Why in the News?
The NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR) has been successfully launched from Sriharikota using GSLV Mk-II.

About NISAR (NASA–ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar):
- Launch Vehicle: GSLV Mk-II | Launch Site: Sriharikota, India
- Mission Life: 3 years (planned); 5+ years (design)
- Orbit: Sun-synchronous polar orbit at 747 km with 98.4° inclination
- Objective: High-precision monitoring of Earth’s surface changes—tectonics, agriculture, ecosystems, ice, floods, and landslides
- Data Access: Free and near real-time; disaster maps delivered in under 5 hours
- Hardware Contributions:
- NASA: L-band SAR, 12m antenna, avionics
- ISRO: S-band SAR, satellite bus, launch services
- Development and Collaboration:
- Initial Concept: 2007 (NASA); ISRO joined in 2012
- Formal Agreement: 2014
- Investment: NASA – ~$1.16 billion; ISRO – ~$90 million
Key Features of NISAR:
- What is Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR)?
-
- Operates day/night, all-weather
- Simulates large radar antenna via motion
- Penetrates clouds, vegetation, and soil
-
- L-band SAR (1.257 GHz):
- Deeper penetration; ideal for forests, tectonic shifts, permafrost
- S-band SAR (3.2 GHz):
- Surface details; supports agriculture, flood mapping, biomass tracking
-
- 12-meter deployable mesh reflector
- Resolution: 3–10 m spatial; cm-level vertical
- Swath Width: 240 km
-
- Global land/ice coverage every 12 days
- Less frequent in polar zones
- Data Output: Generates 80 TB/day (3x current Earth observatories):
-
- Biomass and cropland maps
- High-resolution flood and infrastructure data
Applications and Impact:
- Disaster Relief: Before-and-after imagery for planning
- Climate Monitoring: Glacier melt, forest degradation
- Agriculture: Crop health, rotation, food security
- Infrastructure: Detects land subsidence (dams, cities)
- Strategic Value:
- Most powerful Earth-observing radar satellite
- First with dual SAR payload
- Strengthens India–US space partnership (Artemis, human spaceflight)
[UPSC 2010] Question: In the context of space technology, what is Bhuvan, recently in the news ?
Options: (a) A mini satellite launched by ISRO for promoting the distance education in India (b) The name given to the next Moon Impact Probe, for Chandrayaan-II (c) A geoportal of ISRO with 3D imaging capabilities of India* (d) A space telescope developed by India |
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Why in the News?
It has been five years since the introduction of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 which replaced the 1986 National Policy on Education.
About the National Education Policy, 2020:
- Origin: Drafted by a committee chaired by Dr. K. Kasturirangan under the Ministry of Education.
- 5 Core Pillars: Based on Access, Equity, Quality, Affordability, and Accountability.
- Vision: Seeks to build a knowledge society by unlocking every learner’s potential.
- Global Link: Aligned with the UN Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 4 (Education for All).
Key Provisions:
-
- Curriculum Structure: Introduces 5+3+3+4 design (Foundational to Secondary), replacing 10+2.
- ECCE Focus: Early Childhood Care and Education via Jaadui Pitara kits and play-based learning.
- Vocational Training: Begins from Grade 6 with internships.
- Basic Literacy & Numeracy: Achieved through National Initiative for Proficiency in Reading with Understanding and Numeracy.
- Language Medium: Emphasis on mother tongue/regional language up to Grade 5.
- Assessment Reform: Launch of Performance Assessment, Review and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic Development (PARAKH) as a national evaluation centre.
-
- Four-Year Degree: Multidisciplinary courses with multiple exit points.
- Credit Bank: Academic Bank of Credit ensures credit mobility across institutions.
- Research Boost: National Research Foundation supports innovation and research.
- Single Regulator: Higher Education Commission of India proposed (pending law) to replace multiple bodies.
- Language Promotion: Establishment of Indian Institute of Translation and Interpretation for Indian languages.
Implementation Initiatives:
- Foundational Mission: NIPUN Bharat aims to achieve basic literacy and numeracy by Class 3.
- Unified Credit System: Rollout of Academic Bank of Credit and National Credit Framework.
- Common Entrance: Common University Entrance Test introduced for fair UG admissions.
- Early Prep: Vidya Pravesh – a 3-month play-based module for Grade 1 entrants.
- Tech Education in Regional Languages: Promoted by the All-India Council for Technical Education.
- Digital Backbone: National Digital Education Architecture launched to support e-learning.
- SAFAL Assessments: Structured competency-based testing in Grades 3, 5, and 8 by Central Board of Secondary Education.
Key Achievements:
- Curriculum and Textbooks: NCERT released new content for Classes 1–8.
- ECCE Adoption: Early childhood curriculum implemented in several states.
- Language Expansion: Regional language instruction expanded at foundational levels.
- Academic Flexibility: Credit-based transfer systems in use via Academic Bank of Credit and National Credit Framework.
- Global Presence: Indian Institutes such as Indian Institute of Technology (Zanzibar) and Indian Institute of Management (Dubai) now abroad.
- International Collaboration: Foreign universities invited to set up campuses under new regulations.
[UPSC 2016] “SWAYAM’, an initiative of the Government of India, aims at
Options:
(a) promoting the Self-Help Groups in rural areas
(b) providing financial and technical assistance to young start-up entrepreneurs
(c) promoting the education and health of adolescent girls
(d) providing affordable and quality education to the citizens for free* |
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Why in the News?
The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully conducted two consecutive test flights of the Pralay missile from the Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam Island off Odisha’s coast.

About Pralay Missile:
- Developer: Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), led by Research Centre Imarat (RCI) with Indian industry support.
- Purpose: Tactical surface-to-surface missile for precision strikes along sensitive borders like the Line of Actual Control (LAC) and Line of Control (LoC).
- Role: Enhances India’s conventional deterrence in short-range battlefield operations.
- Targets: Designed to destroy high-value assets—radars, command centers, airstrips, and military infrastructure.
Key Features:
- Type: Quasi-ballistic surface-to-surface missile
- Range: 150–500 km
- Payload: 500–1,000 kg (conventional warheads)
- Propulsion: Solid-propellant rocket motor
- Launcher: Mobile platform for rapid deployment
- Guidance: Advanced inertial navigation with <10 m Circular Error Probable (CEP)
- Terminal Speed: Up to Mach 6.1
- Maneuverability: Capable of mid-air trajectory changes to evade interception
[UPSC 2023] Consider the following statements:
1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their fights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. 2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2* |
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Why in the News?
The Government of India recently clarified in the Lok Sabha that no final decision has been taken regarding the updation of the National Population Register (NPR) during the upcoming Population Census 2027.
What is the National Population Register (NPR)?
- Overview: NPR is a register of “usual residents” in India—individuals who have lived in an area for 6 months or intend to stay for the next 6 months.
- Conducted by: Office of the Registrar General of India (RGI), Ministry of Home Affairs.
- Legal Basis: Prepared under the Citizenship Act, 1955 and Citizenship Rules, 2003.
- Mandatory Nature: Registration in NPR is compulsory for all usual residents.
- Exclusion: Assam is excluded as it has completed the National Register of Citizens (NRC) process.
- Historical Background:
- First Created: In 2010 during the House Listing phase of Census 2011.
- Updated: Again in 2015–16 via door-to-door survey.
- Database Size: Contains data of around 119 crore residents.
- Aadhaar Link: Biometric data collection is linked to Aadhaar; however, ration card data collection was dropped in the 2020 plan.
- Current Status: NPR update plans (2020) are on hold. NPR’s priority has reduced due to Aadhaar’s expanded utility in benefit delivery.
- Scope and Data Collected:
- Coverage Levels: Conducted at local, sub-district, district, state, and national levels.
- Demographic Data: Includes name, age, gender, relationship, marital status, etc.
- Biometric Data: Sourced via Aadhaar enrolment—fingerprints, iris scan, and photo.
NPR vs National Register of Citizens (NRC):
Feature |
National Population Register (NPR) |
National Register of Citizens (NRC) |
Purpose |
Record of all usual residents |
Register of Indian citizens |
Coverage |
Includes citizens and non-citizens |
Only Indian citizens |
Legal Basis |
Citizenship Act, 1955 & Rules (2003) |
Citizenship Rules (2003) |
Primary Use |
Welfare schemes, demographic data |
Citizenship verification |
Mandatory? |
Yes |
Not uniformly across India |
[UPSC 2009] Consider the following statements:
1. Between Census 1951 and Census 2001, the density of the population of India has increased more than three times.
2. Between Census 1951 and Census 2001, the annual growth rate (exponential) of the population of India has doubled.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2* |
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Why in the News?
The proposal to expand the Sundarbans Tiger Reserve by 1,100 sq km has received clearance from the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) and awaits approval from National Board for Wildlife (NBWL).

About Sundarbans Tiger Reserve (STR):
- Location: Situated in South and North 24-Parganas districts, West Bengal; lies at the southern tip of the Gangetic Delta.
- Area: Presently 2,585.89 sq km; expansion to 3,629.57 sq km under proposal.
- Status: Notified as a Tiger Reserve, National Park, Biosphere Reserve; part of the UNESCO World Heritage Site.
- Unique Feature: World’s only mangrove forest with a viable tiger population.
- Tiger Count: Over 100 tigers – 80 in core area, 21 in adjoining forests.
- Landscape: Interconnected estuaries, tidal creeks, and 105 mangrove-covered islands.
- Flora: Dominated by mangrove species like Avicennia, Rhizophora, Heritiera.
- Fauna: Includes Royal Bengal Tigers, Fishing Cats, Estuarine Crocodiles, Irrawaddy Dolphins, King Cobras, and endangered reptiles and birds.
- Boundaries:
- East: Bangladesh border (Raimangal, Harinbhanga rivers)
- South: Bay of Bengal
- North/West: Matla, Bidya, Gomdi Rivers
Back2Basics: Tiger Reserves in India
- Overview: A Tiger Reserve is a legally notified area under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 for the conservation of tigers and biodiversity.
- Governing Authority: National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
- Origin: Initiated under Project Tiger, launched in 1973.
- Structure:
- Core Zone: Highly protected; no human activity allowed; declared as National Park or Sanctuary.
- Buffer Zone: Surrounds core; allows regulated human use and supports conservation-compatible livelihoods.
Tiger Reserve Landscape in India (as of 2025):
- Total Reserves: 58 (up from 46 in 2014)
- Largest Reserve: Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam, Andhra Pradesh – 3,727.82 sq km
- Oldest Reserve: Corbett Tiger Reserve, Uttarakhand – established in 1973
- Newest Reserves: Guru Ghasidas (Chhattisgarh), Ranipur (Uttar Pradesh), Ramgarh Vishdhari (Rajasthan)
- Top State: Madhya Pradesh – 7 Tiger Reserves
- Tiger Density: Bandipur TR > Corbett TR > Kaziranga TR (148, 18.6 tigers/sq. km.)
- Global Tiger Day: Celebrated on 29th July every year
|
[UPSC 2020] Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”?”
Options: (a) Corbett (b) Ranthambore (c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam* (d) Sunderbans |
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Why in the News?
Divya Deshmukh made history by becoming India’s first Women’s World Cup Champion and only the fourth Indian woman Grandmaster, defeating Koneru Humpy in the final at Batumi, Georgia.

Major Achievements of Divya Deshmukh:
- 2025: Won the FIDE Women’s World Cup, defeating Koneru Humpy. Became India’s 4th woman Grandmaster.
- 2024: U-20 Girls’ World Champion
- 2023: Asian Women’s Champion
- 2022: Indian Women’s National Champion
- Olympiad: Key contributor to India’s gold in 2025 Chess Olympiad (Budapest).
- 2013: Became India’s youngest Woman FIDE Master (WFM) at age 7.
About the FIDE World Chess Championship System:
- FIDE (Fédération Internationale des Échecs): Global chess body founded in 1924; headquartered in Switzerland.
- World Championship Format: Played over 14 classical games. A player must score 7.5 points to win.
- Tiebreaker: If the match ends 7–7, rapid and blitz games are used.
- Qualification Path:
- Zonal and Continental Championships
- FIDE World Cup (knockout)
- Candidates Tournament (top player faces reigning champion)
- Special Championships:
- Women’s World Championship
- Junior and Youth Championships
- World Rapid & Blitz Championships
Key FIDE Events and Titles:
- FIDE World Cup: Knockout format; major path to the Candidates.
- FIDE Women’s World Cup: Equivalent format for top female players.
- Title Hierarchy:
- Grandmaster (GM) – highest title
- International Master (IM)
- FIDE Master (FM)
- Candidate Master (CM)
- Women’s Titles: Woman Grandmaster (WGM), Woman International Master (WIM), etc.
[UPSC 2024] Consider the following statements:
I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world’s youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Ian Nepomniachtchi.
II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world’s youngest ever Grandmaster.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) I only (b) II only * (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II |
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Why in the News?
The 14th edition of the India–Singapore Joint Military Exercise — Exercise Bold Kurukshetra — commenced in Jodhpur.
About Exercise ‘Bold Kurukshetra’
- Launch Year: 2005, after the 2003 India–Singapore Defence Cooperation Agreement.
- Purpose: Strengthen bilateral defence ties, boost operational coordination, and enhance regional security.
- Frequency: Held annually or biannually, alternating between Indian training zones like Babina and Jodhpur.
- Participants: Focuses on armoured and mechanised infantry units from India and Singapore.
- Framework: Conducted under United Nations Peacekeeping mandates, simulating mechanised warfare and joint operations.
Key Features:
- Format:
- Tabletop wargaming and computer-based simulations.
- Validates doctrines and standard operating procedures in mechanised warfare.
- Operational Objectives:
- Improve interoperability and tactical planning.
- Execute joint manoeuvres and enhance command-level coordination.
- Build mutual understanding of combat and operational doctrines.
- Evolution Over Time:
- Progressed from basic drills to complex command post exercises and live-fire missions.
- Includes scenario-based planning and real-time decision-making via digital simulations.
[UPSC 2008] ‘Hand-in-Hand 2007’, a joint anti-terrorism military training was held by the officers of the Indian Army and officers of the Army of which one of the following countries?
Options: (a) China *(b) Japan (c) Russia (d) USA |
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Why in the News?
The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has launched the ‘Veer Parivar Sahayata Yojana’, aimed at improving legal aid for defence personnel and their families.
Back2Basics: National Legal Services Authority (NALSA)
- Established under: Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 (in force from 1995)
- Mandate: Ensure free, competent legal aid to the socially and economically disadvantaged
- Leadership:
- Patron-in-Chief: Chief Justice of India
- Executive Chairman: Senior Supreme Court Judge
- Core Functions:
-
- Legal literacy campaigns
- Lok Adalats for amicable dispute resolution
- Legal aid in civil and criminal matters
- Outreach in rural and vulnerable communities
|
About Veer Parivar Sahayata Yojana:
- Launched by: National Legal Services Authority (NALSA).
- Objective: Provide legal assistance to defence personnel, ex-servicemen, and their families.
-
- Legal Clinics: Set up at Zilla, Rajya, and Kendra Sainik Boards
- Welfare–Legal Integration: Sainik Boards become legal service hubs
- Paralegal Volunteers: Defence families encouraged to participate, enhancing local legal access
- Legal Assistance includes:
-
- Land and property disputes
- Matrimonial and family matters
- Service-related entitlements
- Utility/civil grievances (e.g., billing disputes)
- Support for personnel in remote/conflict zones
Free Legal Aid in India:
-
- Article 21 (FR): Access to justice as part of the right to life
- Article 39A (DPSP): Legal aid and equal justice, added via 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
-
- Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987: Four-tier system—National, State, District, Taluka
- Section 341, Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023: Legal aid for indigent accused persons
-
- Women and children
- Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes
- Persons with disabilities
- Industrial workmen
- Victims of disasters (natural or human-made)
- Persons in custody or shelter homes
- Economically weak (annual income:
- Below ₹1 lakh generally
- Below ₹5 lakh for Supreme Court cases)
[UPSC 2020] In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens?
1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs 1,00,000
2. Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs 2,00,000
3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than ₹ 3,00,000
4. All Senior Citizens
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Options: (a) 1 and 2 only * (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 4 only |
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Why in the News?
A student in Odisha, died by suicide after her sexual harassment complaint was rejected by her college’s Internal Complaints Committee (ICC), showing the urgent need for stronger grievance systems.
About Internal Complaints Committee (ICC):
- Legal Basis: Mandated under the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013 (POSH Act).
- Applicability: Mandatory in all organizations with 10 or more employees.
- Purpose: Provides a redressal mechanism to ensure a safe and dignified workplace for women.
-
- A Presiding Officer who is a senior woman employee.
- At least two internal members with legal or social expertise.
- One external member from an NGO or with knowledge of sexual harassment issues.
- Minimum 50% of ICC members must be women.
Powers and Functions:
- Complaint Handling:
- Accepts complaints within 3 months of the incident.
- Offers conciliation (on request) or initiates a formal inquiry.
- Inquiry Process:
- Holds powers similar to a civil court (summon, evidence collection, sworn statements).
- Must complete inquiry within 90 days.
- Confidentiality: Identity of complainant, respondent, witnesses, and proceedings must be kept confidential.
- Post-Inquiry Actions:
- Recommends disciplinary action or closure.
- Employer must act on recommendations within 60 days.
- Assists in filing FIRs if the complainant seeks criminal action.
Back2Basics: POSH Act, 2013
- Full Form: The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013.
- Background:
- Originated from the Vishaka Guidelines (1997) issued by the Supreme Court.
- Inspired by the Bhanwari Devi case and public pressure after the Nirbhaya case (2012).
- Constitutional and Global Basis:
- Upholds gender justice under Article 15.
- Based on India’s commitment to CEDAW (Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women, 1979) (ratified in 1993).
- Key Provisions
-
- Workplace Scope: Includes private and public sectors, government offices, NGOs, informal sectors, and domestic work.
- Definition of Harassment: Covers physical contact, unwelcome advances, sexually coloured remarks, explicit content, and verbal or non-verbal conduct.
- Mandatory ICC: All organizations with 10+ employees must set up an Internal Complaints Committee.
- Local Committee: District-level Local Committees must be set up for smaller workplaces or domestic workers.
- Employer Responsibilities:
- Conduct awareness sessions and training.
- Ensure safety and publish the organization’s POSH policy.
- Timelines:
- Complaints must be filed within 3 months.
- Inquiries must be completed within 90 days.
- Penalties:
- Fine of up to ₹50,000 for non-compliance.
- Repeat violations can lead to license cancellation.
|
[UPSC 2007] Consider the following statements:
1. The Judge (Inquiry) Bill 2006 contemplates establishing a Judicial Council which will receive complaints against Judges of the Supreme Court, Chief Justices, and Judges.
2. Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, a woman can file a petition before a 1st Class Judicial Magistrate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2* (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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Why in the News?
The second Kala Utsav 2025 at Rashtrapati Bhavan celebrated India’s tribal art, with artists from Jharkhand, Odisha, and West Bengal showcasing Sohrai, Pattachitra, and Patua paintings.

About Sohrai Paintings:
- Origin: Indigenous to Jharkhand, especially the Hazaribagh region.
- Etymology: Derived from ‘Soro’ meaning “to drive away with a stick.”
- Historical Roots: Traces back to the Meso-chalcolithic period (9000–5000 BC).
- Archaeological Evidence: Similar rock paintings found at Isko Rock Shelter in Barkagaon.
- Key Features of Sohrai Art:
-
- Practiced By: Women of Kurmi, Santhal, Munda, Oraon, Agaria, and Ghatwal tribes.
- Geographical Spread: Found in Jharkhand, Bihar, Odisha, and West Bengal.
- Materials Used: Natural substances like charcoal, clay, and soil.
- Themes: Celebrates nature—forests, rivers, animals—along with harvest and fertility.
- Festival Link: Painted during the Sohrai festival, marking the harvest season and winter.
- Ritual Role: Rice-gruel mandalas drawn to welcome cattle into homes.
- GI Tag: Awarded in 2020 for Sohrai Khovar Painting.
Back2Basics:
Pattachitra Painting:

- Origin: Odisha, associated with the Jagannath Temple, Puri.
- Material: Painted on cloth (Pata) coated with chalk powder and tamarind seed glue.
- Colors Used: Made from vegetables, minerals, and earth sources.
- Artistic Method:
- No pencil outlines.
- Borders are painted first.
- Sketching is done with light red and yellow brushes.
- Finished with lacquer coating for shine and durability.
- Themes: Centered on Krishna Leela, Jagannath tales, and other mythological stories.
Patua Painting:

- Origin: West Bengal, practiced by the Patua (Chitrakar) community.
- Spread: Also found in Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha, and Bangladesh.
- Format: Painted on scrolls (pati or patta) backed with old sari fabric.
- Tools & Colors: Uses bamboo-goat hair brushes and vegetable dyes, fixed with gum.
- Usage:
- Scrolls used to narrate folk tales.
- Focuses on Mangal Katha, especially in Kalighat and Kumartuli.
- Practiced by both Hindu and Muslim Patuas.
|
[UPSC 2015] Kalamkari painting refers to:
Options: (a) a hand-painted cotton textile in South India* (b) a handmade drawing on bamboo handicrafts in North-East India (c) a block-painted woollen cloth in Western Himalayan region of India (d) a hand-painted decorative silk cloth in North-Western India |
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Why in the News?
Over a century after Einstein explained Brownian motion, California Institute of Technology (Caltech) scientists have created a powerful microscope that shows molecules moving in real time at an extremely tiny scale.

What is Brownian Motion?
- Definition: Random movement of tiny particles in a fluid due to constant collisions with surrounding molecules.
- Significance: Validated the existence of atoms and molecules; explained by Albert Einstein in 1905.
- Particle Behavior: Smaller particles move faster and more erratically; larger ones move slower.
|
About Caltech Microscope:
- Resolution: Angstrom-level (1 Å = 0.0000000001 m).
- Speed: Captures hundreds of billions of frames per second.
- Advantage: Wide-field, single-shot imaging with no sample damage.
-
- Setup: Fluorescent molecules in water illuminated by ultrafast lasers.
- Light Capture: Scattered light directed via Digital Micromirror Device.
- Streak Imaging: Light converted to electron patterns revealing molecular size.
- Reading Size: Faster changes = smaller molecules; slower = larger.
[UPSC 2000] Which one of the following can be used to confirm whether drinking water contains a gamma emitting isotope or not?
Options: (a) Microscope (b) Lead plate (c) Scintillation counter* (d) Spectrophotometer |
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Why in the News?
IIT Guwahati researchers have created a strong, eco-friendly material using bamboo and biodegradable plastic to replace regular plastic in car interiors and other uses.
About the Bamboo-Polymer Composite:
- Origin: Made using Bambusa tulda, a fast-growing bamboo from Northeast India.
- Composition: Reinforced with bio-based and petroleum-based epoxies for strength.
- Objective: Reduce dependence on synthetic plastics in industrial sectors.
- Process: Bamboo fibres undergo alkali treatment to bond well with polymers.
- Evaluation: Tested across 17 parameters—tensile strength, water resistance, cost, etc.
Key Features and Benefits:
- High Strength: Suitable for load-bearing automotive components.
- Thermal Stability: Can withstand high interior vehicle temperatures.
- Low Moisture Absorption: Ideal for humid environments.
- Eco-Friendly: Biodegradable, lowers environmental impact.
- Cost-Effective: ₹4300 per kg—commercially viable.
- Best Variant: Bamboo + bio-based epoxy FormuLite chosen through performance scoring.
Applications:
- Automotive: Dashboards, door panels, seat backs.
- Electronics & Packaging: Lightweight, durable material.
- Aerospace: Used for sustainable composite components.
- Construction: Green alternative for interiors and fixtures.
[UPSC 2021] Consider the following statements:
1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of the components used in automobiles and aircrafts.
2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?”
Options: (a) 1 only* (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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Why in the News?
The Lokpal of India, India’s central anti-corruption ombudsman, is moving forward to fill 81 approved posts on a deputation basis.
Historical Context of the Lokpal:
- Initial Proposal (1966): First proposed by the First Administrative Reforms Commission to tackle high-level corruption.
- Legislative Failures (1971–2008): Multiple Lokpal Bills introduced in Parliament but none were passed.
- Jan Lokpal Movement (2011): Nationwide agitation led by Anna Hazare demanded a powerful and independent anti-corruption body, catalyzing public and political support.
- Enactment of Law (2013): The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act was passed in 2013, providing for:
- A Lokpal at the central level.
- Lokayuktas in states.
- Formal Establishment (2014): Lokpal of India was notified on January 16, 2014 under Section 3 of the Act.
- Initial Functioning: Operated with encadred staff (mostly Central Secretariat Service); became functionally active only in 2019.
- Organisational Restructuring (2024):
- Due to rising complaints and staffing gaps, a new Organogram was approved in August–September 2024.
- The Full Bench of Lokpal, using powers under Section 34, sanctioned 81 deputation posts.
- These are stop-gap until regular recruitment begins under the upcoming Service Regulations, 2024.
About Lokpal [vs. Lokayukta, A Comparative Overview]:
|
Lokpal (Central) |
Lokayukta (State) |
Legal Basis |
Established under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 |
Also mandated under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 (Section 63); specifics vary by state |
Jurisdiction |
Covers central public servants, including the Prime Minister (with some exceptions), Ministers, MPs, and officials in Groups A–D |
Handles cases involving state public servants, such as Chief Ministers, Ministers, MLAs, and state officials |
Appointment |
Appointed by the President based on recommendations of a Selection Committee (PM, LoP, CJI, jurist) |
Appointed by the Governor; appointment process defined by state legislation |
Composition |
Chairperson (former CJI/SC judge/eminent person) + up to 8 members (50% from SC/ST/OBC/Women/Minorities) |
Composition varies by state; usually includes a Chairperson and members with similar qualifications |
Tenure |
5 years or until the age of 70, whichever is earlier |
Defined by respective state laws |
Salary & Removal |
Chairperson = salary of CJI;
Members = salary of SC Judges;
Removal by President after SC inquiry |
Modelled on Lokpal Act; removal by Governor based on state-specific processes |
Powers |
- Investigates corruption under Prevention of Corruption Act
- Can confiscate illegal assets
- Can refer cases to CBI
- Jurisdiction over NGOs receiving significant foreign or govt. funds
- Submits reports to President, tabled in Parliament
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- Investigates under state anti-corruption laws
- Can recommend prosecution/disciplinary actions
- Handles complaints related to state schemes, contracts
- Submits reports to Governor, tabled in State Legislature
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Recent Institutional Reform |
- In 2024, Lokpal approved a new Organogram and framed Service Regulations, 2024 for structured staffing.
- As a stopgap, 81 posts are being filled via deputation.
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Varies across states; no uniform push for staff standardization as seen at the central level. |
[UPSC 2025] Consider the following statements about Lokpal:
I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India. II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson. III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office. IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) III only* (b) II and III (c) I and IV (d) None of the above statements is correct
[2013] ‘A national Lokpal, however strong it may be, cannot resolve the problems of immorality in public affairs’. Discuss. |
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Why in the News?
Delegates from 172 countries convened in Victoria Falls, Zimbabwe, for the 15th Meeting of the Conference of the Contracting Parties (COP15) to the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands.
Highlights of Ramsar COP15
- Theme: Protecting Wetlands for Our Common Future
- Host Nation: Zimbabwe (holds presidency of the Ramsar Convention for 3 years)
- Expected Outcome: Adoption of the Victoria Falls Declaration, a global framework to protect wetlands
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About the Ramsar Convention:
- Adopted on: 2 February 1971, in Ramsar, Iran.
- Objective: Conserve and ensure the wise use of wetlands globally.
- Key Functions:
- Identify wetlands of international importance.
- Promote sustainable management practices.
- Foster international cooperation in wetland conservation.
- Governing Body:
- Conference of the Contracting Parties (COP) meets every 3 years.
- Reviews implementation, adopts site designations, budgets, and policy actions.
- Includes member + non-member states, IGOs, and NGOs as observers.
Criteria for Ramsar Site Designation:
A wetland must meet at least one of the following 9 criteria:
- Unique or rare wetland type.
- Habitat for endangered, vulnerable, or endemic species.
- Crucial for migratory waterbirds.
- High ecological, hydrological, or biodiversity value.
- Supports ecosystem services (e.g., flood control, water purification).
- Provides cultural or spiritual value.
- Serves sustainable community livelihoods.
- Holds scientific or educational importance.
- Requires global cooperation due to threats.
India and the Ramsar Convention:
- Joined on: 1 February 1982.
- First Ramsar Site: Chilika Lake (Odisha), 1981.
- As of July 2025:
- Total sites: 91
- Total area: ~13.58 lakh hectares
- % of India’s wetland area under Ramsar: ~10%
- Top States: Tamil Nadu: 20 sites (highest); Uttar Pradesh: 10 sites
- Note: India has never chaired a Ramsar COP session.
Global Snapshot and Other Facts:
- Total Members: 171 countries.
- Leading Countries:
- United Kingdom: 175 sites (most)
- Mexico: 142 sites
- Bolivia: Largest area (~1.48 lakh sq. km under protection)
- World Wetlands Day: Celebrated on 2 February annually.
- Montreux Record: Register for Ramsar sites under serious threat needing urgent conservation.
[UPSC 2019] Consider the following statements:
1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.
3. These Rules also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
Options: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only* (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
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Why in the News?
As India marks Jim Corbett’s 150th birth anniversary (1875–2025), it reflects on his legacy as a hunter, naturalist, author, and conservationist—after whom Corbett National Park is named.

Who was Jim Corbett?
- Full Name: Edward James Corbett (1875–1955), nicknamed Carpet Sahib in Kumaon.
- Profession: British hunter, naturalist, author, and later a wildlife conservationist.
- Famous Books: Man-Eaters of Kumaon, The Man-Eating Leopard of Rudraprayag, My India, Jungle Lore, Tree Tops.
- Hunter Turned Hero:
- Known for tracking and killing man-eating tigers and leopards in Kumaon and Garhwal.
- Used patient observation and deep knowledge of terrain and animal behaviour.
- Shift to Conservation:
- Grew concerned about dwindling tiger numbers and deforestation.
- Advocated for wildlife protection and ecological balance.
- Commemoration: India’s first national park was renamed Jim Corbett National Park in 1957 in his honour.
Back2Basics: Jim Corbett National Park
- Established: 1936 as Hailey National Park; later renamed in 1957.
- Location: Nainital district, Uttarakhand; core of Corbett Tiger Reserve.
- Historical Importance:
- Launch site of Project Tiger in 1973, India’s flagship tiger conservation programme.
- Geography:
- Lies in Shivalik and Outer Himalayan foothills.
- Rivers: Ramganga, Sonanadi, Mandal, Palain, and Kosi.
- Area: Over 500 sq km (includes Sonanadi Wildlife Sanctuary as buffer).
- Biodiversity:
- Flora: Moist deciduous forest with Sal, Khair, and Sissoo; 600+ plant species.
- Fauna: Over 230 tigers (highest density in the world), elephants, leopards, deer (sambar, chital, barking), sloth bears, wild boars, birds, and reptiles.
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[UPSC 2013] Consider the following pairs : National Park River flowing through the Park
1. Corbett National Park : Ganga
2. Kaziranga National Park : Manas
3. Silent Valley National Park : Kaveri
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) None* |
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Why in the News?
DRDO has successfully test-fired the UAV-Launched Precision Guided Missile (ULPGM)-V3.

About ULPGM-V3:
- Overview: It is a fire-and-forget air-to-surface missile developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
- Variants: It is an upgraded version of V1 and V2, with improved range, autonomy, and targeting precision.
- Development: Collaboration by Adani Defence, Bharat Dynamics, Newspace Research Technologies, and over 30 Indian MSMEs/startups.
Key Features:
- Weight: 12.5 kg
- Range: 10 km (day), 2.5 km (night)
- Accuracy: Passive homing infrared with HD dual-channel accuracy (~10 cm)
- Warhead Options: Anti-armour, penetration-cum-blast, pre-fragmentation
- Guidance: Fully autonomous with two-way datalink for mid-course updates
- Environment: Operates in plains and high-altitude regions, day and night
[UPSC 2025] With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements:
I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing. II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering. III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the three (d) None * |
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Why in the News?
Home Minister is set to move a statutory resolution in the Rajya Sabha to extend President’s Rule in Manipur by another 6 months.
What is President’s Rule?
- Overview: It refers to the suspension of a state’s constitutional machinery, placing the state under direct control of the Union Government.
- It is also known as State Emergency or Constitutional Emergency.
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- Article 355: Obligates the Union to ensure that governance in every state is in accordance with the Constitution.
- Article 356(1): Allows the President to assume control of a state’s executive if the Governor reports a constitutional breakdown or the President independently concludes so.
- Article 365: Deems a state’s failure to comply with Union directions as a failure of constitutional machinery.
Duration and Extension of President’s Rule:
- Initial duration: Valid for 6 months from the date of proclamation.
- Extensions: Can be extended every six months, subject to parliamentary approval, for a maximum of 3 years.
- Parliamentary Approval (Article 356(3)):
- Must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within 2 months.
- Requires a simple majority (members present and voting).
- Beyond 1 Year: Allowed only if:
- A National Emergency (Article 352) is in operation in the whole or part of the state.
- The Election Commission of India certifies that elections to the Legislative Assembly cannot be held.
- Beyond 3 Years: Requires a constitutional amendment (e.g., 67th and 68th Amendments extended President’s Rule in Punjab).
Implications of President’s Rule on a State:
- Executive Powers (Article 356(1)(a)):
- The President assumes functions of the state government via the Governor.
- Administration is carried out by the Governor, with support from the Chief Secretary and advisors.
- Legislative Powers (Article 356(1)(b)):
- The Legislative Assembly is either suspended or dissolved.
- Legislative powers are exercised by Parliament or delegated to the President.
- Financial Powers (Article 356(1)(c)):
- The President may authorize expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of the State pending Parliament’s approval (under Article 206 and Article 357).
Revocation:
- President’s Rule can be revoked at any time by the President under Article 356(2).
- No parliamentary approval is required for revocation.
Supreme Court Judgments related to it:
- S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994):
- President’s Rule is subject to judicial review.
- A floor test is the proper method to prove majority.
- The Governor’s report alone is not sufficient for justification.
- Sarbananda Sonowal v. Union of India (2005): Widened the scope of Article 355 for preventive action by the Union.
- Rameshwar Prasad v. Union of India (2006):
- Dissolution of Bihar Assembly was declared unconstitutional.
- Use of Article 356 to prevent political defections was struck down.
Key Reforms/Recommendations:
- Sarkaria Commission (1987): President’s Rule should be used only as a last resort after exploring all other options.
- Punchhi Commission (2010): Proposed localized emergency provisions for specific districts or regions instead of the entire state.
- National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000):
- Article 356 should remain but be used sparingly.
- Suggested amendments to allow its use without National Emergency if elections cannot be held.
[UPSC 2018] If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then
Options: (a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
(b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
(c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.
(d) the President can make laws relating to that State. |
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Why in the News?
The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has introduced AdFalciVax, a new malaria vaccine candidate targeting Plasmodium falciparum.
About AdFalciVax
- Developer: Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR); private partners will handle trials and manufacturing.
- Vaccine Type: Chimeric recombinant vaccine targeting Plasmodium falciparum, the deadliest malaria parasite.
- Technology:
- Circumsporozoite Protein (CSP): Offers direct protection to the vaccinated individual.
- Pro6C Protein: A hybrid of Pfs230 and Pfs48/45 that blocks transmission via mosquitoes.
- Key Advantages
- Dual Benefit: Provides personal protection and reduces community transmission.
- Full-length CSP: Promotes a stronger and longer immune response compared to current vaccines.
- High Efficacy in Animals: Over 90% protection in animal models (human trials pending).
- Stability: Contains alum as an adjuvant — safe, effective, and stable at room temperature for 9 months.
Malaria Control in India:
- Progress:
- Malaria deaths reduced from 1,151 in 1995 to 83 in 2022 (National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme).
- World Health Organization estimates are higher (5,511 deaths in 2022).
- Current Limitation: India’s dominant malaria strain is Plasmodium vivax, which AdFalciVax does not target.
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[UPSC 2010] Widespread resistance of malarial parasite to drugs like chloroquine has prompted attempts to develop a malarial vaccine to combat malaria. Why is it difficult to develop an effective malaria vaccine ?
(a) Malaria is caused by several species of Plasmodium*
(b) Man does not develop, immunity to malaria during natural infection
(c) Vaccines can be developed only against bacteria
(d) Man is only an intermediate host not the definitive host. |
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Why in the News?
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has announced that the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) for Financial Year (FY) 2025 has risen to 67.0, up from 64.2 in FY 2024.
About Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index):
- Developer: Created by the Reserve Bank of India to assess the extent of financial inclusion in India.
- First Release: Published in August 2021 for the financial year ending March 2021.
- Coverage: Encompasses five key sectors—banking, investments, insurance, postal services, and pensions.
- Scoring Scale: Ranges from 0 (total exclusion) to 100 (full inclusion).
- Update Cycle: Updated annually in July; cumulative index with NO base year.
- Indicators: Based on 97 indicators across all five sectors to ensure comprehensive assessment.
- Key Parameters:
-
- Access (35%): Measures availability of financial infrastructure like bank branches, automated teller machines, and postal outlets.
- Usage (45%): Tracks frequency of use of services like savings, loans, insurance, and pension schemes.
- Quality (20%): Assesses financial literacy, consumer protection, equity, and service reliability.
India’s Performance Over the Years:
- March 2017: Index at 43.4, reflecting the initial phase of inclusion efforts.
- March 2021: Rose to 53.9, due to the expansion of banking and digital infrastructure.
- March 2024: Improved to 64.2, with broader access and increased adoption of financial services.
- March 2025: Reached 67.0, driven by digital transactions, better service quality, and financial literacy campaigns.
[UPSC 2016] The establishment of ‘Payment Banks’ is being allowed in India to promote financial inclusion. Which of the following statements is/are correct in this context?
1. Mobile telephone companies and supermarket chains that are owned and controlled by residents are eligible to be promoters of Payment Banks
2. Payment Banks can issue both credit cards and debit cards
3. Payment Banks cannot undertake lending activities
Options: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only* (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
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Why in the News?
India has improved its global mobility ranking, moving up eight places to 77th in the Henley Passport Index 2025, up from 85th in 2024.
About Henley Passport Index, 2025
- Overview: A global ranking of passports based on the number of destinations accessible without a prior visa.
- Compiled by: Published by Henley & Partners using data from the International Air Transport Association (IATA).
- Coverage: Includes 227 travel destinations and is updated quarterly.
- Purpose: Reflects changes in global mobility, international relations, and travel freedoms.
Global Scenario (2025 Rankings):
- 1st Rank: Singapore – Visa-free access to 193 destinations.
- 2nd Rank: Japan and South Korea – Access to 190 destinations.
- 3rd Rank (tie): Germany, France, Italy, Spain, Finland, Denmark, Ireland – Access to 189 destinations.
- United States: Fell to 10th rank – Access to 182 destinations.
- Overall Trend:
- Asian and European passports dominate top positions.
- Countries with restrictive or unstable foreign policies rank lower.
India’s Achievements:
- 2025 Rank: 77th, up from 85th in 2024 – an 8-place improvement.
- Access Level: Indian passport holders have visa-free or visa-on-arrival access to 59 countries.
- New Additions: Philippines, Sri Lanka.
- Context:
- Despite gaining access to only two new countries, India’s rank rose significantly due to global reshuffling.
- This marks a recovery from a 5-place drop in 2024, indicating improved travel diplomacy.

[UPSC 2011] In terms of economy, the visit by foreign nationals to witness the XIX Commonwealth Games in India amounted to-
Options: (a) Export (b) Import (c) Production (d) Consumption |
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