💥UPSC 2026, 2027, 2028 UAP Mentorship (March Batch) + Access XFactor Notes & Microthemes PDF

Type: Prelims Only

  • Global Geological And Climatic Events

    Massive Earthquake hits Myanmar and Thailand

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Earthquakes

    Why in the News?

    A powerful 7.7 magnitude earthquake struck Myanmar, with its epicentre near Mandalay, the country’s second-largest city.

    Massive Earthquake hits Myanmar and Thailand

    What caused the Earthquake in Myanmar?

    • Myanmar is situated between the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate, which makes the region seismically active.
      • The Sagaing Fault, running from north to south through Myanmar, marks the boundary of these plates.
      • It is an active fault line that has caused significant earthquakes in the past, including a 7.9 magnitude earthquake in 1912 and a 6.9 magnitude earthquake in 2016.
    • The Indian Plate was moving northward along the Sagaing Fault relative to the Eurasian Plate. The friction and stress built up along this fault led to a sudden release of energy, resulting in the earthquake.
    • The earthquake’s epicentres was located 17.2 km from Mandalay, Myanmar’s second-largest city, at a depth of just 10 km.

    Why are Shallow Earthquakes more destructive?

    • Proximity to the Surface: Shallow earthquakes (less than 70 km deep) cause intense shaking. For example, the Myanmar earthquake occurred at 10 km, leading to rapid, forceful seismic waves and extensive damage.
    • Energy Release: Shallow earthquakes retain more energy in seismic waves, causing stronger surface shaking and greater destruction.
    • Higher Intensity: Shallow quakes produce higher intensity shaking, resulting in more structural damage compared to deeper quakes, where seismic waves lose energy.
    • Aftershocks: Shallow earthquakes often lead to more intense aftershocks, further damaging already weakened structures. The Myanmar earthquake had aftershocks, including one with magnitude 6.4.

    Back2Basics: Earthquake and Related Terminologies

    • Earthquake is a sudden shaking of the ground caused by energy release from tectonic plate movements or volcanic activity, generating seismic waves.
    • Key Terminologies:
      • Focus (Hypocenter): The point inside the Earth where the earthquake originates, deep beneath the surface.
      • Epicenter: The point on the Earth’s surface directly above the focus, usually the most affected area.
      • Seismic Waves: Waves that carry the energy released during an earthquake and cause ground shaking.
      • Fault: A crack or fracture in the Earth’s crust where movement occurs, often causing earthquakes.
      • Magnitude: A measure of the earthquake’s size or energy, commonly measured on the Richter scale.
      • Intensity: The strength of shaking at specific locations, measured by the Modified Mercalli Intensity (MMI) scale.

    Types of Earthquake Waves:

    • Body Waves: Travel through the Earth’s interior, detected first by seismographs.
      • Primary Waves (P-Waves): Fastest, compression waves that move through solids and liquids.
      • Secondary Waves (S-Waves): Shear waves, slower than P-waves, that move through solids only.
    • Surface Waves: Travel along the Earth’s surface, slower but cause more damage.
      • Love Waves: Move side-to-side horizontally, causing significant damage.
      • Rayleigh Waves: Cause elliptical ground motion, similar to ocean waves, very destructive.

     

    [UPSC 2021] Consider the following statements:

    1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves.

    2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of waves propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

     

  • MGNREGA Scheme

    Centre hikes MGNREGS wages by 2-7% for FY26

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: MGNREGS

    Why in the News?

    The Centre has announced a hike in the wages under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) for the financial year 2025-26, with an increase ranging from 2-7%.

    Wage Revision Under MGNREGS:

    • 2025-26 Wage Hike:
      • Wage increase: 2.33%-7.48%, with ₹7 to ₹26 rise.
      • Haryana records the largest hike of ₹26, bringing the wage to ₹400 per day (highest in India).
    • Wage Calculation:
      • Wages are linked to the Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL).
    • Previous Hikes:
      • Goa had the largest hike of 10.56% in 2024-25.
      • Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand had the smallest at 3.04%.

    About MGNREGS

    • The MGNREGS, launched in 2005, guarantees 100 days of wage employment annually for rural households.
    • It provides a legal right to work, focusing on unskilled manual labour.
    • Unique Features:
      • 100 days of employment for rural households, with adult members volunteering for unskilled work.
      • If employment isn’t provided within 15 days, an unemployment allowance is paid.
      • Work must be offered within 5 km of the applicant’s residence.
      • The Centre funds 100% of unskilled labour costs, 75% of skilled labour and materials, and 6% of administrative costs.
    • Key Provisions under MGNREGS
      • Rural households are entitled to 100 days of employment. Additional days are allowed during natural calamities or for Scheduled Tribe households.
      • Citizens can conduct social audits to ensure transparency, with all records open to public scrutiny.
      • Worksites must provide crèches, drinking water, and first aid.
      • Workers more than 5 km from the worksite receive a travel allowance of 10% of the wage rate.

    Recent Challenges surrounding MGNREGS:

    • Delayed Payments: ₹11,423 crore owed for wages and administrative costs as of January 2025, with workers facing delays of weeks or months.
    • Inadequate Wage Rates: Wage rates are not linked to inflation, with the highest wage for 2024-25 at ₹374 in Haryana, below the national minimum wage.
    • Technological Challenges: Issues with Aadhaar-based payments and mobile monitoring systems have led to non-payment or misdirected funds.
    • Budget Constraints: Budget allocations have decreased from 0.4% of GDP in FY22 to 0.2% in FY25, impacting workdays and payments.
    • Social Audit Irregularities: Irregular audits by Gram Sabhas raise concerns about accountability and transparency.

     

    [UPSC 2011] Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the “Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act”?

    (a) Adult members of only the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households

    (b) Adult members of below poverty line (BPL) households

    (c) Adult members of households of all backward communities

    (d) Adult members of any household

     

  • Indian Army Updates

    Tri-services Exercise Prachand Prahaar

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Exercise Prachand Prahaar

    Why in the News?

    The Indian Army conducted a Tri-Service integrated multi-domain warfare exercise, called ‘Prachand Prahaar’, in the high-altitude terrain of Arunachal Pradesh.

    About Exercise Prachand Prahaar

    • It is a tri-service integrated multi-domain warfare exercise involving the Army, Indian Air Force (IAF), and Indian Navy.
    • It is conducted in the high-altitude terrain of Arunachal Pradesh, near the Line of Actual Control (LAC), which spans 3,488 km.
    • The exercise was carried out under the aegis of the Eastern Army Command.
    • The primary objective was to validate a fully integrated approach to surveillance, command and control, and precision firepower across all three services.
    • The exercise aimed at simulating future warfare scenarios with a synergised combat drill.

    Key Components and Execution:

    • The exercise began with the deployment of advanced surveillance resources from all three services, which included:
      • Long-range surveillance aircraft from the IAF.
      • Maritime domain awareness aircraft from the Indian Navy.
      • Helicopters and Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs).
      • Space-based resources and the Indian Army’s elite special forces.
    • These resources created seamless domain awareness, which allowed for the identification of simulated targets.

    Related Previous Exercises:

    • The Prachand Prahaar exercise builds upon the momentum of Exercise Poorvi Prahar, which was held in November 2024.
    • The focus of Poorvi Prahar was on the integrated application of aviation assets.
  • Historical and Archaeological Findings in News

    Who was Rana Sanga (1484–1527)?

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Rana Sanga

    Why in the News?

    A recent statement by an MP in Parliament labelling Rajput ruler Rana Sanga a “traitor,” has sparked controversy over his role in inviting Babur to invade India.

    Who was Rana Sanga?

    • Rana Sanga, also known as Maharana Sangram Singh, was a Rajput king who ruled the kingdom of Mewar in present-day Rajasthan from 1509 to 1527.
    • He expanded his kingdom significantly, conquering parts of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Haryana, and Sindh.
    • He formed a powerful Rajput confederacy and led a massive army of 80,000 warhorses and 500 elephants.
    • He was known for his military campaigns against the Lodi dynasty of Delhi, the Sultanates of Malwa and Gujarat, and even the Mughals.
    • His most notable victories include the Battle of Gagron against Sultan Mahmud Khilji of Malwa and the Battle of Dholpur in 1519 against Ibrahim Lodi of Delhi.
    • Battle with Babur:
      • Rana Sanga eventually came into conflict with Babur, the founder of the Mughal Empire.
      • The two fought in the Battle of Khanwa in 1527, where Babur’s forces defeated Sanga’s Rajput army.
      • This marked the end of Rajput resistance to the Mughals in Northern India.
    • Legacy:
      • Despite his defeat at Khanwa, he is remembered as a hero of Rajput resistance and is considered one of the last independent Hindu rulers in Northern India before the rise of Mughal dominance.

    Recent Controversy:

    • The remarks were made amid growing debates about Medieval Indian history, particularly surrounding Aurangzeb and the role of various historical figures in Indian politics.
    • Historians are divided on whether Rana Sanga explicitly invited Babur to invade India.
    • Babur’s memoirs, the Baburnama, mention that Rana Sanga offered assistance against Ibrahim Lodi.
    • Yet, historians like Satish Chandra propose that Rana Sanga might have viewed Babur as a means to weaken the Lodi Sultanate, possibly underestimating Babur’s intentions to establish his own rule in India.
    • Some argue that Rana Sanga might have seen Babur as a useful ally against Ibrahim Lodi, while others believe his role was exaggerated by Babur in his memoir, the Baburnama.
    [UPSC 2023] With reference to the Mughal Empire, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

    (a) Mughal officials who were in charge of land revenue were known as Karoris.

    (b) The term ‘Jagirdar’ was used for the holders of revenue assignments.

    (c) The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ was related to the imperial household.

    (d) The Rajput chiefs were integrated into the Mughal nobility.

     

  • Right To Privacy

    Section 44(3) of the DPDP Act

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Section 44(3)

    Why in the News?

    Opposition parties have raised concerns over the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023, demanding the repeal of Section 44(3), claiming it could undermine the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005.

    About DPDP Act and Section 44(3)

    • Recognizing the right to privacy as fundamental in India, the Supreme Court in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy vs. Union of India (2017) led to the introduction of the DPDP Act in 2023.
    • The Act regulates the processing of personal data, balancing individual privacy rights and lawful processing needs.
    • Key Provisions: It mandates informed consent, establishes a Data Protection Board of India (DPBI), and outlines the responsibilities of data fiduciaries in ensuring data protection.
    • Section 44(3) modifies Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act, which previously exempted personal information from disclosure unless public interest justified it.
    • The amendment broadens this exemption, stating that all personal information should be exempt from disclosure, without requiring a public interest justification.

    Concerns Related to Section 44(3)  

    • Reduced Transparency: Activists and critics argue that this section undermines the RTI Act, which has been a cornerstone of transparency and accountability in governance.
    • Limited Access to Public Information: The broad exemption allows government officials to shield information like asset disclosures, which are critical for public accountability.
    • Potential for Misuse: There are concerns that personal data protection could be used as an excuse to block vital information about government activities, weakening the public’s right to know.
    • Conflict Between Public Interest and Privacy: Critics argue that privacy protection should not override the principle of transparency.

    Back2Basics: Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005

    • The RTI Act, 2005 empowers Indian citizens to seek information from public authorities, ensuring transparency and accountability in governance.
    • RTI is considered a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution, which guarantees freedom of speech and expression,
    • Key Features:
      • Applicability: Covers all government bodies, including central, state, and local authorities.
      • Public Information Officers (PIOs): Designated officials who are responsible for providing requested information within 30 days.
      • Exemptions: Some categories of information are exempted, such as national security matters and personal privacy.
      • Penalty: Officials can face fines for failing to provide information without valid reasons.

     

    [UPSC 2018] Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?

    (a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42ndAmendment to the Constitution.

    (b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV.

    (c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III.

    (d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44thAmendment to the Constitution.

     

  • Promoting Science and Technology – Missions,Policies & Schemes

    India BioEconomy Report

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: India BioEconomy Report

    Why in the News?

    The India BioEconomy Report has pegged the value of India’s bioeconomy in 2024 at more than $165 billion, accounting for over 4.2% of the country’s GDP.

    What is Bioeconomy?

    • Bioeconomy refers to the industrial use of biological resources (plants, animals, and microorganisms) and the replication of natural biological processes to produce goods and services.
    • It incorporates sustainable methods to replace traditional, resource-intensive production systems.
    • Applications:
      • Biofuels, bioplastics, medicines, synthetic biology, and agriculture are key sectors where bioeconomy is being applied.
        • Ex. Ethanol produced via microorganisms from crops like sugarcane and corn is a prime example of bioeconomy’s impact on reducing reliance on hydrocarbon-based fuels.

    Key Highlights of the India Bioeconomy Report:

    • Growth in Market Value:
      • India’s bioeconomy has nearly doubled in value from $86 billion in 2020 to $165 billion in 2024.
      • There has been a 90% increase in the number of companies in the bioeconomy sector, from 5,365 in 2021 to 10,075 in 2024, with projections to double again by 2030.
    • Key Sectors:
      • Industrial Sector: Contributes nearly $78 billion, driven by biofuels and bioplastics.
      • Pharmaceuticals: Accounts for 35% of the total bioeconomy value, primarily driven by vaccines.
      • Research and IT: The fastest-growing segment, especially in biotech software development and clinical trials.
    • Regional Contribution:
      • Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, Gujarat, and Andhra Pradesh account for over two-thirds of the bioeconomy value.
      • The Eastern and Northeastern regions contribute less than 6%.
    • Global Comparison:
      • India’s bioeconomy share in GDP (4.2%) is comparable to countries like the US and China.
      • However, countries like Spain and Italy have bioeconomy contributing more than 20% of their GDP.
    • Policy Direction:
      • The BioE3 policy (Biotechnology for Economy, Environment, and Employment), launched in 2024, aims to establish India as a global hub for bio-manufacturing and a major center for biotech R&D.
      • The policy targets growth in areas such as bio-based chemicals, functional foods, precision biotherapeutics, marine and space biotechnology, and climate-resilient agriculture.

    India BioEconomy Report

    [UPSC 2024] Consider the following materials:

    1. Agricultural residues

    2. Corn grain

    3. Wastewater treatment sludge

    4. Wood mill waste

    Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel?

    (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 1,2,3 and 4  (d) 1,3 and 4 only

     

  • International Space Agencies – Missions and Discoveries

    GAIA Mission

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: GAIA Mission

    Why in the News?

    The European Space Agency (ESA) officially shut down its Global Astrometric Interferometer for Astrophysics (GAIA) Mission, which had been operational for over a decade.

    About the GAIA Mission

    • It was launched in December 2013 with the primary goal to create the most accurate three-dimensional map of the Milky Way galaxy.
    • It sought to measure the positions, distances, and movements of stars and other celestial bodies.
    • Gaia was designed for astrometry, focusing on precise measurements of celestial object locations and motions.
    • Positioned at Lagrange Point 2 (L2), 1.5 million kilometres behind Earth (as viewed from the Sun), Gaia was able to observe the universe without interference from Earth, the Sun, or the Moon.
    • Gaia was equipped with two telescopes and a camera with nearly 1 billion pixels, the largest camera ever sent to space. Key instruments include:
    1. Astrometer: Measured the location and motion of stars.
    2. Photometer: Measured brightness of celestial objects.
    3. Spectrometer: Analyzed the composition and movement of stars.
    • Discoveries and Achievements:
      • Gaia mapped the Milky Way in 3D, uncovering its shape, structure, and movement. It also detected warping and wobbling in the galaxy.
      • Gaia identified new types of black holes by observing their gravitational effects and tracked over 150,000 asteroids, contributing insights on their orbits and future impacts on Earth.
      • Additionally, it provided new understanding of stellar evolution and the formation of stars, including the Sun.
    • Gaia accumulated over 3 trillion observations, contributing to more than 13,000 scientific papers, revolutionizing knowledge about the Milky Way, the solar system, and galactic dynamics.

    Why is Gaia being Decommissioned?

    • After more than a decade of operations, the Gaia mission reached the end of its operational lifespan, making it unsustainable to continue its activities.
    • After over 10 years in space, Gaia’s technology showed signs of wear, and continuing operations became unfeasible.
    • On March 27, 2025, Gaia was successfully passivated, draining all internal energy sources. This means it can no longer be restarted or resumed for future operations.
    [UPSC 2023] Consider the following pairs: Objects in space Description

    1. Cepheids : Giant clouds of dust and gas in space

    2. Nebulae : Stars which brighten and dim periodically

    3. Pulsars : Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse

    How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    (a)Only one (b) Only two (c)All three (d) None

     

  • Modern Indian History-Events and Personalities

    How Sir Syed reconciled Faith with Reason?

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Sir Syed Ahmad Khan (1817-1898)

    Why in the News?

    March 27 is the death anniversary of Sir Syed Ahmad Khan, a prominent 19th-century reformer and educationist who significantly advanced the social and educational development of Muslims.

    How Sir Syed reconciled Faith with Reason?

    About Sir Syed Ahmad Khan (1817-1898)

    • Sir Syed Ahmad Khan was born in 1817 in Delhi, into a renowned Muslim family.
    • He received education in Persian and Arabic and was well-versed in Islamic studies from an early age.
    • Public Service and Recognition:
      • He joined the British government’s judicial service in 1876 and was exposed to Western education and ideas, significantly influencing his later reforms.
      • He served as a member of the Viceregal Council (1878-1883), the Lieutenant Governor’s Council of the North-Western Province (1887), and was involved in educational reforms as part of the Imperial Education Commission (1888) and the Royal Public Service Commission (1886).
      • He was knighted by the British in 1888 for his contributions to social and educational reforms.
    • Role During British Rule:
      • After the 1857 revolt, Sir Syed helped change the British perception of Muslims, utilizing British support to improve Muslim progress.
      • He focused on education and cultural reform within the British framework to improve Muslim society.

    Key Contributions:

    • Educational Reforms:
      • Sir Syed founded Madrasatul Uloom in 1875, which later became Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental (MAO) College in 1877, laying the foundation for Aligarh Muslim University (AMU).
      • He encouraged English education, believing it was essential for India’s progress. His visit to England in 1869-1870 further convinced him of its importance.
    • Promotion of Critical Thinking and Modernity:
      • Sir Syed advocated for the reconciliation of Islamic faith with modern scientific thought and believed Islamic principles could coexist with modernity and science.
      • He emphasized reason and critical thinking, opposing blind tradition.
    • Social and Religious Reforms:
      • He supported women’s education, opposed purdah and polygamy, and advocated for easier divorce laws.
      • He criticized the Piri and Muridi System and promoted self-discipline and independent thought.
    • Political Views:
      • While involved in governance, Sir Syed was cautious about direct political engagement to avoid hostility from the British.
    • Literary Contributions:
      • Sir Syed launched 3 bilingual periodicalsThe Loyal Mohammedans of India (1860), The Aligarh Institute Gazette (1866), and Tehzibul Akhlakh (1870) — to promote modernity, rational thought, and cultural pluralism, combating sectarianism and bigotry.
    • Hindu-Muslim Unity:
      • He once famously described Hindus and Muslims as “two eyes of the beautiful bride, that if any of the eyes hurt, made the bride ugly.” He had declared in 1884 at Gurdaspur that the Hindus and Muslims should try to become one heart and soul and act in unison.
    • The Aligarh Movement:
      • It aimed to modernize the Muslim community by promoting modern education while preserving Islamic values.
      • It led to social reforms such as the abolition of purdah and polygamy, and the promotion of widow remarriage and women’s education.
    [UPSC 2000] Consider the following pairs:

    Institution – Founder

    1. Sanskrit College at Benaras – William Jones

    2. Calcutta Madarsa – Warren Hastings

    3. Fort William College – Arthur Wellesley

    4. Muhammedan Anglo-Oriental College at Aligarh – Syed Ahmad Khan

    How many of the above are correctly matched?

    (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four

     

  • Government Budgets

    What is Finance Bill?

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: Finance Bill

    Why in the News?

    Initiating the debate on the Finance Bill in the Lok Sabha, Shashi Tharoor said south Indian States have been the engines of growth and revenue but don’t get their due share from the Central pool of revenue.

    About Financial Bills:

    • Article 117 of the Constitution governs financial bills. It stipulates special provisions for the introduction of financial bills, outlining their requirements and procedures.
    • According to Rule 219 of the Rules of Procedure of the Lok Sabha, a Finance Bill is typically introduced to give effect to the financial proposals for the next financial year or to address supplementary financial proposals.
    • A Finance Bill is introduced in the Lok Sabha after the annual budget has been presented.
    • The Bill does not include provisions as per Article 110 but still involves expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India.
    • It follows the same legislative process as an ordinary bill, where:
      • Rajya Sabha can reject or amend it.
      • In case of a deadlock, a joint sitting of both Houses may be convened.
    • The President can either assent to the Bill or return it for reconsideration.
    • All money bills are financial bills, but not all financial bills are money bills.
    • Only bills that exclusively deal with matters listed in Article 110 (such as taxes, borrowing, or the management of Consolidated Fund of India ) qualify as money bills.

    Types of Financial Bills:

    • Type-I: Financial Bills under Article 110
      • These bills contain provisions related to matters specified in Article 110(1)(a) to (f), which include taxation, borrowing, and the expenditure of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI).
      • These bills are a combination of both money bills and ordinary bills. They are treated like money bills but also include non-financial matters that do not strictly fit into Article 110.
    • Type-II: Financial Bills under Article 117(3)
      • These bills involve expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India but do not fall under the money bill category.
      • They follow the same legislative procedure as an ordinary bill and may be amended or rejected by the Rajya Sabha. In the case of disagreement between the two Houses, the President can call a joint sitting to resolve the deadlock.
    [UPSC 2022] With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

    1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.

    2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.

    3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.

    How many of the above statements are correct?

    (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None

     

  • Indian Missile Program Updates

    DRDO tests Vertically Launched Short-Range Surface-to-Air Missile (VLSRSAM)

    Note4Students

    From UPSC perspective, the following things are important:

    Prelims level: VLSRSAM

    Why in the News?

    The DRDO has successfully tested the Vertically- Launched Short-Range Surface-to-Air Missile (VLSRSAM) for the Indian Navy.

    About VLSRSAM

    • The VLSRSAM is a ship-borne surface-to-air missile designed to counter various aerial threats, particularly at short ranges.
    • The missile is intended for neutralizing airborne threats at close ranges, including aircraft, helicopters, drones, and other incoming missiles, which are critical for naval defence operations.
    • The VLSRSAM weighs around 170 kg and is powered by a solid propellant.
    • The missile can reach a maximum speed of Mach 4.5.
    • The missile can reach altitudes of 16 km and has a range sufficient to engage high-speed targets.
    • Guidance System:
      • Mid-course phase: The missile uses a fibre-optic gyroscope-based inertial guidance system, ensuring stable flight towards the target.
      • Terminal phase: It switches to active radar homing for precise target acquisition and guidance, ensuring that it can engage targets with high accuracy even at low altitudes.

    Strategic Significance

    • With advanced guidance systems, the VLSRSAM demonstrates agility and precision in targeting, ensuring it is highly effective even against fast-moving, low-flying aerial threats.
    • The missile has been tested for reliability and accuracy, successfully engaging targets at close range and low altitudes.
    • It is seen as a force multiplier for the Indian Navy, significantly enhancing its air defence capabilities, particularly in protecting high-value assets in the maritime domain.
    [UPSC 2018] What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news ?

    (a) An Israeli radar system

    (b) India’s indigenous anti-missile programme

    (c) An American anti-missile system

    (d) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea