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Type: Prelims Only

  • Women empowerment issues – Jobs,Reservation and education

    Supreme Court on Paid Menstrual Pain Leave

    Why in the News

    The Supreme Court of India expressed concern that making paid menstrual leave legally mandatory could unintentionally harm women’s career prospects and employment opportunities.

    Key Observations by the Court

    Possible Career Impact

    • The Bench led by Surya Kant cautioned that a mandatory law for menstrual leave could:
      • Discourage employers from assigning major responsibilities to women.
      • Reduce employment opportunities for young women.
      • Lead to workplace bias in hiring or promotions.

    Preference for Voluntary Policies

    • The Court distinguished between:
      • Statutory mandatory rights, and
      • Voluntary policies adopted by employers or institutions.
    • It encouraged voluntary initiatives instead of imposing a compulsory nationwide law.

    Context of the Petition

    • The plea sought a uniform national law granting paid menstrual leave to: Working women and Female students.
    • The petitioner argued that such leave is linked to dignity and health under Article 21 (Right to Life).

    Existing Examples in India

    • Some states and institutions already provide menstrual leave voluntarily: Odisha, Kerala, and Karnataka.
    • Certain universities and private organisations have also introduced menstrual leave policies.

    International Context

    • Several countries have adopted menstrual leave policies, including: Spain, Japan, South Korea, Indonesia, Vietnam, and Zambia
    • The petition also cited India’s commitment under the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW).

    Significance

    • Raises an important debate on gender equality vs workplace practicality.
    • Highlights the need for sensitive workplace policies while avoiding unintended discrimination.
    [2019] With reference to the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017, consider the following statements: Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave. This act applies to all organisations with 20 or more employees. It has made it mandatory for every organisation with 100 or more employees to have a crèche. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
  • Right To Privacy

    Supreme Court Declines Plea to Make NAT Tests Mandatory in Blood Banks

    Why in the News

    The Supreme Court of India refused to direct the government to mandate Nucleic Acid Testing (NAT) in blood banks for screening donated blood before transfusions.

    Court’s Decision

    • A bench headed by Surya Kant declined to issue a judicial order making NAT tests compulsory.
    • The Court said judges lack specialised expertise in medical science and cost assessment required for such policy decisions.
    • States also have financial constraints, which must be considered before mandating expensive tests.

    Direction Given

    • The petitioner NGO was allowed to submit representations to State Health Secretaries.
    • State governments may decide on NAT adoption with the advice of medical experts.

    What is Nucleic Acid Testing (NAT)?

    NAT (Nucleic Acid Test) is a molecular diagnostic test that detects the genetic material (DNA/RNA) of viruses in blood.

    Detects infections such as:

    • Human Immunodeficiency Virus
    • Hepatitis B virus
    • Hepatitis C virus

    Advantages

    • Detects infections earlier during the “window period” before antibodies appear.
    • More accurate and sensitive than traditional screening tests.

    Limitation

    • Much more expensive, making universal adoption difficult for many public hospitals.

    Current Standard Test

    Most blood banks in India currently use the Enzyme‑Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA), which detects antibodies against viruses.

    Context of the Petition

    • Filed by an NGO to protect thalassemia patients, who require frequent blood transfusions.
    • The plea gained attention after several children in Madhya Pradesh reportedly contracted HIV from contaminated blood transfusions in 2025.

    Constitutional Argument

    • The petitioner argued that safe blood transfusion is part of the Right to Life under Article 21, but the Court held that policy decisions involving cost and technology should be taken by governments with expert input.
    [2019] With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following? (a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law. (b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament. (c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet. (d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.
  • Economic Indicators and Various Reports On It- GDP, FD, EODB, WIR etc

    Economic Stabilisation Fund to Tackle Global Headwinds

    Why in the News

    The Government of India has created an Economic Stabilisation Fund of ₹57,381 crore through the Second Supplementary Demand for Grants to manage economic shocks arising from global crises such as the West Asia conflict and rising oil prices.

    Key Highlights

    1. Supplementary Demand for Grants

    • The Lok Sabha approved the Second Supplementary Demand for Grants.
    • Gross additional expenditure: about ₹2.81 lakh crore.
    • Estimated savings and receipts: around ₹80,000 crore.
    • Net additional cash outgo: about ₹2.01 lakh crore.

    2. Economic Stabilisation Fund

    • Allocation: ₹57,381 crore.
    • Purpose: Provide fiscal space to address global economic uncertainties, including
      • Oil price shocks
      • Supply chain disruptions
      • External economic crises
      • Sector-specific shocks.
    • According to Nirmala Sitharaman, the fund will help the government respond quickly to unexpected global developments.

    3. Context: Global Economic Pressures

    • Rising crude oil prices (around $100 per barrel).
    • Disruptions due to West Asia conflict affecting energy supply chains.
    • Risk of broader global economic instability.

    4. Fiscal Deficit Assurance

    • The government reiterated that India’s fiscal deficit target for FY 2025–26 will remain at 4.4% of GDP, even after these additional expenditures.

    Significance

    • Acts as a buffer mechanism against external economic shocks.
    • Enhances fiscal flexibility for emergency responses.
    • Helps maintain macroeconomic stability without deviating from the fiscal consolidation roadmap.
    [2012] Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India? 1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament. 2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill. 3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programmes of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
  • The Crisis In The Middle East

    U.S. KC-135 Refuelling Aircraft Crash in Iraq

    Why in the News

    A KC‑135 Stratotanker crashed in western Iraq, killing all six crew members during the ongoing regional conflict.

    Incident Details

    • The aircraft belonged to the United States Air Force.
    • The crash occurred during operations linked to Operation Epic Fury.
    • A second aircraft involved in the mission landed safely.

    About the KC-135 Aircraft

    • Introduced over 60 years ago for aerial refuelling missions.
    • Typical crew: pilot, co-pilot, and boom operator.
    • Can carry additional crew or up to 37 passengers depending on the mission.
    • Plays a key role in extending the operational range of fighter and bomber aircraft.
    [2025] With reference to India’s defence, consider the following pairs: Dornier-228: Maritime patrol aircraft IL-76: Supersonic combat aircraft C-17 Globemaster III: Military transport aircraft How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (Dornier-228 and C-17 Globemaster III are correctly matched) (c) All the three (d) None
  • Economic Indicators and Various Reports On It- GDP, FD, EODB, WIR etc

    CPI Inflation Rises to 10-Month High in February 2026

    Why in the News

    India’s retail inflation, measured by the Consumer Price Index, rose to 3.2% in February 2026, the highest in ten months. The data was released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.

    Key Highlights

    1. Increase in Inflation

    • CPI inflation increased from January 2026 levels to 3.2% in February.
    • The last time inflation was higher was April 2025 (3.3%).

    2. Major Drivers of Inflation

    The rise was mainly driven by:

    • Food and Beverages
    • Inflation increased to 3.35% in February from 2.1% in January.
    • This segment contributed 44 basis points of the 47-basis-point increase in overall inflation.
    • Paan, Tobacco and Intoxicants: Inflation rose to 3.5% from 2.9%.
    • Personal Care and Miscellaneous Goods
      • Inflation remained very high at around 19.6%, largely due to rising gold and silver prices.

    Core Inflation

    • Core inflation (excluding food and fuel) remained stable at 3.4% between January and February.

    Impact of Global Factors

    Economists warn inflation may rise further due to:

    • Energy supply disruptions caused by the West Asia conflict.
    • Higher prices in electricity, gas, fuel, restaurants, and accommodation.
    • Depreciation of the Indian rupee.
    [2020] Consider the following statements: The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index (WPI). The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does. Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its key measure of inflation and to decide on changing the key policy rates. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
  • The Crisis In The Middle East

    India Co-Sponsors UNSC Resolution Against Iran

    Why in the News

    India co-sponsored a resolution at the United Nations Security Council calling for the immediate cessation of attacks by Iran on Gulf countries amid the ongoing West Asia conflict.

    Key Points of the Resolution

    • The resolution was backed by 134 countries.
    • 13 members of the UNSC voted in favour, while Russia and China abstained.
    • It demands that Iran stop attacks against Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) countries.

    GCC Countries Mentioned

    • The resolution refers to members of the Gulf Cooperation Council, including: Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, United Arab Emirates, and Jordan (partner country).

    Maritime Security Concern

    • The resolution also condemns attempts by Iran to interfere with navigation through the Strait of Hormuz, a crucial route for global energy supplies.

    India’s Position

    According to the Ministry of External Affairs:

    • India prioritises the safety of all civilians in the conflict.
    • The GCC region is important because:
      • Around 10 million Indians live and work there.
      • The region supplies about 50% of India’s crude oil imports and around 90% of LPG imports.

    Criticism of India’s Stance

    Some former diplomats argued that:

    • India condemned Iran’s actions but did not explicitly criticise strikes by the United States and Israel against Iran.
    • Critics say diplomacy should recognise the complexity of the conflict rather than blame a single side.
    [2016] Which of the following is not a member of ‘Gulf Cooperation Council’? (a) Iran (b) Saudi Arabia (c) Oman (d) Kuwait
  • Parliament – Sessions, Procedures, Motions, Committees etc

    Speaker Says MPs Can Speak Only as Per Parliamentary Rules

    Why in the News

    Om Birla stated that every Member of Parliament has the right to speak in the Lok Sabha, but only according to the Constitution, Rules of Procedure, and Standing Orders.
    His remarks came a day after a motion seeking his removal was defeated in the House.

    Constitutional Basis

    • Freedom of Speech in Parliament: Under Article 105 of the Constitution of India:  MPs have freedom of speech in Parliament. However, this freedom is subject to parliamentary rules and procedures.

    Key Parliamentary Rules Governing Speeches

    • Recognition by the Chair: An MP can speak only when recognized by the Speaker. Members cannot stand and speak without permission.
    • Time is allocated based on: Party strength, Business of the House and Decision of the Speaker.
    • Agenda-Based Discussions
      • Members can speak mainly during: Question Hour, Zero Hour, Debates on Bills, Motions and Resolutions, Budget discussions

    Rules of Conduct: 

    • Members must:
      • Address the Chair (Speaker) and not other members directly.
      • Avoid unparliamentary language.
      • Speak only on the subject under discussion.

    Special Procedures

    Certain issues can be raised through specific procedures such as:

    • Adjournment Motion
    • Calling Attention Motion
    • Short Duration Discussion
    • Points of Order

    Role of the Speaker

    The Speaker:

    • Maintains order and discipline in the House.
    • Decides who speaks and for how long.
    • Can expunge remarks or suspend members for disorderly conduct.
    [2025] With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office. II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office. III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) I and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III
  • Supreme Court Verdict on OBC Creamy Layer Criterion

    Why in the News

    The Supreme Court of India ruled that income alone cannot determine the “creamy layer” among OBCs, and clarified how children of private sector and PSU employees should be treated in comparison with those of government servants. The judgment was delivered by Justices P. S. Narasimha and R. Mahadevan.

    What is the “Creamy Layer”?

    • The concept emerged from the landmark Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992).
    • It excludes the economically and socially advanced members of the OBC category from reservation benefits.
    • Currently, the income ceiling for creamy layer is ₹8 lakh per year.

    What the Supreme Court Said

    1. Income Cannot Be the Sole Criterion

    • The Court held that salary income alone cannot determine creamy layer status.
    • The social position and post of the parents must also be considered.

    2. Equality Between Government and Private Sector Employees

    • The Court addressed discrimination created by a 2004 government clarification:
    • Earlier:
      • Salary of private sector and PSU employees was counted in income.
      • Salary of government employees was not counted.
    • The Court ruled this creates “hostile discrimination” between similarly placed OBC candidates.

    This violates equality principles under:

    • Article 14 of the Constitution of India
    • Article 15 of the Constitution of India
    • Article 16 of the Constitution of India

    What Changes After the Verdict

    • Equal Treatment
      • Children of PSU and private sector employees will now be assessed similar to government employees, considering the status of the post, not only income.

    Benefits for Affected Candidates

    • Candidates previously denied OBC status in exams (like the Civil Services Examination) may now receive benefits.
    • The Court allowed the government to create supernumerary posts if necessary to accommodate them.

    Background of the Issue

    • 1993 DoPT guidelines excluded salary and agricultural income while determining creamy layer.
    • A 2004 clarification included salary income for private/PSU employees, causing the dispute.
    [2023] Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration. Statement-II : Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
  • Right To Privacy

    Supreme Court to Examine Definition of “Personal Data” under DPDP Law

    Why in the News

    The Supreme Court of India has agreed to examine what constitutes “personal data” and “public data” under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, amid concerns that the law may restrict access to information under the Right to Information Act, 2005.

    Background of the Case

    • The petition was filed by journalist Geeta Seshu and the Software Freedom Law Center India.
    • It was argued by senior advocate Indira Jaising.

    The petition claims the DPDP law may:

    • Restrict journalists’ access to information in the public interest
    • Allow excessive state surveillance
    • Weaken transparency provisions under RTI.

    Issues Raised in the Petition

    1. Restriction on RTI Access

    • Section 44(3) of the DPDP Act allegedly blocks disclosure of personal information through RTI requests.
    • The term “public interest” has reportedly been removed, making access to information harder.

    2. Lack of Clear Definitions

    • The petition argues the law does not clearly define: Personal data, Public data, and Information. This ambiguity may allow authorities to deny access to important information.

    3. Compensation Concerns

    • Penalties for data breaches go to the Consolidated Fund of India.
    • Individuals whose data is violated do not receive direct compensation.

    Court’s Observations

    The Bench headed by Surya Kant said:

    • A balance must be maintained between privacy and transparency.
    • Data privacy should not undermine the public’s right to information.
    • The Court also noted that data has become a major economic and strategic resource, requiring careful regulation.

    What Happens Next

    • The petitioners have been asked to frame specific legal questions.
    • The case will be heard further on March 23, 2026.

    Significance

    • The case could shape how privacy laws interact with RTI in India.
    • It may clarify the scope of personal data in governance and journalism.
    • The judgment could influence the future of digital rights and transparency in India.
    [2024] Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy? (a) Article 15  (b) Article 16  (c) Article 19  (d) Article 21
  • Foreign Policy Watch: India-Middle East

    IEA Announces Record Release of Strategic Oil Stocks

    Why in the News

    The International Energy Agency announced a record release of 400 million barrels of oil from strategic reserves to stabilise global markets after oil prices surged due to the US-Israel war with Iran.

    Key Points

    • Largest Release Ever
      • IEA’s 32 member countries agreed to release 400 million barrels of oil.
      • This is the largest coordinated release in the agency’s history.
      • It is the sixth emergency release since the IEA was created in 1974 after the oil crisis.
      • India is not a full member of the IEA.
    • Reason for the Decision
      • The conflict disrupted oil supply routes in the Middle East.
      • Tanker movement through the Strait of Hormuz has been blocked or restricted.
      • Around 20 million barrels per day of oil flows are affected.
    • Contribution by Countries
      • Member countries will release oil based on their national circumstances.
      • Japan plans to release about 80 million barrels from its reserves.
    • Market Reaction
      • Oil prices initially fell but rebounded later.
      • Markets doubt whether the release will offset the large supply disruption caused by the conflict.
    • Comparison with Earlier Crisis
      • During the Russia–Ukraine War, IEA countries released 182.7 million barrels, previously the largest coordinated action.

    Strategic Oil Reserves

    • IEA member countries collectively hold over 1.2 billion barrels in emergency reserves.
    • An additional 600 million barrels are held by industry under government obligations.

    Significance

    • Aims to stabilise global oil prices and supply.
    • Demonstrates international coordination during energy crises.
    • Highlights global vulnerability to disruptions in key energy transit routes like the Strait of Hormuz.
    In the context of global oil prices, “Brent crude oil” is frequently referred to in the news. What does this term imply? It is a major classification of crude oil. It is sourced from the North Sea. It does not contain sulphur. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3