway Protocol
- Internet of Things
- Internet Protocol
- Virtual Private Network
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements about the ‘Krutrim AI’:
- It is a homegrown AI assistant developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DACs).
- It can converse in regional languages of India.
Which of the given statements are correct?
- Only 1
- Only 2
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs)
Mains level: NA
What is the news?
SEBI has instructed mutual fund houses to halt new inflows into schemes investing in overseas exchange-traded funds (ETFs) from April 1, 2024.
What are Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs)?
- ETFs are marketable securities that track various assets, including indices, commodities, or bonds, and trade on stock exchanges like regular stocks.
- ETFs were started in 2001 in India.
- Types of ETFs: Equity ETFs, bonds ETFs, commodity ETFs, international ETFs, and sectoral/thematic ETFs cater to diverse investment preferences.
Market dynamics of ETFs
- ETFs can be purchased or sold on a stock exchange in the same way that regular stocks can, unlike the mutual funds.
- The traded price of an ETF changes throughout the day like any other stock, as it is bought and sold on the stock exchange.
- The trading value of an ETF is based on the net asset value of the underlying stocks that it represents.
- These funds offer higher liquidity, lower fees, and tax efficiency compared to traditional mutual funds, appealing to individual investors.
Reasons behind SEBI’s Directive
- Cap Proximity: The mutual fund industry has nearly reached 95% of the $1 billion investment limit in overseas ETFs, prompting SEBI’s intervention.
- Temporary Measure: SEBI’s directive aims to temporarily curb inflows into these schemes until the investment limit is revised or additional measures are implemented.
- Existing Caps: Currently, mutual funds are subject to an overall cap of $7 billion for investments in overseas stocks or mutual funds, with a specific limit of $1 billion for ETFs.
PYQ:
2013: The product diversification of financial institutions and insurance companies, resulting in overlapping of products and services strengthens the case for the merger of the two regulatory agencies, namely SEBI and IRDA. Justify.
2020: With reference to Foreign Direct Investment in India, which one of the following is considered its major characteristic?
- It is the investment through capital instruments essentially in a listed company.
- It is a largely non-debt creating capital flow.
- It is the investment which involves debt-servicing.
- It is the investment made by foreign institutional investors in the Government securities.
Practice MCQ:
With reference to the Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs), consider the following statements:
- ETFs are marketable securities that track various assets, including indices, commodities, or bonds, and trade on stock exchanges like regular stocks.
- ETFs were started in 2021 in India.
- ETFs can be purchased like the mutual funds.
How many of the given statements is/are correct?
- One
- Two
- Three
- None
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: International Astronomical Union (IAU), Statio Shiv Shakti, Jawahar Point
Mains level: NA

What is the news?
The International Astronomical Union (IAU) working group for Planetary System Nomenclature recently sanctioned the name ‘Statio Shiv Shakti’ for the landing site of Chandrayaan-3’s Vikram lander, marking a significant milestone in planetary nomenclature.
About International Astronomical Union (IAU)
- The IAU was founded on July 28, 1919, during the Constitutive Assembly held in Brussels, Belgium.
- Its creation was prompted by the need for international collaboration in astronomy, especially after the devastation caused by World War I.
- It aims for promoting and safeguarding astronomy in all its aspects through international cooperation.
- IAU is now headquartered in Paris, France.
Major Activities and Initiatives
- General Assembly: The IAU holds a general assembly every three years in varying parts of the world at which professional astronomers meet to discuss research, new cooperative ventures, and similar matters of professional interest.
- Astronomical Nomenclature: IAU standardizes the nomenclature of celestial bodies, features, and phenomena. It maintains several working groups dedicated to naming conventions for stars, planets, asteroids, and other objects.
- Research and Collaboration: It promotes international cooperation in astronomical research and supports initiatives such as observational campaigns, data sharing, and joint projects.
- Education and Outreach: It is actively involved in promoting astronomy education and public outreach efforts worldwide. It supports educational programs, workshops, and resources for students, teachers, and the general public.
Membership
- IAU membership spans 92 countries. Out of those countries, 85 are National Members.
- India is represented by the Astronomical Society of India (ASI).
- Its members are professional astronomers from all over the world, at the D. level and beyond, who are active in professional research, education, and outreach in astronomy.
IAU Nomenclature Criteria
- Rule 4: It emphasizes the international nature of solar system nomenclature and encourages equitable representation of names from diverse ethnic groups, countries, and genders.
- Rule 9: The IAU adheres to Rule 9, prohibiting names with political, military, or religious connotations, except for historical political figures prior to the 19th century.
- Rule 11: It emphasizes that names should be unique within the context of celestial nomenclature to prevent confusion.
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About Statio Shiv Shakti’
- Prime Minister announced the name ‘Shiv Shakti’ for the Chandrayaan-3 landing site in August, 2023, reflecting the significance of Indian mythology and cultural heritage.
- It is located at the co-ordinates 69.373°S 32.319°E and lies between the lunar craters Manzinus C and Simpelius N.
- The name ‘Shiv Shakti’ symbolizes the masculine-feminine duality of nature, embodying strength and resolution, with a profound connection to India’s diverse cultural landscape.

PM previously named the Chandrayaan-2 crash site ‘Tiranga point’, while former President A.P.J. Abdul Kalam suggested ‘Jawahar Point’ for the Chandrayaan-1 impact probe landing site, reflecting a tradition of honoring national figures and symbols. |
PYQ:
2021: Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years?
- Distances among stellar bodies do not change.
- Gravity of stellar bodies does not change.
- Light always travels in straight line.
- Speed of light is always same.
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements about International Astronomical Union (IAU):
- It aims for promoting and safeguarding astronomy in all its aspects through international cooperation.
- India is represented by the ISRO in the IAU.
Which of the given statements are correct?
- Only 1
- Only 2
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Postal Ballot Voting
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
The Election Commission of India (ECI) announced that media persons covering “polling day activities” are now eligible to vote in the upcoming Lok Sabha elections 2024 and state Assembly polls through postal ballots.
What are Postal Ballots?
- Postal ballots, also known as mail-in ballots, allow registered voters to cast their votes by mail instead of physically going to a polling station.
- It is governed by the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961.
- This system serves as a convenient alternative for individuals unable to vote in person due to various circumstances, such as being away from their home constituency, facing a disability, or performing essential services on Election Day.
Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System (ETPBS)
- The Conduct of Election Rules, 1961 was amended in 2016 to allow service voters to use the ETPBS. Under this system, postal ballots are sent electronically to registered service voters.
- The service voter can then download the ETPB (along with a declaration form and covers), register their mandate on the ballot and send it to the returning officer of the constituency via ordinary mail.
- The post will include an attested declaration form (after being signed by the voter in the presence of an appointed senior officer who will attest it).
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Who is eligible to cast their vote through postal ballots?
Eligible electors who can opt to vote through postal ballots include:
- Special voters: It includes President of India, Vice President, Governors, and Union Cabinet ministers, Speaker of the House and government officers on poll duty.
- Service voters: Members of the armed forces, paramilitary forces, and government employees deployed on election duty far from their home constituencies.
- Absentee voters: Individuals unable to vote in person due to reasons like work commitments, illness, or disability. Senior citizens above 80 years are also included.
- Electors on election duty: Government officials and polling staff assigned duties at polling stations other than their own.
- Electors under preventive detention: Individuals detained under preventive custody orders during the election period.
- Divyangjans: In October 2019, the Ministry of Law and Justice amended the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, lowered the age from 85 to 80 and allowed Persons with Disabilities (PwDs) to cast votes through postal ballots in the 2020 Delhi Assembly polls.
- Essential services covering polling day activities: Media persons with authorisation letters from the EC and those involved in essential services such as metros, railways, and healthcare have the option to vote using postal ballots in Lok Sabha and four state Assembly polls.
Applying for a postal ballot
- To apply for a postal ballot, eligible voters must apply, Form 12 D, to the returning officer (RO) of their respective constituency.
- The application typically requires personal details, voter identification information, and the reason for seeking a postal ballot.
- For service voters, the RO sends the postal ballot paper through the record office, directly or through the Ministry of External Affairs for service voters serving outside India.
- For senior citizens, a team of two polling officials, a videographer, and security personnel will visit the residence of the elector to facilitate this process.

What is the process of postal voting?
- Receiving the postal ballot: Once approved, the RO sends the postal ballot to the voter’s registered address, including the ballot paper, declaration form, secrecy sleeve, and pre-paid return envelope.
- Marking the ballot: Voters mark their preferred candidate(s) on the ballot paper in the secrecy sleeve to ensure confidentiality.
- Completing the declaration form: Voters fill out the declaration form, providing their signature and other relevant details.
- Sealing the envelope: Voters seal the marked ballot paper and declaration form inside the secrecy sleeve and place it into the pre-paid return envelope.
- Returning the postal ballot: Voters affix the postage stamp and mail the return envelope to the designated address within the specified time.
Counting of postal ballots
- Postal ballots are counted separately from votes cast at polling stations.
- On the designated counting day, postal ballots are collected by postal authorities and brought to the counting centre.
- The RO and election officials scrutinise postal ballots for validity and integrity, adding valid ballots to the respective candidate’s vote count.
PYQ:
Q.For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by-
- Anyone residing in India.
- A resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
- Any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
- Any citizen of India.
Practice MCQ:
Q.Consider the following statements:
- The right to cast vote is not a fundamental right
- NRI settled in foreign land can become an elector in the electoral roll in India
- Individuals in lawful custody of the police and those serving a sentence of imprisonment after conviction cannot vote
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 and 3
- 1 and 3
- 1,2 and 3
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: MTBVAC, TB, DOTS Regimen, Nikshay Poshan Yojana
Mains level: NA

What is the news?
- Bharat Biotech, in collaboration with Spanish biopharmaceutical company Biofabri, has initiated clinical trials for the Mycobacterium Tuberculosis Vaccine (MTBVAC) in India, marking a significant milestone in TB vaccine development.
- The only currently available TB vaccine, the Bacillus Calmette-Guérin vaccine (BCG), was developed 100 years ago and is less effective.
About MTBVAC
- MTBVAC is a unique TB vaccine based on a genetically modified form of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, containing all antigens present in human-infecting strains, unlike the BCG vaccine.
- It is developed in the laboratory of the University of Zaragoza with contributions from Dr. Brigitte Gicquel of the Pasteur Institute, Paris.
- MTBVAC is designed to offer superior and potentially longer-lasting protection compared to the BCG vaccine, particularly for newborns and in preventing TB in adults and adolescents.
Objectives of Clinical Trials in India
- Safety and Immunogenicity: The ongoing trials in India aim to evaluate the safety and immunogenicity of MTBVAC, with plans for a pivotal Phase 3 trial in 2025.
- Population Significance: Studying the vaccine’s efficacy in India, with its high TB burden, is crucial for advancing TB vaccine research and addressing the global TB epidemic.
What is Tuberculosis?
- Tuberculosis is an infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
- Robert Koch discovered Mycobacterium tuberculosis which causes TB, and his discovery opened the way towards diagnosing and curing this disease.
- It can practically affect any organ of the body.
- The most common ones are lungs, pleura (lining around the lungs), lymph nodes, intestines, spine, and brain.
Transmission:
It is an airborne infection that spreads through close contact with the infected, especially in densely populated spaces with poor ventilation.
Symptoms:
Common symptoms of active lung TB are cough with sputum and blood at times, chest pains, weakness, weight loss, fever and night sweats.
Treatment Facilities in India:
- DOTS (Directly Observed Treatment, Short-Course) regimen: It is the recommended treatment approach for TB by the WHO. Patients receive a combination of four antibiotics: isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. These drugs are usually administered daily for the first two months of treatment, followed by a continuation phase with isoniazid and rifampicin for an additional four to seven months.
- Nikshay Poshan Yojana (2018): It was launched to support every Tuberculosis (TB) Patient by providing a Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) of Rs 500 per month for nutritional needs.
Issues in TB Treatment: Drug Resistance
Drug resistance emerges when anti-TB medicines are used inappropriately, through incorrect prescription by health care providers, poor quality drugs, and patients stopping treatment prematurely.
- Multidrug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB): Itis a form of TB caused by bacteria that do not respond to isoniazid and rifampicin, the 2 most powerful, first-line anti-TB drugs. MDR-TB is treatable and curable by using second-line drugs such as
- Extensively drug-resistant TB (XDR-TB): Itis a more serious form of MDR-TB caused by bacteria that do not respond to the most effective second-line anti-TB drugs, often leaving patients without any further treatment options.
PYQ:
2014: Can overuse and free availability of antibiotics without Doctor’s prescription, be contributors to the emergence of drug-resistant diseases in India? What are the available mechanisms for monitoring and control? Critically discuss the various issues involved.
Practice MCQ:
With reference to the Tuberculosis (TB), consider the following statements:
- TB is an infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
- It only targets Lungs.
- Nikshay Poshan Yojana aims for TB support is essentially a Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT).
How many of the given statements is/are correct?
- One
- Two
- Three
- None
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Pushpak Reusable Landing Vehicle (RLV), Low Earth Orbits, Gaganyaan
Mains level: NA

What is the news?
- The ISRO has conducted the Pushpak Reusable Landing Vehicle (RLV) LEX 02 landing experiment at the Aeronautical Test Range in Chitradurga. It was lifted by an Indian Air Force Chinook helicopter and released from an altitude of 4.5 km.
- This experiment marks a significant milestone in ISRO’s pursuit of reusable space technology.
About Pushpak Reusable Landing Vehicle (RLV)
- The Pushpak RLV is a winged vehicle, equipped with aerodynamic surfaces that enable controlled flight during re-entry into the Earth’s atmosphere.
- The RLV is designed to autonomously land on a designated runway after completing its mission in space, thereby demonstrating India’s capability in autonomous space vehicle landing.
- It is equipped with sophisticated navigation, control, and landing gear systems that allow it to autonomously navigate and land on a predefined runway.
Key Features
- The RLV is a space plane with a low lift-to-drag ratio, requiring an approach at high glide angles that necessitates landing at high velocities of 350 km/h.
- This design allows it to transport payloads to Low Earth orbits and return to Earth for future use.
Future Prospects
- Iterative Testing: ISRO conducts a series of experiments, such as the RLV LEX 02 landing experiment, to test and validate the performance of the RLV in various scenarios.
- Orbital Re-entry Missions: The successful demonstration of the Pushpak RLV’s capabilities paves the way for future orbital re-entry missions, where reusable vehicles can be deployed for various scientific and commercial purposes.
PYQ:
2018: With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:
- PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
- Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
- GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch l vehicle with the first and third stages l using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 and 3
- 1 and 2
- 3 only
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements about the ‘Pushpak’ Reusable Landing Vehicle (RLV):
- It is a winged vehicle.
- It can transport payloads to Low Earth orbits and return to Earth with the help of a parachute.
Which of the given statements are correct?
- Only 1
- Only 2
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Forest in Kerala and comparison with forest in other states
Mains level: Measures to address human-wildlife conflict
Why in the news?
- Instances of human-animal conflict are on the rise in Kerala with the summer heat, scarcity of food, and loss of habitat forcing wild animals to stray into human habitations for sustenance.
Context-
- Vulnerability of tribal communities living in such areas. While they have intricate knowledge of the forest and its resources, they lack the protective measures and resources available to more urbanized populations, leaving them more susceptible to the dangers of wildlife encounters.
Human-animal conflict in Kerala-
- Surge in Incidents: Kerala has experienced a significant increase in human-animal conflict incidents across its districts, attributed to the state’s significant forest cover and densely populated settlements near wildlife habitats.
- Human Casualties: Human-wildlife conflicts have resulted in a substantial loss of human lives, with 93 reported deaths in 2023-24. The previous year recorded 98 human casualties.
- Hotspot District: Wayanad stands out as a hotspot for human-animal conflicts, with 69 reported deaths between 2011 and 2024. Incidents involve encounters with wild elephants and, in one case, a tiger attack.
- Diverse Wildlife Involved: Human-animal conflicts in Kerala involve various species, including elephants, tigers, leopards, bears, wild gaurs, wild boars, and monkeys. This diversity underscores the complexity of managing conflicts across different ecosystems and habitats.
- Impact on Livelihoods: The conflicts have severe repercussions on people’s livelihoods, particularly those dependent on agriculture and farming. Attacks by wild animals prevent farmers from cultivating their land, leading to economic hardship and food insecurity.
- Vulnerable Communities: Vulnerable communities like tribal groups and small-scale farmers are disproportionately affected by human-animal conflicts. Limited resources and infrastructure exacerbate their vulnerability to wildlife attacks, as seen in the case of Abraham Palatt and his family.
Steps taken by Government to deal these issues –
- State-Specific Disaster: The Kerala government declared human-animal conflict as a state-specific disaster in March, becoming the first state to do so. This decision signifies the severity and urgency of addressing the issue.
- Responsibility Shift: Management of human-animal conflicts now falls under the purview of the Kerala State Disaster Management Authority (KSDMA), with a committee headed by the Chief Minister established for this purpose.
- Community Involvement: The government plans to involve local communities through neighborhood groups to enhance surveillance on forest fringes. These groups will collaborate with government agencies and elected representatives to disseminate alerts about wildlife presence.
- Recruitment and Equipment: The government aims to strengthen surveillance by recruiting more forest watchers and establishing rapid response teams equipped with firearms, surveillance devices, drones, tranquilizing guns, and advance warning systems.
- Inter-State Collaboration: An inter-State coordination committee involving the Forest departments of Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu has been formed to address human-wildlife conflicts collectively. This initiative aims to share intelligence and resources to mitigate conflicts, particularly along interstate borders.
Measures to address human-wildlife conflict-
- Forest Quality Improvement: Improving the quality of forests through measures such as reducing fragmentation and patchiness can help create healthier ecosystems that support a more balanced coexistence between humans and wildlife.
- Conservation Mission with Tribal Communities: Involving tribal communities in conservation efforts ensures their participation and traditional knowledge is valued. Collaborative conservation initiatives can promote sustainable practices and protect both biodiversity and livelihoods.
- Rejuvenation of Natural Forest Streams: Restoring natural water sources in forests is crucial for wildlife habitat and can help mitigate conflicts by providing essential resources within their natural environment.
- Removal of Invasive Plants and Replanting Indigenous Species: Removing invasive plant species and replanting indigenous ones can restore ecological balance and support native wildlife populations, reducing their reliance on human-impacted areas.
- Utilization of MGNREGS: Leveraging government schemes like the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) to support conservation efforts can provide employment opportunities while simultaneously contributing to environmental restoration projects.
- Awareness Programs on Responsible Tourism: Educating tourists about responsible behavior around wildlife can minimize human-wildlife conflicts caused by human disturbance. This includes emphasizing the importance of maintaining a safe distance and respecting wildlife habitats.
- Effective Institutional Framework: Establishing a robust institutional framework at various levels of governance, from local to inter-state, is essential for coordinated action in managing human-wildlife conflicts. This involves collaboration between different government departments, wildlife authorities, and local communities.
Conclusion-
Human-wildlife conflicts surge in Kerala, endangering lives and livelihoods. Government initiatives, community involvement, and conservation efforts are crucial for mitigating conflicts and fostering coexistence, ensuring a sustainable future for both humans and wildlife.
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Gibraltar Strait, Tectonic Plate Boundaries, Subduction Zones
Mains level: Read the attached story

What is the news?
- Scientists in Portugal have uncovered a concerning revelation about the fate of the Atlantic Ocean, highlighting a potential ‘Ring of Fire’ (a Subduction Zone).
- Researchers caution that the Atlantic may be on the brink of closure due to subduction activity.
Why discuss this?
- Closure of Gibraltar Strait: Computer simulations project the subduction zone’s expansion over the next 20 million years, forming the ‘Ring of Fire’ in the Atlantic leading to the closure of Gibraltar Strait.
- Geological Parallel: This process mirrors the Pacific Ocean’s Ring of Fire, reshaping the ocean basin through gradual subduction of the ocean floor beneath continents.
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About Gibraltar Strait
|
Details |
Location |
- Connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea;
- Separating the southern tip of the Iberian Peninsula of Europe from the northern coast of Africa.
|
Width |
Approximately 13 km (8.1 miles) at its narrowest point. |
Depth |
Varies, with the deepest point reaching around 300 meters (984 feet). |
Formation |
- Convergence point for the Eurasian Plate and the African Plate.
- Formed around 5.33 million years ago during the Messinian salinity crisis when the Atlantic Ocean breached the barrier separating it from the Mediterranean Sea, resulting in a catastrophic flood known as the Zanclean flood.
- The strait’s current shape and depth were further influenced by tectonic movements and erosional processes over geological time.
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Historical Significance |
Serves as a key maritime passage for trade and military purposes. |
Disputes |
- Subject of contention between Spain and the United Kingdom;
- Gibraltar Overseas Territory under British control.
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What are Subduction Zones?
- Subduction zones occur at convergent plate boundaries, where two tectonic plates move toward each other.
- This convergence is often between an oceanic plate and a continental plate or between two oceanic plates.
- Subduction Process:
- Collision of Tectonic Plates: When two tectonic plates collide, the denser oceanic plate is forced beneath the less dense continental plate or another oceanic plate.
- Partial Melting: As the oceanic plate descends into the mantle, it generates intense heat and pressure, causing partial melting of the mantle material.
- Volcanic Activity: The molten material formed by the subduction process rises through the Earth’s crust, leading to volcanic eruptions at the surface.
- Formation of Volcanic Arcs: These eruptions often occur in chains known as volcanic arcs, which parallel the subduction zone. Ex. Andes in S. America; Cascade Range in North America.
Implications of this Activity
- Earthquakes: Subduction zone earthquakes can be particularly destructive and may trigger tsunamis due to the displacement of large volumes of water.
- Trench Formation: The surface expression of a subduction zone is often a deep oceanic trench, where the descending plate bends and plunges into the mantle.
- Mountain Building: Over time, the continuous subduction of oceanic crust can lead to the uplift and deformation of the overriding plate, resulting in the formation of mountain ranges adjacent to the subduction zone. These mountains may exhibit complex geological structures, including folds and faults.
- Recycling of Oceanic Crust: As oceanic plates are subducted, they are gradually consumed by the mantle, releasing minerals and elements that are eventually returned to the surface through volcanic activity.
PYQ:
2010: Which one of the following can one come across if one travels through the Strait of Malacca?
- Bali
- Brunei
- Java
- Singapore
2011: Between India and East Asia, the navigation time and distance can be greatly reduced by which of the following?
- Deepening the Malacca straits between Malaysia and Indonesia.
- Opening a new canal across the Kra Isthmus between the Gulf of Siam and Andaman sea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Practice MCQ:
Which of the given statement about the Gibraltar Strait is NOT correct?
- It connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea.
- It is approximately 13 kilometers wide at its narrowest point.
- The deepest point of the Gibraltar Strait reaches around 300 meters.
- It was formed around 5.33 million years ago during the Holocene Epoch due to tectonic movements.
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Critical Minerals
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- India is looking for cobalt and other critical minerals in Zambia, Namibia, Congo, Ghana and Mozambique. It is still engaging with Australia for lithium blocks.
- Critical minerals, including lithium and cobalt, are crucial for technology, manufacturing and other industries.
What are Critical Minerals?
- Critical minerals are elements that are crucial to modern-day technologies and are at risk of supply chain disruptions.
- These minerals are mostly used in making electronic equipment such as mobile phones, computers, batteries, electric vehicles, and green technologies like solar panels and wind turbines.
- Many of these are required to meet the manufacturing needs of green technologies, high-tech equipment, aviation, and national defence.
List of critical minerals includes:
The centre has released a list of 30 critical minerals for India in 2023:
- Identified Minerals: Antimony, Beryllium, Bismuth, Cobalt, Copper, Gallium, Germanium, Graphite, Hafnium, Indium, Lithium, Molybdenum, Niobium, Nickel, Platinum Group elements (PGE), Phosphorous, Potash, Rare Earth Elements (REE), Rhenium, Silicon, Strontium, Tantalum, Tellurium, Tin, Titanium, Tungsten, Vanadium, Zirconium, Selenium and Cadmium.
- Fertilizer Minerals: Two minerals critical for fertilizer production, phosphorous and potash, are also included in the above list.
Critical Mineral Blocks in India
- Distribution: There are 20 blocks spread across eight states, including Tamil Nadu, Odisha, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, and Jammu & Kashmir.
- Types of Licenses: Four blocks are for a Mining License (ML), allowing immediate mining post-clearance. The remaining 16 blocks are for a Composite License (CL), permitting further exploration before potentially converting to an ML.
- Approvals Required: Licensees must obtain various approvals, including forest clearance and environmental clearance.
- Forest Land: Approximately 17% of the total concession area, or 1,234 hectares, is forest land.

India’s Critical Mineral Imports
- Lithium Imports: In FY23, India imported 2,145 tonnes of lithium carbonate and lithium oxide, costing Rs 732 crore.
- Nickel and Copper Imports: The country imported 32,000 tonnes of unwrought nickel and 1.2 million tonnes of copper ore, costing Rs 6,549 crore and Rs 27,374 crore, respectively.
- Import Dependence: India relies entirely on imports for lithium and nickel, and 93% for copper.
Country-wise dependence:
- China: India heavily relies on China for the import of critical minerals like lithium, cobalt, nickel, and graphite.
- Australia: India is actively engaged with Australia for acquiring mineral assets, particularly lithium and cobalt, to secure its supply chain for critical minerals.
- Argentina, Bolivia, and Chile: India is engaging with these countries, known for their reserves of battery metals like lithium and cobalt, to diversify its sources for critical minerals.
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PYQ:
2019: With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:
- Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country.
- State governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
- State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 3
- 2 and 3
- 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements:
- Critical minerals are those elements which are crucial to modern-day technologies and are at risk of supply chain disruptions.
- India has notified 30 elements in the Critical Minerals List.
- Fertilizer minerals Phosphorous and potash are also included in the Critical Minerals List.
How many of the given statements is/are correct?
- One
- Two
- Three
- None
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Section 153A , IPC, Freedom of Speech and Reasonable Restrictions
Mains level: NA
What is the news?
- The Supreme Court reiterated that to constitute an offence under Section 153A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), the essential ingredient is to create a sense of enmity and disharmony amongst two or more groups or communities.
- Quite often, politicians are arrested under section 153 A of IPC for alleged hate speech.
Section 153A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC)
- Section 153A of the IPC deals with the offence of promoting enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc.
- The primary is to prevent the promotion of disharmony or feelings of enmity, hatred, or ill-will between different groups in society.
- It was enacted in 1898 and was not in the original penal code.
Prohibited Acts:
The section prohibits several acts:
- Engaging in activities that promote or attempt to promote feelings of enmity or hatred between different religious, racial, linguistic, or regional groups.
- Committing acts prejudicial to the maintenance of harmony between different groups or communities.
- Doing anything that disturbs or disrupts public tranquillity or creates unrest among various groups.
Essential Elements:
To constitute an offence under Section 153A, the following essential elements must be established:
- Promotion of enmity or hatred between different groups.
- Such promotion must be based on religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc.
- The intention behind the act must be to disrupt public tranquillity or to create disharmony among groups.
Punishment:
- Jail Term: Any individual found guilty of committing an offence under Section 153A may be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to 3 years, or with a fine, or with both.
- Cognizable and Non-Bailable: The offence is a cognizable offence and the punishment for the same may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both. Further, the offence is non-bailable in nature, wherein the accused is tried by the magistrate of the first class.
- Burden of Proof: It lies with the prosecution to demonstrate that the accused’s words, actions, or conduct were aimed at promoting enmity or hatred between different groups based on the specified grounds.
PYQ:
2014: What do understand by the concept “freedom of speech and expression”? Does it cover hate speech also? Why do the films in India stand on a slightly different plane from other forms of expression? Discuss.
2022: With reference to India, consider the following statements:
- When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
- State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Practice MCQ:
Q.The Section 153A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) essentially deals with:
- Fake News
- Hate Speech
- Protest without permission
- Encroachment
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Congress Radio, Usha Mehta and other personalities mentioned
Mains level: NA

Why in the news?
Who was Usha Mehta (1920-2000)?
- Usha Mehta was born on March 25, 1920, in Mumbai, India.
- Inspired by Mahatma Gandhi’s principles of nonviolent resistance and civil disobedience, Usha Mehta became actively involved in the Indian independence movement from a young age.
- One of Usha Mehta’s most notable contributions to the freedom struggle was her involvement in the radio broadcasting network known as the “Secret Congress Radio.”
- She was conferred the Padma Vibhushan, one of India’s highest civilian honours in 1998.
The Secret ‘Congress Radio’
- On August 8, 1942, the historic Quit India Resolution was passed during the All India Congress Committee meeting in Bombay.
- In this response, the idea of an underground radio station, known by various names such as the Freedom Radio, the Ghost Radio, or the Congress Radio, was conceived to counter the British-controlled AIR.
- Usha Mehta, a 22 YO master’s student at Wilson College, became the voice of the Congress Radio.
- The radio was an expensive endeavour, but funds were procured through various means, including contributions from Mehta’s colleague, Babubhai Khakhar.
- Radio engineering expert Nariman Abarbad Printer constructed the Congress Radio transmission set.
- Their first broadcast was on 14 August 1942.
- Welcome line in her voice: “This is the Congress Radio calling on 42.34 from somewhere in India.”
- In the beginning, they were broadcasting twice a day, in Hindi and English. But they reduced it to just once in the evening between 30 and 8.30 pm.
- On 12th November 1942, the police raided the radio while Vande Mataram was being played and arrested Mehta and others.
PYQ:
2011: With reference to Indian freedom struggle, Usha Mehta is well-known for-
- Running the secret Congress Radio in the wake of Quit India Movement
- Participating in the Second Round Table Conference
- Leading a contingent of Indian National Army
- Assisting in the formation of Interim Government under Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
2021: With reference to 8th August, 1942 in Indian history, which one of the following statements is correct?
- The Quit India Resolution was adopted by the AICC.
- The Viceroy’s Executive Council was expanded to include more Indians.
- The Congress ministries resigned in seven provinces.
- Cripps proposed an Indian Union with full Dominion Status once the Second World War was over
Practice MCQ:
In context to the Secret ‘Congress Radio’ in modern Indian history, consider the following statements:
- It was established to supplement the Civil Disobedience Movement of 1930s.
- Usha Mehta was the voice of Congress Radio.
- It was broadcasted twice a day, in Hindi and English
How many of the given statements is/are correct?
- One
- Two
- Three
- None
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Great Indian Bustard (GIB)
Mains level: NA

What is the news?
- The Supreme Court has taken a decisive step by forming an expert committee to address the pressing issue of conserving the endangered Great Indian Bustard.
About Great Indian Bustard (GIB)
- GIBs are the largest among the four bustard species found in India, the other three being MacQueen’s bustard, lesser florican, and the Bengal florican.
- It is state bird of Rajasthan.
- It is considered the flagship bird species of grassland.
- Protection Status:
- Birdlife International: Uplisted from Endangered to Critically Endangered (2011)
- Protection under CITES: Appendix I
- IUCN status: Critically Endangered
- Protection under Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I
Threats to GIBs
- Overhead power transmission: Due to their poor frontal vision, can’t detect powerlines in time and their weight makes in-flight quick maneuvers difficult.
- Windmills: Coincidentally, Kutch and Thar desert are the places that have witnessed the creation of huge renewable energy infrastructure.
- Noise pollution: Noise affects the mating and courtship practices of the GIB.
- Changes in the landscape: by way of farmers cultivating their land, which otherwise used to remain fallow due to frequent droughts in Kutch.
- Cultivation changes: Cultivation of cotton and wheat instead of pulses and fodder are also cited as reasons for falling GIB numbers.
PYQ:
2014: Consider the following pairs:
Protected Area: Well-known for
- Bhitarkanika, Odisha — Salt Water Crocodile
- Desert National Park, Rajasthan — Great Indian Bustard
- Eravikulam, Kerala — Hoolock Gibbon
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
- 1 only
- 1 and 2
- 2 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Practice MCQ:
With reference to the Great Indian Bustard (GIB), consider the following statements:
- It is the largest among the bustard species found in India.
- It is state bird of Rajasthan as well as Gujarat.
- It is considered the flagship bird species of deserts.
How many of the given statements is/are correct?
- One
- Two
- Three
- None
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Exercise IMT TRILAT- 2024
Mains level: NA
Why in the news-
- INS Tir and INS Sujata are set to participate in the second edition of the India-Mozambique-Tanzania (IMT) Tri-Lateral (TRILAT) Exercise.
Exercise IMT TRILAT- 2024
- It is a biennial exercise conducted by the navies of India, Mozambique and Tanzania.
- The first edition of the exercise took place in October 2022.
- It seeks to enhance India’s commitment to maritime security and cooperation in the Indian Ocean Region.
- Through this joint exercise, the Indian Navy aims to foster mutual trust and understanding with its maritime partners in Mozambique and Tanzania.
Phases of the Exercise
- Harbour Phase: Activities include joint harbour training such as Damage Control, Fire Fighting, Visit Board Search and Seizure procedures, Medical Lectures, Casualty Evacuation, and Diving operations.
- Sea Phase: Focuses on countering asymmetric threats, Visit Board Search and Seizure procedures, boat handling, manoeuvres, firing exercises, and joint EEZ surveillance.
PYQ:
2017: Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS):
- Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy.
- IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements about Exercise IMT TRILAT:
- It is an annual exercise conducted by the navies of India, Mozambique and Tanzania.
- The first edition of the exercise took place in October 2022.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
- Only 1
- Only 2
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: RBI, SEBI and their regulatory functions
Mains level: NA
Why in the news-
- Recent actions by both India’s banking regulator RBI and the securities watchdog SEBI have startled the market, exposing various malpractices in the financial sector.
Context
- Banking Sector: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) faces political scrutiny following the Supreme Court’s ban on anonymous political funding instruments introduced by the government in 2018. Its oversight was questioned amidst concerns about opaque corporate donations in the Electoral Bonds Scheme which was recently held unconstitutional.
- Securities Market: The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is under pressure to address concerns about asset price inflation, concentrated positions in illiquid shares, and excessive speculation among retail investors. Its credibility was questioned after Hindenburg Research’s allegations.
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Financial Landscape and its Regulation
[1] Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- The RBI is the central bank and monetary authority of India.
- It is established on April 1, 1935, under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
- Its idea was incepted from the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission.
- It is a centralized institution for India to effectively regulate its monetary and credit policies.
- RBI had its initial headquarters in Kolkata, later moving permanently to Mumbai in 1937.
- Initially, the RBI operated as a privately owned entity until its full nationalization in 1949.
Key Regulatory Functions of the RBI:
(i) Monetary Policy:
- The RBI formulates and implements monetary policies to achieve price stability, economic growth, and financial stability.
- The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) determines the policy interest rates, such as the repo rate, reverse repo rate, and marginal standing facility rate, based on inflation targeting and growth objectives.
- By adjusting these rates, the RBI influences money supply, credit flow, and interest rates in the economy.
(ii) Banking Regulation and Supervision:
- The RBI regulates and supervises banks and financial institutions to ensure their stability, soundness, and compliance with regulatory norms.
- It issues guidelines, directives, and prudential regulations covering aspects like capital adequacy, asset quality, management effectiveness, and liquidity risk management.
- The RBI conducts regular inspections, audits, and assessments of banks to assess their financial health and adherence to regulations.
- It also intervenes in troubled banks to protect depositors’ interests and maintain financial stability.
(iii) Payment and Settlement Systems:
- The RBI manages and oversees payment and settlement systems to ensure efficiency, safety, and reliability in financial transactions.
- It operates the Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) system for large-value transactions and the National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) system for retail transactions.
- The RBI formulates regulations and standards for payment systems, promotes innovation in payment technologies, and monitors systemically important payment infrastructures to mitigate risks and enhance resilience.
(iv) Financial Markets Regulation:
- The RBI regulates and supervises financial markets, including money, bonds, foreign exchange, and derivative markets, to maintain market integrity and investor confidence.
- It issues guidelines, directives, and regulations governing market participants, intermediaries, and trading activities.
- The RBI monitors market developments, enforces compliance with regulations, and intervenes in markets to address disorderly conditions, liquidity shortages, or excessive volatility.
- It also conducts open market operations (OMOs) to manage liquidity and stabilize interest rates.
[2] Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- SEBI is the regulatory authority overseeing India’s securities and commodity markets.
- Established in 1988 as a non-statutory body, SEBI was granted statutory powers with the enactment of the SEBI Act 1992 by the Indian Parliament.
- It operates under the purview of the Ministry of Finance.
- SEBI’s structure includes a chairman nominated by the GoI, members from the Union Finance Ministry, the Reserve Bank of India, and others.
- Its headquarters is in Mumbai, with regional offices in Ahmedabad, Kolkata, Chennai, and Delhi.
Key Regulatory Functions of the SEBI:
(i) Formulating Regulations:
- SEBI formulates regulations, guidelines, and directives to govern various aspects of the securities market.
- This includes regulations related to public issuances, disclosures, insider trading, takeover bids, corporate governance, and investor protection.
(ii) Monitoring Market Participants:
- SEBI regulates and supervises market intermediaries such as stock exchanges, brokers, merchant bankers, portfolio managers, and mutual funds.
- It sets eligibility criteria, registration requirements, and conduct norms for these entities and monitors their compliance with regulations.
(iii) Overseeing Market Infrastructure:
- SEBI oversees the functioning of stock exchanges, clearing corporations, depositories, and other market infrastructure institutions.
- It ensures that these entities maintain adequate systems, procedures, and safeguards to facilitate fair, transparent, and efficient trading and settlement operations.
(iv) Enforcing Securities Laws:
- SEBI enforces securities laws and regulations by conducting inspections, investigations, and enforcement actions against violations.
- It has the authority to impose penalties, suspend licenses, and initiate legal proceedings against individuals or entities found to be engaged in fraudulent or unfair practices.
(v) Regulating Securities Offerings:
- SEBI regulates public offerings of securities, including initial public offerings (IPOs), rights issues, and follow-on public offerings.
- It reviews offer documents, ensures disclosure of material information to investors, and supervises the conduct of issuers, underwriters, and other intermediaries involved in the offering process.
(vi) Monitoring Insider Trading and Market Manipulation:
- SEBI monitors and regulates insider trading, market manipulation, and other fraudulent activities that can undermine market integrity.
- It prohibits insider trading, imposes restrictions on share buybacks and open market operations, and investigates suspicious trading activities to maintain market fairness and transparency.
PYQ:
2015: In the light of Satyam Scandal (2009), discuss the changes brought in the corporate governance to ensure transparency and accountability.
2021: With reference to India, consider the following statements:
- Retail investors through demat account can invest in ‘Treasury Bills’ and ‘Government of India Debt Bonds’ in primary market.
- The ‘Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching’ is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India.
- The ‘Central Depository Services Ltd.’ is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 1 and 2 only
- 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
Practice MCQ:
With reference to the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), consider the following statements:
- It was established in 1988 as a non-statutory body.
- It operates under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
- It consists of a chairman, members from the Union Finance Ministry and the Reserve Bank of India.
How many of the given statements is/are correct?
- One
- Two
- Three
- None
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Section 377, LGBTQ+ Rights
Mains level: Sexual Minorities and their Social Rights
Why in the news-
- The Supreme Court issued a cautionary directive to judges regarding court-ordered counselling for LGBTQ+ individuals, emphasizing the need to respect their identity and sexual orientation.
Context
- Petition: The verdict stemmed from a habeas corpus petition filed by a Kerala-based woman seeking the whereabouts of her same-sex partner, highlighting the challenges faced by LGBTQ+ individuals in asserting their rights.
- Coercion Concerns: Concerns were raised about court-ordered counselling potentially being used to coerce individuals against their sexual orientation or chosen partners, prompting the Supreme Court to address these apprehensions.
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Counselling to LGBTQ+ Persons:
[A] Guidelines and Observations
- Avoiding Identity Suppression: Judges were cautioned against using counselling as a tool to coerce individuals into rejecting their LGBTQ+ identity or relationships, particularly when they are in distress or facing familial separation.
- Upholding Constitutional Values: CJI underscored the importance of upholding constitutional values, urging judges to refrain from imposing their personal biases or societal prejudices during legal proceedings.
- Empathy and Compassion: The verdict emphasized that judges must demonstrate sincere empathy and compassion towards LGBTQ+ individuals, ensuring that the principles of justice and equality guide legal decisions.
[B] Guidelines for Courts
- Embracing Diversity: Courts were directed to eschew social morality influenced by homophobic or transphobic views, prioritizing the protection of individual rights and freedoms.
- Respecting Chosen Families: Acknowledging the significance of chosen families for LGBTQ+ individuals, the court highlighted the need to recognize and respect these relationships, especially in cases involving familial rejection or violence.
LGBTQ+ Persons (Sexual Minority) Rights in India: An Overview
- Decriminalization of Homosexuality: A watershed moment occurred on September 6, 2018, when the Supreme Court of India partially struck down Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code, which criminalized consensual same-sex relationships. This historic decision marked a crucial step towards recognizing the dignity and autonomy of LGBTQ+ individuals.
- Recognition of Transgender Rights: In 2014, the Supreme Court recognized transgender individuals as the third gender and affirmed their fundamental rights under the Constitution in the landmark case of National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India (2014). This judgment laid the foundation for legal recognition and protection of transgender rights in India.
Several key legal cases and judgments have shaped the evolution of LGBTQ rights in India:
- Naz Foundation Govt. v. NCT of Delhi (2009): The Delhi High Court ruled that Section 377 of the IPC violated fundamental rights guaranteed under the Indian Constitution, including privacy and equality. This judgment was a crucial step forward in recognizing the rights of LGBTQ individuals.
- Suresh Kumar Koushal vs Naz Foundation (2013): The Supreme Court overturned the Delhi High Court’s judgment, recriminalizing homosexuality. This decision was met with widespread criticism and sparked renewed activism for LGBTQ rights in India.
- National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India (2014): This landmark judgment recognized transgender individuals as the third gender and affirmed their fundamental rights under the Constitution. It laid the groundwork for ensuring equality and non-discrimination for the transgender community.
- K.S. Puttaswamy v Union of India (2017): This case affirmed the right to privacy as a fundamental right under the Indian Constitution. The judgment recognized that discrimination based on sexual orientation is unconstitutional and emphasized the dignity and autonomy of individuals.
- Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India (2018): The Supreme Court decriminalized homosexuality and struck down Section 377 of the IPC. The court recognized the rights of LGBTQ individuals to intimacy, autonomy, and identity, setting a precedent for equality and non-discrimination.
Future Prospects
[A] Extension of ART (Assisted Reproductive Technology) Rights
- The Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) Rights bill, as currently formulated, does not adequately extend to LGBTQ+ persons due to several factors:
- Definition of Commissioning Couple: It restricts access to ART services to “infertile married couples,” excluding same-sex couples and individuals in same-sex relationships.
- Requirement of Legal Marriage: Since same-sex marriage isn’t recognized in India, LGBTQ+ couples are automatically excluded from accessing ART services.
- Narrow Definition of Infertility: The bill’s definition overlooks the unique reproductive challenges faced by LGBTQ+ individuals and couples.
- Gender-Binary Language and Restrictions: Gender-binary language and restrictions exclude transgender and gender non-conforming individuals from accessing ART services.
- Lack of Recognition of Diverse Identities: The bill fails to accommodate the diverse identities within the LGBTQ+ community, neglecting their specific needs and concerns regarding assisted reproduction.
[B] Child Adoption
- National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR): It had opposed the adoption rights of same-sex couples.
- Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 (JJ Act): It allows heterosexual married couples, and single and divorced persons to adopt.
- Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 (HAMA): It permits any male or female Hindu of sound mind to adopt, and for couples to adopt with the consent of their spouse.
- Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA): It permits applications from adoptive parents in live-in relationships, which it examines on a case-to-case basis.
However, in October 2023 the Supreme Court ruled that Regulation 5(3) of the CARA Regulations, insofar as it prohibited unmarried and queer couples from adopting, violated Article 15 of the Constitution.
While India’s Supreme Court declined to legalise same-sex marriage and did not explicitly grant gay couples adoption rights.
PYQ:
2020: Customs and traditions suppress reason leading to obscurantism. Do you agree?
Practice MCQ:
Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code which sought to decriminalize homosexuality was struck down in the landmark case of-
- Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India
- Naz Foundation Govt. v. NCT of Delhi
- Suresh Kumar Koushal vs Naz Foundation
- None of these
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Agri-Startups, NABARD
Mains level: NA
What is the news –
- The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is set to launch a ₹1,000-crore fund to bolster technology-driven agri-startups and rural enterprises.
- NABARD has already established a ₹750-crore fund, which will be followed by another ₹1,000 crore, to support startups in this regard.
What are Agri-Startups?
- Agri-startups are entrepreneurial ventures focused on innovating and revolutionizing various aspects of agriculture and allied sectors.
- These startups leverage technology, data, and modern farming practices to address challenges in the agricultural value chain and promote sustainable farming practices.
- They offer a wide range of products and services aimed at improving productivity, efficiency, and profitability for farmers, as well as enhancing food quality and safety for consumers.
Key areas of innovation in agri-startups include:
- Precision Agriculture: Utilizing data-driven technologies such as IoT, drones, and satellite imagery for precision farming, soil health monitoring, crop monitoring, and yield optimization.
- Agritech Solutions: Developing innovative technologies and tools for pest and disease management, water management, greenhouse farming, and hydroponics.
- Farm Management Software: Providing digital platforms and mobile applications for farm management, crop planning, inventory management, and market intelligence.
- Agri-Marketing Platforms: Connecting farmers directly with buyers, retailers, and consumers through online marketplaces, e-commerce platforms, and farm-to-fork initiatives.
- Supply Chain Management: Streamlining logistics, transportation, and warehousing operations to reduce post-harvest losses, improve market access, and ensure traceability and transparency in the supply chain.
- Food Processing: Developing value-added products, food processing technologies, and packaging solutions to enhance the shelf life, nutritional value, and marketability of agricultural produce.
About NABARD
- NABARD was established on July 12, 1982, by an Act of Parliament to promote sustainable rural development and agricultural growth in India.
- It operates as a statutory body under the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934, with its headquarters located in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
- It was established on the recommendation of the Sivaraman Committee and has its headquarters in Mumbai.
- Its primary mission is to facilitate credit flow for promotion and development of agriculture, small-scale industries, cottage and village industries, handicrafts, and other rural crafts.
- It is governed by a Board of Directors appointed by the GoI, with (1) representatives from the RBI, (2) central and state governments, and (3) experts in various fields related to rural development and finance.
Functions of NABARD:
- Refinance Support: NABARD provides refinance facilities to banks and financial institutions for agricultural and rural development activities, including crop loans and rural infrastructure projects.
- Direct Lending: It extends direct loans to institutions for specific rural development projects, such as agricultural production, rural infrastructure development, and agri-processing units.
- Research and Training: NABARD promotes research and development in agriculture, supports capacity building and training programs for rural stakeholders, and facilitates technology transfer initiatives.
- Scheme Implementation: The organization administers government schemes and funds like Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF), Watershed Development Fund (WDF) to finance rural infrastructure projects and watershed development activities.
- Credit Planning: NABARD collaborates with central and state governments, RBI, and other stakeholders to formulate credit policies and plans for agriculture and rural sectors.
- Financial Inclusion: It promotes financial inclusion by expanding banking services in rural areas, supporting SHGs, FPOs, and MFIs, and facilitating access to credit for rural communities.
- Priority Sector Lending: NABARD plays a crucial role in channelling credit to priority sectors such as agriculture, small-scale industries, and rural infrastructure, in alignment with the Reserve Bank of India’s priority sector lending guidelines.
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About the Blended Fund for Agri-Startups
- In the budget for FY23, plans for a blended capital fund were announced for ‘Sunrise Sectors’ to finance startups for agriculture and rural enterprises.
- The fund aims to support startups facing challenges in scaling up their operations due to limited access to equity and debt instruments.
- It also seeks to foster new linkages in the rural ecosystem, both forward and backwards.
Other Schemes for Agri-Startups in India
- Agriculture Accelerator Fund (2023): It was announced by Finance Minister in the union budget for 2023-24, as a significant initiative designed to support agritech startups and young entrepreneurs hailing from rural areas.
- Innovation and Agri-Entrepreneurship Development Program (2018-19): To increase farmers’ income, GOI started this Program under the umbrella of Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (2007). Startups receive financial assistance at different stages, with Rs. 5.00 lakh at the idea/pre-seed stage and Rs. 25 lakh at the seed stage.
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PYQ:
Q.Priority Sector Lending by banks in India constitutes the lending to: (2012)
- Agriculture
- Micro and small enterprises
- Weaker sections
- All of the above
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Tobacco Board, Tobacco Crop, Flue-cured Virginia (FCV) tobacco
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- The Tobacco Board has authorised a crop size of 100 million kg for Karnataka during the year 2024-25.
Tobacco in Indian Economy
- It is a drought tolerant, hardy and short duration crop which can be grown on soils where other crops cannot be cultivated profitably.
- In India, Tobacco crop is grown in an area of 0.45 M ha (0.27% of the net cultivated area) producing ~ 750 M kg of tobacco leaf.
- India is the 2nd largest producer and exporter after China and Brazil respectively.
- The production of flue-cured Virginia (FCV) tobacco is about 300 million kg from an area of 0.20 M ha while 450 M kg non-FCV tobacco is produced from an area of 0.25 M ha.
- In the global scenario, Indian tobacco accounts for 10% of the area and 9% of the total production.
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About Tobacco Board
- The Tobacco Board was constituted as a Statutory Body on 1st January, 1976 under Section (4) of the Tobacco Board Act, 1975.
- It operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
- It is headquartered in Guntur, Andhra Pradesh.
The primary objective of the Tobacco Board is-
- To promote the orderly development of the tobacco industry in India, particularly in the states of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu, which are the major tobacco-growing regions in the country.
Key Functions and Responsibilities
- Regulation and Control: The Tobacco Board regulates the production, curing, grading, and marketing of Virginia tobacco, which includes Flue-Cured Virginia (FCV) and Burley tobacco varieties.
- Licensing and Registration: It monitors and issues licenses and registrations to tobacco growers, manufacturers, exporters, and dealers involved in various stages of the tobacco supply chain.
- Research and Development: It collaborates with agricultural research institutes, universities, and industry stakeholders to introduce new technologies, best practices, and crop varieties to enhance the productivity and profitability of tobacco farming.
- Market Promotion: It promotes Indian tobacco products in domestic and international markets through trade fairs, exhibitions, buyer-seller meets, and promotional campaigns.
- Price Stabilization: It intervenes in the market to stabilize prices, mitigate price fluctuations, and protect the interests of farmers against adverse market conditions.
- Quality Control and Grading: It operates grading centers and quality testing laboratories to assess the quality characteristics of tobacco and facilitate fair trade practices in the industry.
PYQ:
Q.With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements:
- The Tea Board is a statutory body.
- It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
- The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
- The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022)
- 1 and 3
- 2 and 4
- 3 and 4
- 1 and 4
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements regarding the cultivation of Tobacco in India:
- Tobacco is a drought tolerant, hardy and short duration crop.
- India is the 2nd largest producer and exporter after China and Brazil respectively
- In the global scenario, Indian tobacco accounts for 10% of the area and 9% of the total production.
How many of the given statements is/are correct?
- One
- Two
- Three
- None
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: State of the Climate Report, 2023, Key Highlights
Mains level: Surging impact of Climate Change

What is the news-
- The World Meteorological Organization’s (WMO) recent State of the Climate report highlights unprecedented climatic shifts, with numerous indicators reaching record levels.
About World Meteorological Organization
- It is an intergovernmental organization and a specialized agency of the UN for meteorology (weather and climate), operational hydrology and related geophysical sciences.
- It was established in 1950 and is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
- It origin traces to the International Meteorological Organization (IMO), which was founded in 1873.
- Currently it has a membership of 191 countries. India is also a member.
Key Highlights of the State of the Climate Report, 2023
[1] Greenhouse Gases (GHGs)
- Record-High Concentrations: GHGs like carbon dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide reached record levels in 2022, contributing to global warming. The concentration of GHGs observed in 2022 is the latest year for which consolidated global values are available (1984–2022).
- Long-term Trend: The rise in GHG concentrations underscores the urgent need for concerted efforts to mitigate their impact.
[2] Surface Temperature
- Historic Spike: Global surface temperatures in 2023 surged to 1.45 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels, marking the highest recorded temperature. This temperature rise is attributed to the combined effects of rising GHG concentrations and the onset of El Nino in 2023.
- El Nino Influence: The onset of El Nino exacerbated temperature extremes globally, amplifying the impacts of climate change.
[3] Ocean Heat Content (OHC)
- Unprecedented Heat: Ocean heat content reached its highest level in the observational record of 2023. The ocean heat content (OHC) refers to the total amount of heat the oceans store.
- Long-term Trend: The continual increase in OHC underscores the ongoing challenge of ocean warming and its implications for marine ecosystems.
[4] Marine Heat Waves (MHWs)
- Widespread Occurrence: The global ocean experienced a significant increase in marine heatwave (MHW) coverage in 2023. The average daily marine heatwave coverage reached 32%, surpassing previous records set in 2016.
- Duration and Intensity: Prolonged MHWs pose threats to marine biodiversity, ecosystems, and fisheries, highlighting the urgency of climate action.
[5] Antarctic Sea-Ice Extent
- Record Low: Antarctic sea-ice extent plummeted to 1.79 million km2 in February 2023, the lowest since satellite observations began in 1979. The extent remained below average throughout the year, signalling ongoing trends of sea-ice loss in the Antarctic region.
- Persistent Decline: The continued decline in Antarctic sea-ice extent underscores the vulnerability of Polar Regions to climate change.
[6] Glacier Mass Balance
- Unprecedented Loss: Glaciers worldwide experienced the largest annual loss of ice on record in 2022-2023. The annual mass balance, which measures the amount of mass gained or lost by glaciers, dropped to a new low of ‘–1.2 metre water equivalent’.
- Regional Disparities: Glacial mass balance varied across regions, with North American and European glaciers particularly affected by ice loss.
Significance of the report
- The figures presented in the WMO report underscore the magnitude of climate change impacts on various Earth systems.
- Urgent action is needed to address rising GHG emissions, mitigate temperature extremes, protect marine environments, and preserve critical cryospheric regions.
PYQ:
2018: “Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by
- The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
- The UNEP Secretariat
- The UNFCCC Secretariat
- The World Meteorological Organisation
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Fact Check Unit (FCU) and its Functions
Mains level: Not Much

Why in the news?
- Weeks ahead of the election, the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology on Wednesday notified the Press Information Bureau’s Fact Check Unit (FCU) as the designated body to flag misinformation about Central government departments to social media platforms.
Why PIB?
- Under the GoI (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961, the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting (MIB) is entrusted with the responsibility of disseminating information about government policies, schemes, and programs through various mediums of communication.
- In fulfilling its role, the Ministry publicizes the policies, initiatives, schemes, and programs of the Government of India through press releases, press conferences, webinars, publication of books, etc.
- To carry out this crucial function, the Ministry has several attached and subordinate offices, including the Press Information Bureau (PIB).
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What is Fact Check Unit (FCU)?
- The Fact Check Unit’s mandate arises from the IT Rules, 2021, which stipulate that social media platforms risk losing legal liability protections if they fail to address notified misinformation promptly.
- The unit verifies claims about government policies, regulations, announcements and measures.
- Through an established rigorous fact-checking procedure, the PIB Fact Check Unit helps in dispelling myths, rumours and false claims, and provides accurate and reliable information to the public.
Operational Framework
- The FCU, led by senior DG/ADG level officer of the Indian Information Service (IIS), operates under the supervision of the Principal Director General of PIB.
- Its mandate includes verifying claims related to government policies, regulations, and announcements through a rigorous fact-checking process.
- The Unit reports to the Principal Director General, PIB who functions as the Principal Spokesperson of the Government of India.

Fact-Check Mechanism
- Query Handling: Users submit requests via WhatsApp, email, or a web portal, which are processed as ‘Queries’ by the Unit.
- Verification Process: Actionable Queries relevant to the Government of India undergo thorough verification using official sources and technological tools.
- Publication of Fact Checks: Verified information is categorized as Fake, Misleading, or True, and published on the Unit’s social media platforms for public awareness.
Categories of Fact-Checked Content
- Fake: Factually incorrect information intentionally or unintentionally disseminated to deceive or manipulate the audience.
- Misleading: Information presented with partial truths, selective facts, or distortion to mislead recipients.
- True: Information verified to be factually accurate after rigorous investigation.
PYQ:
2017: Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity-
- The intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
- The methods for strengthening executive leadership.
- A superior individual with dynamism and vision.
- A band of dedicated party workers.
Practice MCQ:
The centre has recently established the Fact Check Unit (FCU) as a designated body to flag misinformation in India. In this regard, consider the following statements:
- Establishment of FCU is mandated under the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005.
- The FCU is led by an officer of the Indian Audit and Accounts Service (IAAS).
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
- Only 1
- Only 2
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: World Air Quality Report, Particulate Matters
Mains level: NA

Why in the news-
- India has been ranked as the third-most polluted country in 2023, following Bangladesh and Pakistan, according to the ‘World Air Quality Report 2023’ by IQAir.
- IQAir is a Swiss air quality technology company, specializing in protection against airborne pollutants, developing air quality monitoring and air cleaning products
Comparative Analysis
- Previous Rankings: In 2022, India held the eighth position among the most polluted countries with an average PM2.5 concentration of 53.3 micrograms per cubic meter, demonstrating a marginal increase in pollution levels.
- Global Rankings: The report ranked 42 Indian cities among the top 50 most polluted cities globally, with Begusarai, Guwahati, and Delhi leading the list.
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Key Highlights
(A) Most Polluted Indian Cities:
- Ten out of the top 11 most polluted cities in the world are from India, the other being Lahore in Pakistan.
- Begusarai, located in Bihar, witnessed a significant increase in PM 2.5 concentration from 19.7 micrograms per cubic metre in 2022 to 118.9 micrograms per cubic metre in 2023.
- Guwahati’s PM2.5 concentration doubled from 51 to 105.4 micrograms per cubic meter between 2022 and 2023.
- Delhi saw an increase in PM2.5 concentration from 89.1 to 92.7 micrograms per cubic meter over the same period.
- Other Indian cities featuring in the top 50 most polluted cities of the world list included Greater Noida (11), Muzzafarnagar (16), Gurgaon (17), Arrah (18), Dadri (19), Patna (20), Faridabad (25), Noida (26), Meerut (28), Ghaziabad (35) and Rohtak (47).
(B) Global Insights:
- Oceania—comprising Australia, New Zealand, and French Polynesia—remained the region with the cleanest air in 2023.
- The report highlighted the top five most polluted countries worldwide, including Bangladesh, Pakistan, India, Tajikistan, and Burkina Faso.
- Seven countries which met the WHO annual PM2.5 guideline (annual average of 5 µg/m3 or less) included Australia, Estonia, Finland, Grenada, Iceland, Mauritius, and New Zealand.
- Despite previous declines, China experienced a 6.3% increase in PM2.5 concentration in 2023, signalling a concerning trend.
- For the first time, Canada emerged as the most polluted country in Northern America, reflecting regional air quality challenges.
- Africa remains the most underrepresented continent, with a third of the population still lacking access to air quality data.
What are Particulate Matters (PM)?
- Particulate matter (PM) consists of a mixture of solid particles and liquid droplets suspended in the air.
- These particles come from various sources, including vehicle emissions, industrial processes, construction activities, agricultural activities, wildfires, and natural dust.
- PM can be classified into different size categories based on its aerodynamic diameter.
- Common size fractions include PM10 (particles with a diameter of 10 micrometres or smaller) and PM2.5 (particles with a diameter of 2.5 micrometers or smaller).
- PM 2.5 are so small that they can penetrate deep into the respiratory system and enter the bloodstream, posing significant health risks.
- Long-term exposure to elevated levels of PM2.5 has been linked to reduced lung function, aggravated asthma, and increased risk of heart attacks and strokes.
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PYQ:
Q.Mumbai, Delhi and Kolkata are the three Mega cities of the country but the air pollution is much more serious problem in Delhi as compared to the other two. Why is this so? (2015)
Q.In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index? (2016)
- Carbon dioxide
- Carbon monoxide
- Nitrogen dioxide
- Sulphur dioxide
- Methane
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- 1, 2 and 3 only
- 2, 3 and 4 only
- 1, 4 and 5 only
- 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements:
- Particulate matter (PM) consists of a mixture of solid particles as well as liquid droplets suspended in the air.
- PM 2.5 can penetrate deep into the respiratory system and enter the bloodstream, posing significant health risks.
- Natural dust does not contribute to PM.
How many of the given statements is/are correct?
- One
- Two
- Three
- None
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